Deck 21: Musculoskeletal System
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Deck 21: Musculoskeletal System
1
The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with
A)trauma to the skeletal system.
B)chronic atopic dermatitis.
C)genetic disorders.
D)obesity.
E)poor physical conditioning.
A)trauma to the skeletal system.
B)chronic atopic dermatitis.
C)genetic disorders.
D)obesity.
E)poor physical conditioning.
genetic disorders.
2
The elbow joint that allows for flexion and extension in one plane represents a type of _____ joint.
A)articulated
B)ball and socket
C)hinge
D)pivot condyloid
E)saddle
A)articulated
B)ball and socket
C)hinge
D)pivot condyloid
E)saddle
hinge
3
Spinal vertebrae are separated from each other by
A)bursae.
B)tendons.
C)disks
D)ligaments.
E)synovial fluid.
A)bursae.
B)tendons.
C)disks
D)ligaments.
E)synovial fluid.
disks
4
Bones around a joint are held together by
A)synovial membranes.
B)ligaments.
C)muscles.
D)cartilage.
E)tendons.
A)synovial membranes.
B)ligaments.
C)muscles.
D)cartilage.
E)tendons.
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5
Long bones in children have growth plates known as
A)epiphyses.
B)epicondyles.
C)synovium.
D)fossae.
E)diastasis.
A)epiphyses.
B)epicondyles.
C)synovium.
D)fossae.
E)diastasis.
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6
The cruciate ligaments within the knee provide for
A)anterior and posterior stability.
B)medial and lateral stability.
C)movement on one plane.
D)pivoting and rotation.
E)shock absorption.
A)anterior and posterior stability.
B)medial and lateral stability.
C)movement on one plane.
D)pivoting and rotation.
E)shock absorption.
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7
Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of
A)increased bone deposition.
B)increased bone resorption.
C)tendons becoming more elastic.
D)decreased bone deposition.
E)decreased bone resorption.
A)increased bone deposition.
B)increased bone resorption.
C)tendons becoming more elastic.
D)decreased bone deposition.
E)decreased bone resorption.
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8
The joint where the humerus, radius, and ulna articulate is the
A)wrist.
B)elbow.
C)shoulder.
D)sternum.
E)clavicle.
A)wrist.
B)elbow.
C)shoulder.
D)sternum.
E)clavicle.
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9
The articulation of the radius and carpal bones is the
A)wrist.
B)elbow.
C)shoulder.
D)clavicle.
E)digits.
A)wrist.
B)elbow.
C)shoulder.
D)clavicle.
E)digits.
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10
The tibia, fibula, and talus articulate to form the
A)ankle.
B)knee.
C)hip.
D)pelvis.
E)forefoot.
A)ankle.
B)knee.
C)hip.
D)pelvis.
E)forefoot.
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11
Fluid that lubricates articular cavities is called
A)blood.
B)synovial fluid.
C)mucus.
D)cerumen.
E)marrow.
A)blood.
B)synovial fluid.
C)mucus.
D)cerumen.
E)marrow.
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12
Injuries to long bones and joints are more likely to result in fractures than in sprains until
A)preschool age.
B)school age.
C)adolescence.
D)early adulthood.
E)middle adulthood.
A)preschool age.
B)school age.
C)adolescence.
D)early adulthood.
E)middle adulthood.
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13
The glenohumeral joint is the other name for the
A)elbow.
B)hip.
C)wrist.
D)scapula.
E)shoulder.
A)elbow.
B)hip.
C)wrist.
D)scapula.
E)shoulder.
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14
Ligaments are stronger than bone until
A)birth.
B)infancy.
C)adolescence.
D)middle adulthood.
E)old age.
A)birth.
B)infancy.
C)adolescence.
D)middle adulthood.
E)old age.
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15
Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for
A)rheumatoid arthritis.
B)osteoarthritis.
C)congenital bony defects.
D)osteoporosis.
E)sports-related injuries.
A)rheumatoid arthritis.
B)osteoarthritis.
C)congenital bony defects.
D)osteoporosis.
E)sports-related injuries.
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16
Risk factors for sports-related injuries include
A)competing in colder climates.
B)previous fractures.
C)history of recent weight loss.
D)failure to warm up before activity.
E)light body frame.
A)competing in colder climates.
B)previous fractures.
C)history of recent weight loss.
D)failure to warm up before activity.
E)light body frame.
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17
Medial and lateral surfaces of the tibiotalar joint are protected by
A)bursae.
B)tendons.
C)muscles.
D)ligaments.
E)synovial fluid.
A)bursae.
B)tendons.
C)muscles.
D)ligaments.
E)synovial fluid.
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18
The elasticity of pelvic ligaments and softening of cartilage in a pregnant woman are caused by
A)decreased mineral deposition.
B)increased hormone secretion.
C)uterine enlargement.
D)gait changes.
E)increased mineral resorption.
A)decreased mineral deposition.
B)increased hormone secretion.
C)uterine enlargement.
D)gait changes.
E)increased mineral resorption.
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19
The suprapatellar bursa separates the patella, quadriceps tendon, and muscle from the
A)talus.
B)fibula.
C)femur.
D)pelvis.
E)tibia.
A)talus.
B)fibula.
C)femur.
D)pelvis.
E)tibia.
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20
Bones are attached to muscles by
A)synovial membranes.
B)ligaments.
C)muscles.
D)cartilage.
E)tendons.
A)synovial membranes.
B)ligaments.
C)muscles.
D)cartilage.
E)tendons.
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21
A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is
A)kyphosis.
B)lordosis.
C)paraphimosis.
D)scoliosis.
E)phimosis.
A)kyphosis.
B)lordosis.
C)paraphimosis.
D)scoliosis.
E)phimosis.
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22
An increase in muscle tone is known as
A)crepitus.
B)effusion.
C)tenosynovitis.
D)atrophy.
E)spasticity.
A)crepitus.
B)effusion.
C)tenosynovitis.
D)atrophy.
E)spasticity.
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23
When the patient flexes forward at the waist, what spinal observation would lead you to suspect scoliosis?
A)A prominent lumbar hump
B)A prominent cervical concave curve
C)Lateral curvature of the spine
D)Restricted ability to flex at the hips
E)A gibbus
A)A prominent lumbar hump
B)A prominent cervical concave curve
C)Lateral curvature of the spine
D)Restricted ability to flex at the hips
E)A gibbus
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24
The physical assessment technique most frequently used to assess joint symmetry is
A)inspection.
B)palpation.
C)percussion.
D)the use of joint calipers.
E)auscultation.
A)inspection.
B)palpation.
C)percussion.
D)the use of joint calipers.
E)auscultation.
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25
Excessive hyperextension of the knee with weight bearing may indicate
A)advanced joint degeneration.
B)early signs of gout.
C)rotation of the Achilles tendon.
D)a meniscal tear.
E)weakness of the quadriceps muscle.
A)advanced joint degeneration.
B)early signs of gout.
C)rotation of the Achilles tendon.
D)a meniscal tear.
E)weakness of the quadriceps muscle.
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26
The temporomandibular joint is palpated
A)under the mandible anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
B)from inside the mouth.
C)anterior to the tragus.
D)at the mastoid process.
E)above the mandible at midline.
A)under the mandible anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
B)from inside the mouth.
C)anterior to the tragus.
D)at the mastoid process.
E)above the mandible at midline.
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27
A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is
A)swan neck deformities.
B)Bouchard nodes.
C)ganglion cysts
D)Heberden nodes.
E)spindle-shaped fingers.
A)swan neck deformities.
B)Bouchard nodes.
C)ganglion cysts
D)Heberden nodes.
E)spindle-shaped fingers.
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28
Pain, disease of the muscle, and damage to the motor neuron may all cause
A)bony hypertrophy.
B)muscle crepitus.
C)muscle hypertrophy.
D)muscle wasting.
E)claudication.
A)bony hypertrophy.
B)muscle crepitus.
C)muscle hypertrophy.
D)muscle wasting.
E)claudication.
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29
Classic carpal tunnel syndrome would result in
A)pain in the fourth and fifth digits.
B)a negative Phalen test.
C)reduced abduction of the thumb.
D)palm tingling.
E)a negative Tinel sign.
A)pain in the fourth and fifth digits.
B)a negative Phalen test.
C)reduced abduction of the thumb.
D)palm tingling.
E)a negative Tinel sign.
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30
Expected normal findings during inspection of spinal alignment include
A)asymmetrical skinfolds at the neck.
B)slight right-sided scapular elevation.
C)convex lumbar curve.
D)head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft.
E)convex cervical curve.
A)asymmetrical skinfolds at the neck.
B)slight right-sided scapular elevation.
C)convex lumbar curve.
D)head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft.
E)convex cervical curve.
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31
When the shoulder contour is asymmetrical and one shoulder has hollows in the rounding contour, you would suspect
A)a dislocated elbow.
B)a fractured scapula.
C)a dislocated shoulder.
D)muscle wasting.
E)kyphosis.
A)a dislocated elbow.
B)a fractured scapula.
C)a dislocated shoulder.
D)muscle wasting.
E)kyphosis.
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32
A tingling sensation radiating from the wrist to the hand on striking the median nerve is a positive _____ sign.
A)Phalen
B)Gower
C)Homan
D)Tinel
E)Allis
A)Phalen
B)Gower
C)Homan
D)Tinel
E)Allis
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33
When palpating joints, crepitus may be caused when
A)irregular bony surfaces rub together.
B)supporting muscles are excessively spastic.
C)joints are excessively lax.
D)there is excess fluid within the synovial membrane.
E)there is muscle wasting.
A)irregular bony surfaces rub together.
B)supporting muscles are excessively spastic.
C)joints are excessively lax.
D)there is excess fluid within the synovial membrane.
E)there is muscle wasting.
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34
Fasciculation occurs after injury to a muscle's
A)venous return.
B)motor neuron.
C)strength.
D)tendon.
E)fascia.
A)venous return.
B)motor neuron.
C)strength.
D)tendon.
E)fascia.
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35
Ulnar deviation and boutonniere deformities are characteristic of
A)winged scapula.
B)osteoarthritis.
C)osteoporosis.
D)congenital defects.
E)rheumatoid arthritis.
A)winged scapula.
B)osteoarthritis.
C)osteoporosis.
D)congenital defects.
E)rheumatoid arthritis.
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36
A goniometer is used to assess
A)bone maturity.
B)joint proportions.
C)range of motion.
D)muscle strength.
E)body fat.
A)bone maturity.
B)joint proportions.
C)range of motion.
D)muscle strength.
E)body fat.
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37
The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient
A)clench his or her teeth during muscle palpation.
B)push his or her head against the examiner's hand.
C)straighten his or her leg with examiner opposition.
D)uncross his or her legs with examiner resistance.
E)adduct the arm.
A)clench his or her teeth during muscle palpation.
B)push his or her head against the examiner's hand.
C)straighten his or her leg with examiner opposition.
D)uncross his or her legs with examiner resistance.
E)adduct the arm.
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38
The musculoskeletal examination should begin when
A)the patient enters the examination room.
B)during the collection of subjective data.
C)when height is measured.
D)when joint mobility is assessed.
E)the remainder of the physical examination is completed.
A)the patient enters the examination room.
B)during the collection of subjective data.
C)when height is measured.
D)when joint mobility is assessed.
E)the remainder of the physical examination is completed.
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39
Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by
A)having the patient frown.
B)having the patient clench his or her teeth.
C)asking patient to fully extend his or her neck.
D)passively opening the patient's jaw.
E)having the patient shrug his or her shoulders.
A)having the patient frown.
B)having the patient clench his or her teeth.
C)asking patient to fully extend his or her neck.
D)passively opening the patient's jaw.
E)having the patient shrug his or her shoulders.
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40
Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of
A)adolescents.
B)infants.
C)older adults.
D)middle adulthood.
E)children.
A)adolescents.
B)infants.
C)older adults.
D)middle adulthood.
E)children.
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41
What technique is performed at every infant examination during the first year of life to detect hip dislocation?
A)Ballottement maneuvers
B)Barlow-Ortolani maneuvers
C)Range of motion
D)Thomas McMurray assessment
E)Trendelenburg test
A)Ballottement maneuvers
B)Barlow-Ortolani maneuvers
C)Range of motion
D)Thomas McMurray assessment
E)Trendelenburg test
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42
A dowager hump is
A)the hallmark of osteoporosis.
B)pathognomic of scoliosis.
C)indicative of tendonitis.
D)characteristic of rickets.
E)indicative of muscular dystrophy.
A)the hallmark of osteoporosis.
B)pathognomic of scoliosis.
C)indicative of tendonitis.
D)characteristic of rickets.
E)indicative of muscular dystrophy.
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43
In differentiating osteoarthritis from rheumatoid arthritis (RA), the patient with osteoarthritis typically exhibits
A)metatarsus adductus.
B)depression.
C)sudden onset.
D)less weakness and fatigue.
E)pain most pronounced after periods of rest.
A)metatarsus adductus.
B)depression.
C)sudden onset.
D)less weakness and fatigue.
E)pain most pronounced after periods of rest.
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44
Anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the _____ test.
A)Lachman
B)straight leg raise
C)valgus stress
D)Homan
E)Thomas
A)Lachman
B)straight leg raise
C)valgus stress
D)Homan
E)Thomas
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45
A 45-year-old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression?
A)Positive straight leg raise result
B)Positive Trendelenburg sign
C)Negative Romberg test result
D)Contralateral straight leg raise result
E)Positive drawer test result
A)Positive straight leg raise result
B)Positive Trendelenburg sign
C)Negative Romberg test result
D)Contralateral straight leg raise result
E)Positive drawer test result
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46
The Thomas test is used to detect
A)hip dislocation.
B)unstable sacroiliac joints.
C)knee instability.
D)flexion contractures of the hip.
E)asymmetry in the level of the iliac crests.
A)hip dislocation.
B)unstable sacroiliac joints.
C)knee instability.
D)flexion contractures of the hip.
E)asymmetry in the level of the iliac crests.
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47
A red, hot swollen joint in a 40-year-old man should lead you to suspect
A)trauma.
B)bursitis.
C)gout.
D)cellulitis.
E)tenosynovitis.
A)trauma.
B)bursitis.
C)gout.
D)cellulitis.
E)tenosynovitis.
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48
A 7-year-old child who begins to limp and complains of persistent hip pain may have
A)myelomeningocele.
B)Dupuytren contracture.
C)Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease.
D)osteoarthritis.
E)congenital hip dislocation.
A)myelomeningocele.
B)Dupuytren contracture.
C)Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease.
D)osteoarthritis.
E)congenital hip dislocation.
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49
Term infants normally resist
A)ankle dorsiflexion.
B)McMurray test.
C)forefoot adduction.
D)knee extension.
E)elbow flexion.
A)ankle dorsiflexion.
B)McMurray test.
C)forefoot adduction.
D)knee extension.
E)elbow flexion.
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50
Dupuytren contracture affects the
A)hip flexor muscle.
B)plantar fascia.
C)carpal tunnel.
D)palmar fascia.
E)rotator cuff.
A)hip flexor muscle.
B)plantar fascia.
C)carpal tunnel.
D)palmar fascia.
E)rotator cuff.
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51
A 3-year-old boy is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding the right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. The mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of
A)radial head subluxation.
B)femoral anteversion.
C)carpal tunnel syndrome.
D)Osgood-Schlatter disease.
E)osteomyelitis.
A)radial head subluxation.
B)femoral anteversion.
C)carpal tunnel syndrome.
D)Osgood-Schlatter disease.
E)osteomyelitis.
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52
You note that a child has a positive Gower sign. You know that this indicates generalized
A)arthropathy.
B)muscle weakness.
C)bursitis.
D)muscle hypertrophy.
E)scoliosis.
A)arthropathy.
B)muscle weakness.
C)bursitis.
D)muscle hypertrophy.
E)scoliosis.
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53
A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates
A)leg length discrepancy.
B)knee instability.
C)lumbar nerve root irritation.
D)hip bursitis.
E)improperly conditioned muscles.
A)leg length discrepancy.
B)knee instability.
C)lumbar nerve root irritation.
D)hip bursitis.
E)improperly conditioned muscles.
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54
What temporary disorder may be experienced by pregnant women during the third trimester because of fluid retention?
A)Carpal tunnel syndrome
B)Osteitis deformans
C)Radial head subluxation
D)Talipes equinovarus
E)Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
A)Carpal tunnel syndrome
B)Osteitis deformans
C)Radial head subluxation
D)Talipes equinovarus
E)Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
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55
Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus?
A)Phalen test
B)McMurray test
C)Thomas test
D)Trendelenburg test
E)Drawer test
A)Phalen test
B)McMurray test
C)Thomas test
D)Trendelenburg test
E)Drawer test
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56
Arm length is measured from the acromion process through the
A)olecranon joint to carpal thumb hinge.
B)olecranon process to distal ulnar prominence.
C)proximal radial prominence to distal joint.
D)proximal ulnar joint to middle fingertip.
E)olecranon process to the second fingertip.
A)olecranon joint to carpal thumb hinge.
B)olecranon process to distal ulnar prominence.
C)proximal radial prominence to distal joint.
D)proximal ulnar joint to middle fingertip.
E)olecranon process to the second fingertip.
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57
Your examination of an infant reveals a positive Allis sign. To confirm this finding, you would perform a
A)startle reflex.
B)Barlow-Ortolani maneuver.
C)Trendelenburg test.
D)tibial torsion test.
E)Lachman test.
A)startle reflex.
B)Barlow-Ortolani maneuver.
C)Trendelenburg test.
D)tibial torsion test.
E)Lachman test.
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58
During a football game, a player was struck on the lateral side of the left leg while his feet were firmly planted. He is complaining of left knee pain. To examine the left knee, you should initially perform the _____ test.
A)varus stress
B)valgus stress
C)Apley
D)Lachman
E)drawer
A)varus stress
B)valgus stress
C)Apley
D)Lachman
E)drawer
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59
When performing the drawer test, the examiner would place the patient in a supine position and flex the knee 45 to 90 degrees, placing the foot flat on the table, and then
A)grasp and evert the foot and extend the knee.
B)grasp and invert the foot and rotate the knee.
C)grasp the lower leg with both hands and draw the tibia forward and then backward.
D)apply varus stress with the foot planted.
E)apply valgus stress after the leg is extended.
A)grasp and evert the foot and extend the knee.
B)grasp and invert the foot and rotate the knee.
C)grasp the lower leg with both hands and draw the tibia forward and then backward.
D)apply varus stress with the foot planted.
E)apply valgus stress after the leg is extended.
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60
An adult with bowed tibias and a shortened thorax may have
A) ankylosing spondylitis.
B) Paget disease.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) Dupuytren contracture.
E) Sprengel deformity.
A) ankylosing spondylitis.
B) Paget disease.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) Dupuytren contracture.
E) Sprengel deformity.
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