Deck 21: Musculoskeletal System

Question 1

Joints are held together by:

A) tendons.
B) ligaments.
C) muscles.
D) cartilage.

Answer 1

ligaments.

Question 2

Spinal vertebrae are separated from each other by:

A) bursae.
B) tendons.
C) disks.
D) ligaments.

Answer 2

disks.

Question 3

Bones are attached to muscles by:

A) tendons.
B) ligaments.
C) muscles.
D) cartilage.

Answer 3

tendons.

Question 4

The suprapatellar bursa separates the patella, quadriceps tendon, and muscle from the:

A) tibia.
B) fibula.
C) femur.
D) pelvis.

Question 5

The glenohumeral joint is the other name for the:

A) elbow.
B) shoulder.
C) wrist.
D) scapula.

Question 6

Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for:

A) rheumatoid arthritis.
B) osteoarthritis.
C) congenital bony defects.
D) osteoporosis.

Question 7

Risk factors for sports-related injuries include:

A) competing in colder climates.
B) previous fracture.
C) history of recent weight loss.
D) failure to warm up before activity.

Question 8

The type of joint that has the widest range of motion in all planes is the:

A) ball-and-socket.
B) condyloid.
C) gliding.
D) saddle.

Question 9

Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of:

A) increased bone deposition.
B) increased bone resorption.
C) decreased bone deposition.
D) decreased bone resorption.

Question 10

Long bones in children have growth plates known as:

A) epiphyses.
B) epicondyles.
C) synovium.
D) fossae.

Question 11

Fluid that lubricates articular cavities is called:

A) blood.
B) synovial fluid.
C) mucus.
D) cerumen.

Question 12

The articulation of the radius and carpal bones is the:

A) wrist.
B) elbow.
C) shoulder.
D) clavicle.

Question 13

Which joints are frequently moving articulations that are enclosed by a capsule of fibrous articular cartilage?

A) Synarthroses
B) Synchondroses
C) Amphiarthroses
D) Synovial

Question 14

An increase in muscle tone is known as:

A) crepitus.
B) effusion.
C) spasticity.
D) atrophy.

Question 15

Medial and lateral surfaces of the tibiotalar joint are protected by:

A) bursae.
B) tendons.
C) muscles.
D) ligaments.

Question 16

The tibia, fibula, and talus articulate to form the:

A) ankle.
B) knee.
C) hip.
D) pelvis.

Question 17

The elasticity of pelvic ligaments and softening of cartilage in a pregnant woman are the result of:

A) decreased mineral deposition.
B) increased hormone secretion.
C) uterine enlargement.
D) gait changes.

Question 18

The cruciate ligaments of the knee provide for:

A) anterior and posterior stability.
B) medial and lateral stability.
C) movement on one plane.
D) pivoting and rotation.

Question 19

The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with:

A) trauma to the skeletal system.
B) chronic atopic dermatitis.
C) genetic disorders.
D) obesity.

Question 20

The joint where the humerus, radius, and ulna articulate is the:

A) wrist.
B) elbow.
C) shoulder.
D) clavicle.

Question 21

Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of:

A) adolescents.
B) infants.
C) older adults.
D) middle-age adults.

Question 22

Pain, disease of the muscle, or damage to the motor neuron may all cause:

A) bony hypertrophy.
B) muscle crepitus.
C) muscle hypertrophy.
D) muscle wasting.

Question 23

The temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:

A) having the patient shrug their shoulders.
B) having the patient clench their teeth.
C) asking the patient to fully extend their neck.
D) passively opening the patient's jaw.

Question 24

Excessive hyperextension of the knee with weight bearing may indicate:

A) advanced joint degeneration.
B) gout.
C) rotation of the Achilles tendon.
D) weakness of the quadriceps muscle.

Question 25

A common finding in markedly obese patients and pregnant women is:

A) kyphosis.
B) lordosis.
C) paraphimosis.
D) scoliosis.

Question 26

Carpal tunnel syndrome would result in:

A) a negative Tinel sign.
B) a negative Phalen test.
C) reduced abduction of the thumb.
D) palm tingling.

Question 27

Expected normal findings during the inspection of spinal alignment include:

A) asymmetric skin folds at the neck.
B) slight right-sided scapular elevation.
C) concave lumbar curve.
D) the head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft.

Question 28

When the patient flexes forward at the waist, which spinal observation would lead you to suspect scoliosis?

A) Prominent lumbar hump
B) Prominent cervical concave curve
C) Lateral curvature of the spine
D) Restricted ability to flex at the hips

Question 29

A goniometer is used to assess:

A) bone maturity.
B) joint proportions.
C) range of motion.
D) muscle strength.

Question 30

A wheelchair-dependent older woman would most likely develop skin breakdown at:

A) C7.
B) the iliac crests.
C) L4.
D) the gibbus.

Question 31

Fasciculation occurs after injury to a muscle's:

A) venous return.
B) motor neuron.
C) strength.
D) tendon.

Question 32

Ulnar deviation and swan neck deformities are characteristic of:

A) rheumatoid arthritis.
B) osteoarthritis.
C) osteoporosis.
D) congenital defects.

Question 33

When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when:

A) irregular bony surfaces rub together.
B) supporting muscles are excessively spastic.
C) joints are excessively lax.
D) there is excess fluid within the synovial membrane.

Question 34

The musculoskeletal examination should begin when:

A) the patient enters the examination room.
B) during the collection of subjective data.
C) when height is measured.
D) when joint mobility is assessed.

Question 35

The physical assessment technique most frequently used to assess joint symmetry is:

A) inspection.
B) palpation.
C) percussion.
D) the use of joint calipers.

Question 36

When the shoulder contour is asymmetric and one shoulder has hollows in the rounding contour, you would suspect:

A) kyphosis.
B) fractured scapula.
C) a dislocated shoulder.
D) muscle wasting.

Question 37

When a patient abducts an arm and the ipsilateral scapula becomes more prominent (winged), this usually means that:

A) there has been an injury to the nerve of the anterior serratus muscle.
B) one of the clavicles has been fractured.
C) there is a unilateral trapezius muscle separation.
D) one shoulder is dislocated.

Question 38

A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is (are):

A) swan neck deformities.
B) Bouchard nodes.
C) ganglions.
D) Heberden nodes.

Question 39

The temporomandibular joint is palpated:

A) under the mandible, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
B) above the mandible at midline.
C) anterior to the tragus.
D) at the mastoid process.

Question 40

The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient:

A) clench her or his teeth during muscle palpation.
B) push her or his head against the examiner's hand.
C) straighten her or his leg with examiner opposition.
D) uncross her or his legs with examiner resistance.

Question 41

When performing the McMurray test, the examiner should place the patient in a supine position with a hand on the patient's completely flexed knee and the foot flat on the table at the buttocks, and then:

A) grasp and evert the foot and extend the knee.
B) grasp and invert the foot and rotate the knee.
C) apply valgus stress with the foot planted.
D) apply varus stress with the foot planted.

Question 42

You note that a child has a positive Gower sign. You know that this indicates generalized:

A) arthropathy.
B) muscle weakness.
C) bursitis.
D) muscle hypertrophy.

Question 43

A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates:

A) leg length discrepancy.
B) improperly conditioned muscles.
C) lumbar nerve root irritation.
D) hip bursitis.

Question 44

In contrast to the patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA), the osteoarthritis patient typically exhibits:

A) pain most pronounced after periods of rest.
B) depression.
C) sudden onset.
D) less weakness and fatigue.

Question 45

Which technique is performed at every infant's examination during the first year of life to detect hip dislocation?

A) Ballottement maneuver
B) Barlow-Ortolani maneuver
C) Range of motion
D) Thomas McMurray assessment

Question 46

Dupuytren contracture affects the:

A) hip flexor muscle.
B) rotator cuff.
C) carpal tunnel.
D) palmar fascia.

Question 47

Anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the _________ test.

Question 48

The Thomas test is used to detect:

A) hip dislocation.
B) unstable sacroiliac joints.
C) knee instability.
D) flexion contractures of the hip.

Question 49

A red, hot, swollen joint in a 40-year-old man should lead you to suspect:

A) trauma.
B) bursitis.
C) gout.
D) cellulitis.

Question 50

Your examination of an infant reveals a positive Allis sign. To confirm this finding, you would perform (or elicit) a:

A) startle reflex.
B) Barlow-Ortolani maneuver.
C) Trendelenburg test.
D) tibial torsion test.

Question 51

A 3-year-old is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding his right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. The mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of:

A) radial head subluxation.
B) femoral anteversion.
C) carpal tunnel syndrome.
D) osteomyelitis.

Question 52

A tingling sensation radiating from the wrist to the hand on striking the median nerve is a positive _____ sign.

Question 53

Arm length is measured from the acromion process through the:

A) olecranon joint to the carpal thumb hinge.
B) olecranon process to the distal ulnar prominence.
C) proximal radial prominence to the distal joint.
D) proximal ulnar joint to the middle fingertip.

Question 54

What temporary disorder may be experienced by pregnant women during the third trimester because of fluid retention?

A) Carpal tunnel syndrome
B) Osteitis deformans
C) Radial head subluxation
D) Talipes equinovarus

Question 55

Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus?

A) Drawer test
B) McMurray test
C) Thomas test
D) Trendelenburg test

Question 56

A 7-year-old child who begins to limp and complains of persistent hip pain may have:

A) congenital hip dislocation.
B) Dupuytren contracture.
C) Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease.
D) osteoarthritis.

Question 57

A dowager hump is:

A) the hallmark of osteoporosis.
B) pathognomic of scoliosis.
C) indicative of tendonitis.
D) characteristic of rickets.

Question 58

During a football game, a player was struck on the lateral side of the left leg while his feet were firmly planted. He is complaining of left knee pain. To examine the left knee, you should initially perform the __________ test.

Question 59

Term infants normally resist:

A) ankle dorsiflexion.
B) McMurray test.
C) forefoot adduction.
D) knee extension.

Question 60

The elbow joint that allows for flexion and extension in one plane represents a type of _____ joint.

Question 61

The wrist moves in:

A) eversion and inversion.
B) proximal radius and ulna articulation.
C) flexion and extension
D) adduction and abduction.

Question 62

Cardinal signs for rheumatoid disorders include which of the following?

A) Gradual onset
B) Weakness that is usually localized and not severe
C) Coarse crepitus on motion
D) Joint tenderness
E) Sleep disturbance

Question 63

The most mobile vertebrae are the _______________ vertebrae.