Deck 6: Skeletal System: Bones and Joints

Question 1

In adults, which of the following represents a set of fused bones?

A) femur
B) temporal bone
C) radius
D) sacral bone
E) tibia

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Which of the following pathways correctly follows the flow of nutrients needed by the osteocytes in compact bone?

A) Osteocytes $\rightarrow$ lacuna $\rightarrow$ blood vessels in central canals $\rightarrow$ diffusion through the canaliculi $\rightarrow$ blood vessels in periosteum & endosteum $\rightarrow$ general circulation
B) Osteocytes $\rightarrow$ lacuna $\rightarrow$ diffusion through the canaliculi $\rightarrow$ blood vessels in central canals $\rightarrow$ blood vessels in periosteum & endosteum $\rightarrow$ general circulation
C) Blood vessels in central canals $\rightarrow$ blood vessels in periosteum & endosteum $\rightarrow$ diffusion through the canaliculi $\rightarrow$ lucane $\rightarrow$ osteocyte
D) Blood vessels in periosteum & endosteum $\rightarrow$ blood vessels in central canals $\rightarrow$ diffusion through the canaliculi $\rightarrow$ lacuna $\rightarrow$ osteocyte
E) Blood vessels in periosteum $\rightarrow$ direct diffusion through the hard, ossified matrix $\rightarrow$ osteocyte

Answer 2

Blood vessels in periosteum & endosteum $\rightarrow$ blood vessels in central canals $\rightarrow$ diffusion through the canaliculi $\rightarrow$ lacuna $\rightarrow$ osteocyte

Question 3

Bone remodeling:

A) is essential for maintaining blood calcium levels
B) continues throughout the lifespan of the individual
C) is accomplished by the actions of the osteoclasts and osteoblasts
D) is controlled by the actions of Parathyroid Hormone, and Calcitonin.
E) All of these are true of bone remodeling.

Answer 3

E

Question 4

A long bone

A) has a medullary cavity in the diaphysis.
B) has red marrow and yellow marrow in its cavities.
C) has endosteum lining the medullary cavity.
D) has an epiphysis at each end.
E) has all of these properties.

Question 5

The interconnecting rods or plates of bone in spongy bone are called

A) osteocytes.
B) trabeculae.
C) haversian canals.
D) haversian systems.
E) epiphyses.

Question 6

Bones are a type of

A) cartilage.
B) epithelial tissue.
C) muscle tissue.
D) connective tissue.
E) multi-cellular membrane.

Question 7

Which of the following is INCORRECT?

A) Spongy bone is located in the epiphysis of long bones and interior of all other bones.
B) Compact bone is located in the diaphysis of long bones and thinner superficial surface of all other bones.
C) Compact bone is located in the epiphysis of long bones and interior of all other bones.
D) Lamellae are thin sheets of extracellular matrix in which bone is formed.
E) An osteon is a central canal with concentric layers of lamellae and osteocytes surrounding it.

Question 8

When bone growth (lengthening) stops,

A) the cartilage of each epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone and is called the epiphyseal line.
B) the bone of each epiphyseal plate is replaced by cartilage and is called the articular cartilage.
C) the cartilage of each epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone and is called the periosteum.
D) the bone of each epiphyseal plate is replaced by cartilage and is called the endosteum.
E) the cartilage of each epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone and is called the lamellar line.

Question 9

In compact bone, a haversian canal, with the lamellae and osteocytes surrounding it is called a(n)

A) lacunae.
B) osteon.
C) canaliculi.
D) spongy bone.
E) medullary cavities.

Question 10

Trabeculae

A) add strength to the bone without adding weight.
B) are found primarily in spongy (spongy) bone.
C) consist of several lamellae with osteocytes between the lamellae.
D) have no central canals or blood vessels.
E) All of these pertain to trabeculae.

Question 11

The extracellular matrix of cartilage may contain

A) primarily collagen fibers.
B) collagen fibers and minerals.
C) collagen fibers, elastic fibers and proteoglycans.
D) primarily elastic fibers.
E) chondrocytes.

Question 12

The extracellular matrix of bone

A) contains collagen and minerals.
B) has a high proportion of calcium phosphate crystals (hydroxyapatite).
C) is entirely composed of proteoglycans.
D) contains collagen and minerals and has a high proportion of calcium phosphate crystals (hydroxyapatite) are correct.
E) has a high proportion of calcium phosphate crystals (hydroxyapatite) and is entirely composed of proteoglycans are correct.

Question 13

The functions of the skeletal system include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) support and protection
B) movement and leverage
C) transport of materials via its fluid matrix
D) blood cell production
E) storage of minerals

Question 14

The skeletal system helps maintain homeostasis by

A) acting as a calcium buffer and storage site.
B) acting as a phosphate buffer and storage site.
C) acting as an energy buffer and storage site.
D) acting as a blood cell production site.
E) All of these aid in maintaining homeostasis.

Question 15

During growth of a long bone, the site of growth in length is the

A) medullary cavity.
B) marrow.
C) epiphyseal plate.
D) endosteum.
E) periosteum.

Question 16

The periosteum

A) contains blood vessels and nerves.
B) contains osteoblasts.
C) is composed of dense connective tissue.
D) covers the outer surface of bones.
E) All of these are correct.

Question 17

Compact bone consists of cells called osteocytes located within spaces in the matrix called

A) lamellae.
B) haversian canals.
C) canaliculi.
D) lacunae.
E) medullary cavities.

Question 18

The extracellular matrix of tendons and ligaments is made up of

A) primarily collagen fibers.
B) collagen and minerals.
C) collagen and proteoglycan
D) osteocytes.
E) chondrocytes.

Question 19

The outer surface of bone is covered by a connective tissue layer called the

A) lamellae.
B) periosteum.
C) endosteum.
D) epiphysis.
E) diaphysis.

Question 20

Bone growth:

A) occurs through the deposition of new bone lamellae onto existing bone or other connective tissue.
B) at the epiphyseal plates causes increase in bone diameter.
C) causing an increase in the length of the bone is called appositional growth.
D) is accomplished by the osteoclasts.
E) all of these are true of bone growth.

Question 21

Which of these anatomical terms for bone features is NOT correctly matched with its description?

A) condyle - smooth, rounded end of bone where it forms a joint with another bone
B) tubercle or tuberosity - knob or enlargement
C) process - prominent indentation
D) head - enlarged (often rounded) end
E) facet - small, flattened articular surface

Question 22

Which of these sections of the vertebral column is matched with its correct number of vertebrae?

A) thoracic - 7 vertebrae
B) cervical - 12 vertebrae
C) sacral - 5 vertebrae fused into one sacrum
D) lumbar - 8 vertebrae
E) coccygeal - 2 vertebrae fused into one coccyx

Question 23

The two bones of the skull in which teeth are located are the

A) maxilla and mandible.
B) zygomatic and mandible.
C) maxilla and zygomatic.
D) maxilla and frontal.
E) frontal and mandible.

Question 24

All of the following occur during endochondral ossification EXCEPT:

A) Chondrocytes in the cartilage model enlarge, then die.
B) The cartilage is calcified.
C) A medullary cavity is formed as the osteoblasts remove bone and calcified cartilage.
D) A primary ossification center forms in the center of the diaphysis as blood vessels and osteoblasts invade the calcified cartilage.
E) The presence of blood vessels in the outer surface of the future bone causes some of the unspecified connective tissue cells on the surface to become osteoblasts.

Question 25

Which of these vertebrae is NOT correctly matched with their identifying characteristics?

A) thoracic vertebrae - articular facets for ribs
B) lumbar vertebrae - transverse foramina in transverse processes
C) atlas - articulates with occipital condyles
D) axis - allows lateral motion as in shaking one's head "no"
E) sacrum - has sacral hiatus and sacral promontory

Question 26

The joint uniting the parietal and temporal bones is the

A) lambdoid suture.
B) coronal suture.
C) temporomandibular joint.
D) mastoid suture.
E) squamous suture.

Question 27

The first seven pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum are called

A) true ribs.
B) false ribs.
C) floating ribs.
D) sternal ribs.
E) Both true ribs and sternal ribs are correct names.

Question 28

Which two bones contribute to the nasal septum?

A) vomer and maxilla
B) vomer and sphenoid
C) maxillary and palatine
D) vomer and ethmoid
E) ethmoid and sphenoid

Question 29

Which of these statements about bone remodeling and repair is correct?

A) Bone remodeling involves removal of old bone by osteoblasts.
B) As a long bone increases in diameter, the size of the marrow cavity decreases.
C) Bone is the major storage site for calcium in the body.
D) The zone of tissue repair between two bone fragments is called a callus.
E) Both bone is the major storage site for calcium in the body and the zone of tissue repair between two bone fragments is called a callus are correct

Question 30

Which of these bones is a part of the appendicular skeleton?

A) skull
B) ribs
C) sternum
D) clavicle
E) hyoid

Question 31

Which of these statements about bone growth is NOT correct?

A) Bone growth can occur beneath the periosteum or in the epiphyseal plate.
B) Growth at the epiphyseal plate is responsible for the increase in length of long bones.
C) Bone growth occurs primarily because osteoclasts start forming new bone.
D) In the epiphyseal plate, dying chondrocytes are replaced by osteoblasts.
E) All of these are correct statements.

Question 32

Which of these bones does not contain a paranasal sinus?

A) frontal
B) parietal
C) maxillary
D) sphenoid
E) ethmoid

Question 33

Which of the following bones were likely produced through endochondral ossification?

A) femur
B) frontal
C) parietal
D) temporal
E) None of these bones were formed through endochondral ossification.

Question 34

Which of these sections of the vertebral column curve posteriorly?

A) cervical curvature and lumbar curvature
B) thoracic curvature and cervical curvature
C) thoracic curvature and lumbar curvature
D) lumbar curvature and sacrum (with coccyx)
E) thoracic curvature and sacrum (with coccyx)

Question 35

Which of these statements about the skull is true?

A) The external acoustic meatus is a canal in the temporal bone.
B) The zygomatic arch consists of joined processes between the frontal and zygomatic bones.
C) The nasal conchae are bones that form the nasal septum.
D) The mastoid process is a prominent lump just anterior to the ear.
E) The bridge of the nose is formed by the frontal bone.

Question 36

Which of these bones or bone parts of the skull are correctly matched with their function?

A) sella turcica - contains pituitary gland
B) nasal conchae - increase surface area in the nasal cavity
C) paranasal sinuses - decrease weight and act as resonating chambers
D) hyoid bone - serves as point of attachment for neck and tongue muscles
E) All of these are correctly paired.

Question 37

After _____ (bone forming cells) become completely surrounded by bone matrix, they are called _____ (mature bone cells).

A) osteocytes, osteoblasts
B) osteoblasts, osteoclasts
C) osteoclasts, osteoblasts
D) osteoblasts, osteocytes
E) osteocytes, osteoclasts

Question 38

The pectoral girdle

A) attaches the lower limb to the body.
B) consists of the clavicle and scapula.
C) is part of the axial skeleton.
D) is attached to the body only where the clavicle attaches to the vertebrae.
E) has all of these characteristics.

Question 39

The palate

A) separates the nasal cavity from the mouth.
B) consists of a hard palate and a soft palate.
C) is a point of attachment for tongue muscles.
D) is formed by the palatine and sphenoid bones.
E) both separates the nasal cavity from the mouth and consists of a hard palate and a soft palate.

Question 40

Intramembranous ossification

A) occurs in the bones of the skull.
B) is the process that produces most of the skeletal system.
C) occurs when bones develop from cartilage models.
D) occurs when osteoblasts invade the spaces left by dying cartilage cells.
E) has all of these characteristics.

Question 41

Which of these statements concerning the appendicular styloid processes is true?

A) A styloid process is located on the proximal end of the ulna.
B) The styloid processes serve as points of attachment for forearm muscles.
C) A styloid process is located on the head of the radius.
D) The styloid processes are located on the radius and ulna where they articulate with the wrist.
E) All of these are true statements.

Question 42

Which of these statements about synovial joints is correct?

A) Articular cartilage covers articular surfaces of bones.
B) Synovial joints contain synovial fluid.
C) The synovial membrane may extend as a pocket or sac, called a bursa.
D) The joint cavity is enclosed by a joint capsule.
E) All of the statements are correct.

Question 43

You turn the doorknob clockwise with your right hand to open the door. The movement your hand makes would be called

A) extension.
B) flexion.
C) adduction
D) pronation.
E) supination.

Question 44

After suffering multiple cervical fractures, Myron Coolheart, IRS agent, was given a choice of which vertebrae to fuse together i.e., he could leave only one articulation unfused. He decided to choose the fusion that would still allow him to shake his head "no". His choice was to leave the ___________ unfused.

A) atlas to axis joint
B) atlas to occipital condyles articulation
C) articulation between C2 and C3
D) articulation between C6 and C7

Question 45

Which of these joints could be described as a saddle joint?

A) the knee joint
B) the shoulder joint
C) the articular processes between vertebrae
D) the thumb joint
E) the joint between occipital condyles and the atlas

Question 46

Vertebrae are best classified as

A) long bones.
B) short bones.
C) flat bones.
D) irregular bones.

Question 47

The bone disease osteoporosis is associated with

A) decreased amount of mineral in the bone.
B) increased formation of pannus in synovial joints followed by inflammation.
C) overall decrease in the total amount of bone tissue.
D) too little activity in osteoblasts.
E) increased uric acid being deposited in joint capsules.

Question 48

John Flashback was running downfield with the football. As he tried to avoid a tackle, he stepped in a hole and his foot was twisted under him with great force. The X-ray shows a "broken ankle". The structure that is most likely broken is the

A) calcaneus bone.
B) the patella.
C) a bone in the second metatarsal.
D) the lateral malleolus of the fibula.
E) the head of the fibula.

Question 49

Which of these statements concerning the upper limb is true?

A) The hand is composed of 5 metacarpals.
B) Each digit is composed of 4 phalanges.
C) The wrist is composed of 10 carpal bones.
D) The head of the ulna is closer to the thumb than is the distal end of the radius.
E) Epicondyles on the radius and ulna provide attachment sites for forearm muscles.

Question 50

The coxae

A) are part of the pectoral girdle.
B) are formed by the fusion of the ilium, ischium, and femur.
C) each have a large hole called the greater trochanter.
D) are joined together posteriorly by the pubic symphysis.
E) join the sacrum at the sacroiliac joint.

Question 51

Which of these bones touches all of the others?

A) frontal
B) temporal
C) sphenoid
D) parietal
E) maxillary

Question 52

Fibrous joints between the bones of the skull are called

A) sutures.
B) synovial joints.
C) gomphoses.
D) cartilaginous joints.
E) syndesmoses

Question 53

You are a forensic scientist who has just been given a skeleton to examine. You need to determine if the victim was male or female. Which of the following characteristics of the pelvic girdle are consistent with the police hypothesis that the victim was female?

A) heart shaped pelvic inlet
B) a sub-pubic angle greater than 90 degrees
C) Sacral promontory projects anteriorly
D) Ischial tuberosities are turned medially.
E) Ischial spines are relatively close together.

Question 54

A green-stick fracture is one specific example of

A) a comminuted fracture.
B) an impacted fracture.
C) an incomplete fracture.
D) a compound fracture.
E) an oblique fracture.

Question 55

Which of these movements would be needed to bend over and touch your big toe?

A) extension of arms
B) extension of forearms
C) flexion at the waist
D) Both extension of forearms and flexion at the waist are needed.
E) Both extension of arms and flexion at the waist are needed.

Question 56

Large points of muscle attachment near the proximal end of the femur are called

A) epicondyles.
B) a malleolus.
C) the acetabulum.
D) the trochanters.
E) the patellas.

Question 57

A blow to the shoulder often breaks the clavicle, but very seldom breaks the scapula. Suggest why.

A) The scapula is larger than the clavicle.
B) The clavicle provides the only bony attachment of the pectoral girdle to the body.
C) The scapula is more protected by muscle.
D) When the body is moving forward, the clavicle is more likely to be struck than the scapula.
E) All of these are valid explanations.

Question 58

Metacarpals and phalanges are best classified as

A) long bones.
B) short bones.
C) flat bones.
D) irregular bones.

Question 59

The scapula

A) has a depression called the glenoid cavity where the head of the humerus articulates.
B) has a coracoid process to which arm and chest muscles attach.
C) has an acromion process to which the clavicle attaches.
D) has a ridge, called the spine, on the posterior surface.
E) has all of these landmarks.

Question 60

During the process of bone repair, immobilization of the bone is most useful during

A) the last 2 weeks as bone remodeling occurs.
B) the first 4 to 6 hours until the blood clot forms.
C) the first 2 weeks until the callus has formed.
D) the first 4 to 6 weeks until spongy bone has closed the break.
E) the entire 2 to 3 months that it takes for compact bone to replace the compact bone that was originally lost.

Question 61

The extracellular matrix of bone does NOT include

A) collagen fibers.
B) elastic fibers.
C) calcium.
D) phosphate.
E) Bone includes all of these in its extracellular matrix.

Question 62

The locations where spinal nerves exit the vertebrae is (are) the

A) articular facets.
B) vertebral canal.
C) vertebral body.
D) spinous process.
E) intervertebral foramina.

Question 63

The ______________ is (are) the weight-bearing portion of vertebra.

A) articular facets
B) vertebral canal
C) vertebral body
D) spinous process
E) intervertebral foramina

Question 64

The ____________ is (are) the opening through which the optic nerve passes into the cranial vault.

A) mandibular fossa
B) foramen magnum
C) nasolacrimal canal
D) optic foramen
E) orbital fissures

Question 65

The maxillae is a(n)

A) long bone.
B) short bone.
C) flat bone.
D) irregular bone.

Question 66

The ____________ is (are) the opening through which the spinal cord connects to the brain.

A) mandibular fossa
B) foramen magnum
C) nasolacrimal canal
D) optic foramen
E) orbital fissures

Question 67

A ______________ is the anatomical term for a depression found in bone.

A) canal or meatus
B) fissure
C) fossa
D) sinus
E) foramen

Question 68

The letter D on this figure is pointing to the

A) epiphysis.
B) diaphysis.
C) periosteum.
D) endosteum.
E) medullary cavity.

Question 69

The _____________ is (are) the opening(s) through which nerves or blood vessels communicate with the orbit.

A) mandibular fossa
B) foramen magnum
C) nasolacrimal canal
D) optic foramen
E) superior and inferior orbital fissures

Question 70

The ulna and radius are best classified as

A) long bones.
B) short bones.
C) flat bones.
D) irregular bones.

Question 71

________ marrow consists of bone forming cells and is found in the _______ of adults.

A) Yellow, medullary cavity
B) Yellow, proximal epiphyses
C) Red, medullary cavity
D) Red, proximal epiphyses

Question 72

The ribs and sternum are best classified as

A) long bones.
B) short bones.
C) flat bones.
D) irregular bones.

Question 73

The location where vertebrae join each other is (are) the

A) articular facets.
B) vertebral canal.
C) vertebral body.
D) spinous process.
E) intervertebral foramina.

Question 74

The anatomical term to describe a tunnel in bone is

A) canal or meatus.
B) fissure.
C) fossa.
D) sinus.
E) foramen.

Question 75

A __________ is a term describing a hole found in bone.

A) canal or meatus
B) fissure
C) fossa
D) sinus
E) foramen

Question 76

The _____________ is (are) the depression where the mandible articulates with the temporal bone.

A) mandibular fossa
B) foramen magnum
C) nasolacrimal canal
D) optic foramen
E) orbital fissures

Question 77

The ____________ is (are) the opening that passes from the orbit to the nasal cavity.

A) mandibular fossa
B) foramen magnum
C) nasolacrimal canal
D) optic foramen
E) orbital fissures

Question 78

The ____________ is (are) the opening through which the spinal cord passes.

A) articular facets
B) vertebral canal
C) vertebral body
D) spinous process
E) intervertebral foramina

Question 79

The lumps that can be felt down the midline of the back are the

A) articular facets.
B) vertebral canals.
C) vertebral bodies.
D) spinous processes.
E) intervertebral foramina.

Question 80

The anatomical term for a cavity found inside bone is

A) canal or meatus.
B) fissure.
C) fossa.
D) sinus.
E) foramen.