Deck 14: Neurological Disorders

Question 1

A key reason as to why malignant tumors are deadly is that such tumors

A) can compress liver and pancreatic cells.
B) can grow quickly.
C) are difficult to remove from gut
D) destroy other brain cells through apoptosis.
E) secrete toxic acids

Answer 1

B
Explanation: A key reason as to why malignant tumors are deadly is that such tumors can grow quickly.

Question 2

A meningioma is a ________ tumor that arises from ________.

A) benign; astrocytes
B) benign; Schwann cells
C) malignant; Schwann cells
D) benign; dural or arachnoid cells
E) malignant; dural or arachnoid cells

Answer 2

D
Explanation: A meningioma is a benign tumor that arises dural or arachnoid cells.

Question 3

________ involve(s)periodic bouts of overactivity of cerebral neurons.

A) Dementia
B) Metastases
C) Parkinson's disease
D) Seizure disorders
E) Strokes

Answer 3

D

Question 4

The initial phase of a grand mal seizure is termed the ________ and is denoted by ________.

A) clonic phase; relaxation of all muscles
B) tonic phase; rhythmic jerking movements of the body
C) aural phase; perception of music
D) tonic phase; forceful contraction of all muscles
E) aural phase; release of glycine within the spinal cord

Question 5

The process through which malignant brain tumors directly damage neurons is

A) the induction of hemorrhage.
B) excessive release of oxygen radicals.
C) compression and infiltration.
D) the induction of seizure activity.
E) overstimulation of neuron activity.

Question 6

The key distinction between ________ and ________ seizures relates to whether these involve most of the brain.

A) simple; complex
B) complex; epileptic
C) generalized; other types of
D) partial; generalized
E) simple; partial

Question 7

A ________ is a mass of cells without useful function that shows uncontrolled growth.

A) tumor
B) cyst
C) nodule
D) gland
E) polyp

Question 8

________ is a condition in which a patient shows a series of seizures,but does not regain consciousness.

A) Petit mal disorder
B) Coma disorder
C) Simple partial seizure disorder
D) Absence disorder
E) Status epilepticus

Question 9

A tumor of the ________ type was removed from the brain of Mrs.R.

A) malignant
B) glioma
C) angioma
D) blastocyte
E) meningioma

Question 10

A tumor of the ________ type is dangerous because it ________.

A) neuroma; can compress neural tissue
B) benign; is malignant and fast growing
C) malignant; has an encapsulated border
D) glioma; is malignant and fast growing
E) benign; induced seizure activity.

Question 11

Unlike other seizure disorders,a grand mal seizure

A) can produce convulsions, but not unconsciousness.
B) is an example of a simple partial seizure disorder.
C) is the most severe form of seizure disorder.
D) is usually localized to a small focus within the brain.
E) can dim consciousness, but does not produce motor convulsions.

Question 12

Which of the following tumors is most dangerous?

A) benign
B) gliomas
C) angiomas
D) blastocytes
E) neningioma

Question 13

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a benign tumor?

A) The tumor is harmless.
B) The tumor is encapsulated.
C) The tumor cells do not perform a useful function.
D) The tumor grows by infiltrating other brain regions.
E) The tumor has a distinct border.

Question 14

Benign tumors

A) spread rapidly through the process of metastasis.
B) are difficult to remove from brain tissue.
C) do not require treatment.
D) are likely to be fatal in very old persons.
E) have a distinct border.

Question 15

Seizures that result in uncontrollable muscle contractions involve the

A) motor system.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebellum.
D) limbic system.
E) parietal cortex.

Question 16

The distinction between ________ and ________ seizures relates to whether these originate from a definite focus within the brain.

A) generalized; complex
B) simple; partial
C) simple; complex
D) partial; generalized
E) complex; epileptic

Question 17

The seizure disorder suffered by Mrs R.in the chapter prologue was treated by

A) administration of tPa.
B) removal of a benign tumor from her brain.
C) administration of antiseizure medication.
D) removal of a malignant tumor from her brain.
E) electrical stimulation of her subthalamus.

Question 18

In the chapter prologue,Mrs.R.suffered from ________ brought on by ________.

A) tinnitus; a genetic disorder
B) seizures; alcoholism
C) seizures; a brain tumor
D) impaired vision; years of reading under low-light conditions
E) headaches; excessive caffeine intake

Question 19

Which of the following cells CANNOT give rise to a brain tumor?

A) meningeal cells
B) neurons
C) astrocytes
D) glial cells
E) ependymal cells

Question 20

________ is the most common of the seizure disorders noted in children.

A) Petit mal disorder
B) Coma disorder
C) Simple partial seizure disorder
D) Absence
E) Status epilepticus

Question 21

A key treatment for stroke caused by a thrombus involves

A) medication to lower blood pressure.
B) administration of a drug that dissolves clots.
C) administration of demoteplase.
D) brain surgery to seal off the faulty vessels.
E) medication that speeds up the formation of blood clots.

Question 22

Which of the following will produce a hemorrhagic stroke?

A) bleeding within the brain
B) prevention of blood flow
C) the formation of an embolus in the lungs
D) the passage of a thrombus into the brain
E) release of glycine in brain.

Question 23

Fetal alcohol syndrome can result

A) from chronic paternal alcoholism.
B) from as little as a single drinking binge during a critical period of fetal development.
C) from the combined effects of alcohol and other drugs.
D) only from chronic maternal alcoholism.
E) from a single exposure to a beer consumed by the mother.

Question 24

Which of the following represents a therapy for non-hemorrhagic ischemic stroke?

A) drugs that activate GABA receptors
B) drugs that block glutamate receptors
C) drugs that block inflammatory reactions
D) tPa
E) the anticoagulant desmoteplase

Question 25

Which of the following is true regarding strokes?

A) Hemorrhagic strokes are associated with bleeding within the heart.
B) Ischemic strokes are related to excessive vasodilation of the brain blood vessels.
C) The risk of stroke increases with age.
D) Hemorrhagic strokes are associated with tumor compression of nerve tissue.
E) Ischemic stroke will eventually produce a hemorrhagic stroke.

Question 26

A mother who contracts rubella during her pregnancy may deliver a child that suffers from

A) phenylketonuria.
B) fetal alcohol syndrome.
C) Moebius syndrome.
D) mental retardation.
E) Tay-Sachs syndrome.

Question 27

What causes the impaired fetal development induced by rubella?

A) The virus induces key cells to form a 23rd chromosome.
B) toxins produced by the rubella virus
C) alteration of chromosome number by the virus
D) induction of an error of metabolism within key brain cells
E) deletion of key enzymes within the brain

Question 28

A key treatment for stroke involving weak and malformed blood vessels involves

A) medication to lower blood pressure.
B) administration of antibiotics.
C) administration of demoteplase.
D) brain surgery to seal off the faulty vessels.
E) medication that speeds up the formation of blood clots.

Question 29

Obstructive strokes can be caused by

A) pressure from weakened blood vessels.
B) intracranial bleeding.
C) thrombi or emboli.
D) malformed blood vessels.
E) the weakening of blood vessels by toxic levels of glutamate.

Question 30

Which of the following statements about an embolus is correct?

A) It is composed of debris that travels in blood and eventually lodges in an artery.
B) It can consist of pieces of thrombi.
C) It can be caused by infection within the wall of the heart.
D) It is due to pressure exerted by a tumor.
E) An embolus secretes acids which destroy neurons.

Question 31

An alcoholic who abruptly stops drinking may experience a seizure because

A) of a sudden release from the inhibiting effects of alcohol.
B) this abrupt withdrawal excites GABA receptors.
C) alcohol withdrawal induces hyposensitivity of glutamate receptors.
D) withdrawal leads to brain damage.
E) long-term alcohol abuse causes brain damage.

Question 32

Which of the following represents a potential therapy for stroke?

A) drugs that promote inflammatory reactions
B) drugs that inactivate GABA receptors
C) drugs that block glutamate receptors
D) introduction of free radicals into the affected brain region
E) drugs that excite glutamate receptors

Question 33

Anticonvulsant drugs work by

A) directly inactivating motor neurons.
B) facilitating acetylcholine receptor sites.
C) increasing the effectiveness of inhibitory synapses in the brain.
D) blocking the activity of GABA sites in the brain.
E) causing the release of glutamate in brain.

Question 34

Another term for cerebrovascular accident is

A) apoptosis.
B) tumor growth.
C) epilepsy.
D) stroke.
E) seizure disorder.

Question 35

The impact of ________ within the internal carotid artery is serious because this artery ________.

A) tPa; supplies blood to the gut
B) neurofibrillary tangles; supplies blood to the heart
C) atherosclerotic plaque; supplies blood to the brain
D) tPa; absorbs CSF from the brain
E) atherosclerotic plaque; supplies blood to the gut

Question 36

Which of the following is a risk factor for stroke?

A) stress
B) low blood pressure
C) high blood levels of cholesterol
D) marijuana smoking
E) yoga

Question 37

Phenylketonuria is caused by

A) an inherited lack of an enzyme.
B) neurofibrillary tangles.
C) toxic chemicals released by a virus.
D) accumulation of waste products in the brain.
E) prenatal exposure to rubella.

Question 38

What is the most common cause of seizures?

A) drug overdose
B) sudden withdrawal from barbiturates
C) scarring produced by damage within the brain
D) exposure to toxic chemicals
E) long-term use of sleeping pills

Question 39

________ is(are)a primary symptom or sign of fetal alcohol syndrome.

A) Grand mal seizures
B) Swelling of the brain
C) An immature immune system
D) Abnormal facial development
E) Motor tics of the hands and arms

Question 40

The death of neurons following a stroke is caused by

A) over-stimulation of nerve cells by abnormally high levels of glutamate.
B) neuronal firing produced by compression.
C) interruption of glycogen delivery to the cell.
D) enhanced release of the inhibitory transmitter GABA.
E) loss of oxygen radicals.

Question 41

Which of the following is NOT a congenital disorder?

A) phenylketonuria
B) galactosemia
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) Down syndrome
E) Parkinson's disease

Question 42

Abnormal or misfolded intracellular proteins are tagged by ________ molecules,which targets them for destruction by the ________.

A) parkin; ubiquitin
B) ?-synuclein; parkin
C) ubiquitin; proteasomes
D) parkin; Lewey bodies
E) ubiquitin; neurofilaments

Question 43

Parkinson's disease has been traced to

A) overproduction of dopamine within the basal ganglia.
B) degeneration of dopamine neurons within the nigrostriatal system.
C) loss of cholinergic neurons within the frontal cortex.
D) overproduction of GABA within the caudate nucleus.
E) overactivation of serotonin neurons in the hippocampus.

Question 44

The disorder known as transmissible spongiform encephalopathy results in

A) degeneration of the brain.
B) shrinking of the brain ventricles.
C) anomalies of the face.
D) nausea.
E) greater cortical weight

Question 45

The standard drug treatment for Parkinson's disease is administration of

A) haloperidol.
B) belladonna.
C) L-DOPA.
D) apomorphine.
E) cocaine and amphetamine.

Question 46

Abnormal microscopic structures develop in the brains of older persons with Down syndrome and those suffering from

A) Tay-Sachs disease.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) Korsakoff's syndrome.
D) Parkinson's disease.
E) status epilepticus.

Question 47

Administration of ________ may prevent the further development of Parkinson's disease..

A) L-DOPA
B) deprenyl
C) MPTP
D) L-DOPA
E) hydrogen peroxide

Question 48

The term congenital refers to

A) a condition present at birth.
B) the fact that a fetus has both male and female internal reproductive structures.
C) a neurological condition that appears during puberty.
D) a mismatch between gender identity and gender morphology.
E) a genetic metabolic error of the brain.

Question 49

Down syndrome is caused by

A) improper migration of brain cells during brain development.
B) an inherited faulty gene.
C) a genetic error in which a vital enzyme is missing in the brain.
D) the presence of an extra twenty-first chromosome.
E) obstetric difficulties at the time of birth.

Question 50

Tracing the cause of Parkinson's disease is difficult because PD is

A) an inherited disorder. .
B) can be caused by drugs of abuse such as caffeine.
C) an unrecognized infectious disorder.
D) can be caused by environmental toxins.
E) )is a sporadic disorder.

Question 51

Tay-Sachs disease is characterized by

A) accumulation of waste products within brain neurons.
B) damage to lysosomes contained within neurons.
C) interference with the chemical signals that control normal brain development.
D) faulty migration of cells to the cortex during development.
E) incomplete myelinization.

Question 52

Misfolded prion proteins may be toxic to brain cells because these

A) can be passed from neuron to neuron.
B) trigger apoptosis in a neuron.
C) overstimulate glutamate receptors.
D) block sodium currents through the neuron membrane.
E) damage lysosomes leading to neuron swelling.

Question 53

Which of the following is true of Parkinson's disease (PD)?

A) PD is a rare neurodegenerative syndrome.
B) Nigrostriatal neurons die in PD.
C) Most cases of PD are inherited..
D) Muscle flacidity is a PD symptom.
E) Early intervention can cure PD.

Question 54

Which of the following represents a current therapy for Parkinson's disease?

A) stereotaxically guided destruction of the internal division of the globus pallidus
B) administration of an immune factor against ?-amyloid
C) administration of amphetamine or cocaine
D) stereotaxically guided destruction of the internal division of the primary motor cortex
E) administration of haloperidol

Question 55

People with Down syndrome

A) have brains that are approximately 10 percent lighter than those of normal people.
B) suffer from augmented activity of the frontal lobe.
C) often fail to learn to talk.
D) have no distinguishing physical characteristics.
E) hace an extra Y chromosome

Question 56

A disease condition is considered to be sporadic if it

A) occurs often.
B) is seen in many parts of the world.
C) is not caused by heredity.
D) cannot be traced to a specific cause.
E) is easily treated using drugs.

Question 57

________ is caused by degeneration of dopamine-secreting neurons of the substantia nigra.

A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Parkinson's disease
C) Acute anterior poliomyelitis
D) Encephalitis
E) Dowen syndrome

Question 58

A common element for neurodegenerative diseases is

A) an infection related to the prion bacterium.
B) suppression of apoptosis within the brain.
C) the presence of misfolded proteins within brain cells.
D) the inactivation of caspase-12 within neurons.
E) the inactivation of caspase-12 within glia.

Question 59

Treatment for phenylketonuria consists of early diagnosis and

A) a diet low in thyroxine.
B) a complete blood transfusion at birth.
C) a shift to diet low in phenylalanine.
D) lifelong supplemental phenylalanine.
E) daily injections of the precursor of phenylalanine.

Question 60

The brain damage noted in a human who has contracted BSE ("Mad Cow Disease")is caused by a

A) type of protein known as a prion.
B) virus.
C) bacterium.
D) deficiency in blood levels of calcium.
E) kuru virus.

Question 61

An important cause of multiple sclerosis involves

A) a lack of an enzyme needed for myelinization.
B) the formation of neurofibrillary tangles.
C) the conversion of MPTP to MPP+.
D) damage to myelin induced by the person's immune system.
E) low levels of the ?-amyloid protein.

Question 62

An example of an early symptom of Alzheimer's disease is

A) difficulty in remembering appointments.
B) an inability to rise from bed in the morning.
C) mood swings.
D) trembling of the hands and feet.
E) muscle stiffness.

Question 63

Dying neurons that contain accumulations of amyloid and twisted protein filaments are called

A) neurofibrillary tangles.
B) neuritic plaques.
C) free radicals.
D) beta amyloid precursor proteins.
E) amyloid plaques.

Question 64

The most common infectious diseases likely to produce neurological damage are ________ and ________.

A) AIDS; polio
B) poliomyelitis; AIDS
C) multiple sclerosis; Alzheimer's disease
D) encephalitis; meningitis
E) rabies; herpes simplex

Question 65

Which of the following is true of multiple sclerosis (MS)?

A) MS is most likely to develop in a person over the age of 65.
B) The cortex is the target of MS.
C) MS is caused by misfolded prion proteins.
D) People who live close to the equator are most likely to develop MS.
E) MS is more common in people born during the late winter and early spring.

Question 66

The memory deficit noted in Alzheimer's disease involves

A) loss of spiny neurons in the putamen.
B) a form of retrograde amnesia.
C) anterograde amnesia similar to that of Korsakoff's syndrome.
D) loss of dopaminergic cells with the striatum.
E) a severe degeneration of the parietal cortex.

Question 67

Which of the following is true about Alzheimer's disease (AD)?

A) Opiate exposure is a cause of AD.
B) Early detection is critical for arresting the progress of AD. .
C) Most forms of AD may be hereditary.
D) The disease may be treated by blocking the formation of ?-amyloid.
E) The disease is congenital

Question 68

The first signs of neurodegeneration in Huntington's disease involve loss of

A) neurons involved in the synthesis of nitrous oxide.
B) dopamine-secreting neurons of the nigrostriatal system.
C) neurons involved in glucose metabolism.
D) GABAergic neurons of the putamen.
E) cholinergic neurons in the pons.

Question 69

________ is a rare motor disorder is caused by a defective gene on chromosome 4.

A) Phenylketonuria
B) Huntington's disease
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) Rabies
E) Alzheimer's disease

Question 70

A promising approach for the prevention of Alzheimer's disease involves

A) an antagonist of glutamate receptors in brain.
B) infusion of L-DOPA into the brain ventricles.
C) a drug that blocks the immune system.
D) a vaccine that passively stimulates the immune system to destroy ?-amyloid.
E) the use of the opiate MPTP.

Question 71

Which of the following is true of Huntington's disease (HD)?

A) HD is characterized by a poverty of movement.
B) HD can be cured using pallidotomy.
C) People who develop HD at a younger age have shorter stretches of glutamine.
D) HD is a hereditary disorder involving chromosome 4.
E) HD involves degeneration of the mesolimbic DA system.

Question 72

________ is a recent treatment for Parkinson's disease that allows patients to suppress their motor symptoms..

A) Electrical stimulation of the primary motor region
B) Intracranial administration of the drug haloperidol
C) Administration of reserpine into the spinal cord
D) Deep electrical stimulation of the subthalamic region
E) Infusion of GABA into the locus coeruleus

Question 73

The term dementia refers to

A) impaired cell functioning caused by viral toxins.
B) deterioration of intellectual abilities caused by an organic brain disorder.
C) the appearance of hallucinations and delusions.
D) demyelinization by autoimmune responses.
E) loss of neurons in the cerebral cortex and cells surrounding the third ventricle.

Question 74

Acute anterior poliomyelitis is a(n)

A) form of viral encephalitis.
B) bacterial infection.
C) congenital disorder.
D) immune system disease.
E) degenerative disease.

Question 75

Surgical removal of portions of the ________ can alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.

A) caudate nucleus
B) orbitofrontal cortex
C) putamen
D) basal ganglia
E) globus pallidus

Question 76

Which of the following is NOT true of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?

A) Most ALS cases are sporadic.
B) ALS is a degenerative disease.
C) The cause of death in ALS is failure of respiration.
D) Spinal cord and cranial motor neurons are destroyed in ALS.
E) ALS is caused by damage to Beta-amyloid in nerve cells.

Question 77

Parkinson's disease ________,but Huntington's disease ________.

A) is characterized by a poverty of movement; is characterized by uncontrollable movement
B) cannot be controlled; can be cured using pallidotomy
C) is a hereditary disorder; does not usually have genetic origins
D) usually occurs in the twenties and thirties; almost always occurs in the fifties and sixties
E) can be cured with drug treatment or surgery; can only be controlled

Question 78

________ is considered to be an autoimmune demyelinating disease.

A) Moebius syndrome
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Multiple sclerosis
D) Parkinson's disease
E) Huntington's disease

Question 79

A critical intracellular trigger for the development of Alzheimer's disease is

A) overproduction of the short form of the ?-amyloid protein.
B) reduced amounts of the tau protein in brain cells.
C) overproduction of the long form of the ?-amyloid protein.
D) an unfolding of the long form of the ?-amyloid protein.
E) induction of apoptosis within hippocampal neurons.

Question 80

A common treatment for Huntington's disease is

A) L-DOPA.
B) stereotaxic removal of the putamen.
C) avoiding alcohol during pregnancy.
D) electrical stimulation of the subthalamic nucleus.
E) There is no current treatment for this disorder.