Deck 17: Modern Approaches to Managing Bacterial Infections
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Deck 17: Modern Approaches to Managing Bacterial Infections
1
First-generation cephalosporins are best used against which of the following organisms?
A)Gram-negative rods
B)Gram-positive cocci
C)Yeasts and fungi
D)Anaerobes
A)Gram-negative rods
B)Gram-positive cocci
C)Yeasts and fungi
D)Anaerobes
Gram-positive cocci
2
Which of the following antibiotics is an excellent replacement for a patient allergic to penicillin because its spectrum of activity is the same as penicillin?
A)amikacin (Amikin)
B)doxycycline (Vibramycin)
C)erythromycin (E-mycin)
D)sulfamethoxazole (SMP)
A)amikacin (Amikin)
B)doxycycline (Vibramycin)
C)erythromycin (E-mycin)
D)sulfamethoxazole (SMP)
erythromycin (E-mycin)
3
Which of the following macrolides has the longest half-life?
A)azithromycin (Zithromax)
B)clarithromycin (Biaxin)
C)erythromycin (E-mycin)
D)telithromycin (Ketek)
A)azithromycin (Zithromax)
B)clarithromycin (Biaxin)
C)erythromycin (E-mycin)
D)telithromycin (Ketek)
azithromycin (Zithromax)
4
Which of the following is considered bacteriocidal?
A)tetracycline (Achromycin V)
B)erythromycin (E-mcyin)
C)clindamycin (Cleocin)
D)gentamicin
A)tetracycline (Achromycin V)
B)erythromycin (E-mcyin)
C)clindamycin (Cleocin)
D)gentamicin
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5
Some organisms produce beta-lactamase,which boosts the organisms resistance to which of the following?
A)penicillin
B)macrolides
C)sulfamethoxazole
D)fluoroquinolones
A)penicillin
B)macrolides
C)sulfamethoxazole
D)fluoroquinolones
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6
Which of the following is the drug of choice for postexposure prophylaxis and treatment of Bacillus anthracis provided there are no contraindications?
A)ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
B)norfloxacin (Noroxin)
C)levofloxacin (Levaquin)
D)penicillin
A)ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
B)norfloxacin (Noroxin)
C)levofloxacin (Levaquin)
D)penicillin
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7
Which of the following has been life-saving in the treatment of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
A)penicillin
B)cefoxitin (Mefoxin)
C)ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
D)vancomycin (Vancocyn,Lyphocin)
A)penicillin
B)cefoxitin (Mefoxin)
C)ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
D)vancomycin (Vancocyn,Lyphocin)
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8
Which of the following drugs has been associated with serum sickness?
A)clarithromycin (Biaxin)
B)tetracycline (Achromycin V)
C)cefaclor (Ceclor)
D)clindamycin (Cleocin)
A)clarithromycin (Biaxin)
B)tetracycline (Achromycin V)
C)cefaclor (Ceclor)
D)clindamycin (Cleocin)
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9
Which of the following is a side effect of clindamycin (Cleocin)?
A)Ototoxicity
B)Pseudomembranous colitis
C)Hyperglycemia
D)Crystalluria
A)Ototoxicity
B)Pseudomembranous colitis
C)Hyperglycemia
D)Crystalluria
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10
When prescribing doxycycline (Vibramycin),patients should be advised of which of the following?
A)Stay out of direct sunlight.
B)Drink 8 to 10 glasses of fluid per day.
C)Watch for signs of blood dyscrasia.
D)Take the drug 1 or 2 hours before meals.
A)Stay out of direct sunlight.
B)Drink 8 to 10 glasses of fluid per day.
C)Watch for signs of blood dyscrasia.
D)Take the drug 1 or 2 hours before meals.
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11
Patients who take metronidazole (Flagyl)should be advised to not consume which of the following?
A)Tea or coffee
B)Milk or other calcium-containing dairy products
C)Green leafy vegetables
D)Alcohol
A)Tea or coffee
B)Milk or other calcium-containing dairy products
C)Green leafy vegetables
D)Alcohol
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12
When prescribing an aminoglycoside,clinicians must remember that this type of drug has the potential to cause which of the following conditions?
A)Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
B)Ototoxicity
C)Decalcification of bone and teeth
D)Aplastic anemia
A)Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
B)Ototoxicity
C)Decalcification of bone and teeth
D)Aplastic anemia
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13
Which antibiotic is an aminoglycoside and is used in the treatment of infections caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa infection?
A)tobramycin (Nebcin)
B)nystatin (Mycostatin)
C)cefuroxime (Zinacef)
D)lorcarboside (Lorabid)
A)tobramycin (Nebcin)
B)nystatin (Mycostatin)
C)cefuroxime (Zinacef)
D)lorcarboside (Lorabid)
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14
For which of the following reasons were cephalosporins developed?
A)Ease of manufacturing and lower cost
B)Immediate bioavailability and long duration of activity (24 hours)
C)Toxicities not as severe or as frequent as Penicillin (PCN)
D)Broader spectrums of activity over gram-negative bacteria
A)Ease of manufacturing and lower cost
B)Immediate bioavailability and long duration of activity (24 hours)
C)Toxicities not as severe or as frequent as Penicillin (PCN)
D)Broader spectrums of activity over gram-negative bacteria
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15
Which drug is an antibiotic that inhibits the synthesis of folate,which is a critical component in the making of microbial DNA?
A)clindamycin (Cleocin)
B)cephalexin (Keflex)
C)tetracycline (Achromycin V)
D)sulfamethoxazole (Gantanol)
A)clindamycin (Cleocin)
B)cephalexin (Keflex)
C)tetracycline (Achromycin V)
D)sulfamethoxazole (Gantanol)
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16
The treatment of tuberculosis requires multiple drug therapy for a period of:
A)1 month.
B)2 months.
C)4 months.
D)6 months.
A)1 month.
B)2 months.
C)4 months.
D)6 months.
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17
Serious anaerobic infections as well as peptic ulcer disease caused by Helicobacter.pylori will respond well to which of the following medications?
A)terbinafine (Lamisil)
B)naftifine (Naftin)
C)metronidazole (Flagyl)
D)fluconazole (Diflucan)
A)terbinafine (Lamisil)
B)naftifine (Naftin)
C)metronidazole (Flagyl)
D)fluconazole (Diflucan)
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18
Which of the following would be prescribed for a patient with "atypical pneumonia" or a chlamydial infection?
A)fluconazole (Diflucan)
B)azithromycin (Zithromax,Z-Pak)
C)flucytosine (Ancobon)
D)clarithromycin (Biaxin)
A)fluconazole (Diflucan)
B)azithromycin (Zithromax,Z-Pak)
C)flucytosine (Ancobon)
D)clarithromycin (Biaxin)
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19
How are cephalosporins eliminated?
A)Bile action
B)Liver enzyme systems
C)Reabsorption in gut and pass in feces
D)Glomerular filtration
A)Bile action
B)Liver enzyme systems
C)Reabsorption in gut and pass in feces
D)Glomerular filtration
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20
Macrolide antibiotics are metabolized by:
A)Attaching to bile and elimination in feces.
B)Enzymatic activity by acetyltransferase to an inactive metabolite.
C)Glomerular filtration into the urine.
D)The cytochrome P-450 system.
A)Attaching to bile and elimination in feces.
B)Enzymatic activity by acetyltransferase to an inactive metabolite.
C)Glomerular filtration into the urine.
D)The cytochrome P-450 system.
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21
When taking fluoroquinolones,which of the following products should be avoided because it may interfere with absorption of the antibiotics?
A)aspirin
B)antacids
C)acetaminophen
D)Altoids
A)aspirin
B)antacids
C)acetaminophen
D)Altoids
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22
Which of the following is not absorbed orally?
A)sulfadiazine (Microsulfon)
B)sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
C)sulfamethoxazole (Gantanol)
D)sucralfate (Carafate)
A)sulfadiazine (Microsulfon)
B)sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
C)sulfamethoxazole (Gantanol)
D)sucralfate (Carafate)
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23
When "clavulanate" is added to amoxicillin,the combination offers clinicians which of the following?
A)A wider spectrum of activity than amoxicillin used alone
B)A narrower "spectrum of activity" than amoxicillin used alone
C)An agent able to combat anaerobes
D)An agent with a longer half-life,hence a longer dosing interval
A)A wider spectrum of activity than amoxicillin used alone
B)A narrower "spectrum of activity" than amoxicillin used alone
C)An agent able to combat anaerobes
D)An agent with a longer half-life,hence a longer dosing interval
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24
Which of the following can be used to prevent the development of a Borrelia burgdorferi infection if given as a single dose within 72 hours of a tick bite?
A)doxycycline (Vibramycin)
B)clarithromycin (Biaxin)
C)linezolid (Zyvox)
D)ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
A)doxycycline (Vibramycin)
B)clarithromycin (Biaxin)
C)linezolid (Zyvox)
D)ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
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25
Staphylococcus pneumoniae remains a difficult infection to treat because of its growing resistance to which of the following?
A)Penicillins and cephalosporins
B)Aminoglycosides
C)Tetracyclines
D)Sulfonamides
A)Penicillins and cephalosporins
B)Aminoglycosides
C)Tetracyclines
D)Sulfonamides
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26
Because tetracyclines bind to the 30S ribosomal unit in the cell wall of a microbe,all the agents in this class are able to:
A)Kill bacteria.
B)Stunt growth of bacteria.
C)Work effectively against viral infections.
D)Works effectively against fungal infections.
A)Kill bacteria.
B)Stunt growth of bacteria.
C)Work effectively against viral infections.
D)Works effectively against fungal infections.
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27
Which of the following routes are used to administer aminoglycosides?
A)Oral
B)Parenteral
C)Rectal
D)Transdermal
A)Oral
B)Parenteral
C)Rectal
D)Transdermal
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28
Imipenem is typically given with which other drug because when given alone it is rapidly metabolized in the tubules of the kidneys,rendering it ineffective?
A)cilastatin
B)amoxicillin
C)erythromycin
D)vancomycin
A)cilastatin
B)amoxicillin
C)erythromycin
D)vancomycin
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29
Which of the following is typically given to treat Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Lyme disease?
A)ticarcillin (Ticar)
B)tetracycline (Achromycin V)
C)tobramycin (Nebcin)
D)gatifloxacin (Tequin)
A)ticarcillin (Ticar)
B)tetracycline (Achromycin V)
C)tobramycin (Nebcin)
D)gatifloxacin (Tequin)
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30
If given too rapidly,which of the following drugs can cause severe hypotension accompanied by a rash with flat and raised lesions on the face,neck,chest,and arms?
A)azithromycin (Zithromax)
B)ampicillin
C)tetracycline (Achromycin V)
D)vancomycin (Vancocyn)
A)azithromycin (Zithromax)
B)ampicillin
C)tetracycline (Achromycin V)
D)vancomycin (Vancocyn)
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31
Which of the following drugs inhibits the hepatic metabolism of digoxin?
A)ampicillin
B)clarithromycin (Biaxin)
C)metronidazole (Flagyl)
D)tetracycline (Achromycin V)
A)ampicillin
B)clarithromycin (Biaxin)
C)metronidazole (Flagyl)
D)tetracycline (Achromycin V)
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32
Aminoglycosides are ineffective against which of the following organisms?
A)Gram-negative bacilli
B)Enteric bacilli
C)Gram-positive cocci
D)Anaerobic bacteria
A)Gram-negative bacilli
B)Enteric bacilli
C)Gram-positive cocci
D)Anaerobic bacteria
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33
Which of the following products can decrease the absorption of tetracycline if taken concomitantly?
A)Nuts
B)Eggs
C)Milk
D)Wheat
A)Nuts
B)Eggs
C)Milk
D)Wheat
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34
Hemolytic anemia may be encountered in patients with glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency when they take which of the following drugs?
A)penicillin
B)sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
C)cefoxitin (Mefoxin)
D)clindamycin (Cleocin)
A)penicillin
B)sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
C)cefoxitin (Mefoxin)
D)clindamycin (Cleocin)
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35
Sulfonamides may interact with sulfonylureas,causing which of the following reactions?
A)Hypokalemia
B)Hypoglycemia
C)Diabetic ketoacidosis
D)Hyperglycemia
A)Hypokalemia
B)Hypoglycemia
C)Diabetic ketoacidosis
D)Hyperglycemia
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36
Which of the following is a member of monobactam antibiotics?
A)aztreonam (Azactam)
B)azithromycin (Zithromax)
C)amikacin (Amikin)
D)ampicillin
A)aztreonam (Azactam)
B)azithromycin (Zithromax)
C)amikacin (Amikin)
D)ampicillin
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37
Which of the following agents may increase the plasma concentration of cephalosporins?
A)estrogen
B)probenecid (Benemid)
C)acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D)progesterone
A)estrogen
B)probenecid (Benemid)
C)acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D)progesterone
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38
The aminoglycosides,such as gentamicin,neomycin,and tobramycin,are best used against which pathogens?
A)Gram-positive
B)Gram-negative
C)Yeasts and spores
D)Anaerobes
A)Gram-positive
B)Gram-negative
C)Yeasts and spores
D)Anaerobes
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39
Fluoroquinolones have been associated with which effect?
A)Transient increase in liver enzymes
B)Increase in potassium
C)Prolongation of the QT interval
D)Serum sickness
A)Transient increase in liver enzymes
B)Increase in potassium
C)Prolongation of the QT interval
D)Serum sickness
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40
Which of the following can be administered for antibiotic-associated Clostridium difficile colitis that is resistant to metronidazole?
A)clindamycin (Cleocin)
B)doxycycline (Vibramycin)
C)vancomycin (Vancocyn)
D)cefaclor (Ceclor)
A)clindamycin (Cleocin)
B)doxycycline (Vibramycin)
C)vancomycin (Vancocyn)
D)cefaclor (Ceclor)
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