Deck 7: Marketing Strategy
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Deck 7: Marketing Strategy
1
The difference between e-marketing and traditional marketing is in the venue.
True
2
Differentiation and positioning considerations are relevant to the product and placing elements of the marketing mix.
False
3
Market segmentation precedes the selection of a target market.
True
4
If a market is new to the firm, concentrating on one target market makes the most sense.
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5
Price-quality signaling occurs when the cost of a good or a service reflects the perceived quality of that product or service.
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6
Design issues do not apply to services.
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7
The mission statement tries to articulate the long-term purpose and idealized notion of what a business hopes to become.
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8
Price skimming occurs when a new product is priced higher than that of the competition to maximize profit.
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9
Differential response is the extent to which market segments are easily distinguishable from each other and respond differently to company marketing strategies.
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10
If a brand name is used for a firm as a whole, the preferred term for referring to it is "trade name."
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11
Product mix is the selection of a firm's products or services that is offered to the marketplace.
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12
The PLC provides guidance for watching how a product or a service progresses in the marketplace so that the necessary marketing strategy steps can be taken.
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13
The price of a product never includes the values of time, energy, and psychic cost.
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14
All products and services can have only two layers: core and augmented.
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15
Differentiation is about the mind of the consumer: placing a company or a brand in the consumer's mind in relation to the competition.
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16
The product or service package communicates both emotional and functional benefits to the buyer, and it can be an important means of product differentiation.
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17
The basic marketing principles that guide small-business marketing and big-business marketing are the same.
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18
A firm may find ready-made target markets when a competing firm ignores the smaller segments of the market.
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19
Typography is the use of typefaces or fonts in a design.
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20
Segmentation and target market decisions must be made only for onground customers.
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21
The extent to which market segments are easily distinguishable from each other and respond in another way to company marketing strategies is known as:
A) marketing measurability.
B) product substantiality.
C) research stability.
D) customer accessibility.
E) differential response.
A) marketing measurability.
B) product substantiality.
C) research stability.
D) customer accessibility.
E) differential response.
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22
In the context of marketing research, actionability:
A) identifies and estimates the size of a segment.
B) has to do with consumer preferences.
C) studies if the segment is large and profitable enough to justify an investment.
D) studies if a business can communicate with and reach the segment.
E) studies if a small business is capable of designing an effective marketing program that can serve the chosen market segment.
A) identifies and estimates the size of a segment.
B) has to do with consumer preferences.
C) studies if the segment is large and profitable enough to justify an investment.
D) studies if a business can communicate with and reach the segment.
E) studies if a small business is capable of designing an effective marketing program that can serve the chosen market segment.
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23
Marketing objectives are about:
A) where the business is going.
B) why the business exists.
C) what the business will want to accomplish with its marketing strategy.
D) how the business will accomplish its marketing objectives.
E) what sales level is required to start making a profit.
A) where the business is going.
B) why the business exists.
C) what the business will want to accomplish with its marketing strategy.
D) how the business will accomplish its marketing objectives.
E) what sales level is required to start making a profit.
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24
In the context of marketing research, stability:
A) identifies and estimates the size of a segment.
B) has to do with consumer preferences.
C) studies if the segment is large and profitable enough to justify an investment.
D) studies if a business can communicate with and reach the segment.
E) studies if a small business is capable of designing an effective marketing program that can serve the chosen market segment.
A) identifies and estimates the size of a segment.
B) has to do with consumer preferences.
C) studies if the segment is large and profitable enough to justify an investment.
D) studies if a business can communicate with and reach the segment.
E) studies if a small business is capable of designing an effective marketing program that can serve the chosen market segment.
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25
Loss leaders are products that are discounted to get customers in the door in the hope that they will also buy more profitable products.
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26
In the context of marketing research, accessibility:
A) identifies and estimates the size of a segment.
B) has to do with consumer preferences.
C) studies if the segment is large and profitable enough to justify an investment.
D) studies if a business can communicate with and reach the segment.
E) studies if a small business is capable of designing an effective marketing program that can serve the chosen market segment.
A) identifies and estimates the size of a segment.
B) has to do with consumer preferences.
C) studies if the segment is large and profitable enough to justify an investment.
D) studies if a business can communicate with and reach the segment.
E) studies if a small business is capable of designing an effective marketing program that can serve the chosen market segment.
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27
Direct marketing is about using information to educate, establish trust, and build a company or someone in it as an authority.
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28
Logistics involves all the activities involved in the physical flow and storage of materials, semi-finished goods, and finished goods to customers in a manner that is efficient and cost effective.
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29
Retailers that offer a wide assortment of products will spend more on logistics because transportation and storage costs will increase as the number of carried products increases.
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30
All service-based businesses use the indirect channel because the role of intermediaries is very essential for these businesses.
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31
Taxes, the cost of advertising, competitors who benefit from government subsidies, consumer demand, differences in costs of living, and the general cost of doing business are other factors that enter into the decision to use even-odd pricing.
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32
Integrated marketing communications (IMC) is about pulling all the marketing communications together to convey a consistent message.
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33
In the context of marketing research, measurability:
A) identifies and estimates the size of a segment.
B) has to do with consumer preferences.
C) studies if the segment large and profitable enough to justify an investment.
D) studies if a business can communicate with and reach the segment.
E) studies if a small business is capable of designing an effective marketing program that can serve the chosen market segment.
A) identifies and estimates the size of a segment.
B) has to do with consumer preferences.
C) studies if the segment large and profitable enough to justify an investment.
D) studies if a business can communicate with and reach the segment.
E) studies if a small business is capable of designing an effective marketing program that can serve the chosen market segment.
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34
A company's vision tries to articulate:
A) where the business is going.
B) why the business exists.
C) what the business will want to accomplish with its marketing strategy.
D) how the business will accomplish its marketing objectives.
E) what sales level is required to start making a profit.
A) where the business is going.
B) why the business exists.
C) what the business will want to accomplish with its marketing strategy.
D) how the business will accomplish its marketing objectives.
E) what sales level is required to start making a profit.
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35
High inventories are undesirable because they may lead to obsolete products and depressed sales of new models.
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36
In the context of marketing research, substantiality:
A) identifies and estimates the size of a segment.
B) has to do with consumer preferences.
C) studies if the segment is large and profitable enough to justify an investment.
D) studies if a business can communicate with and reach the segment.
E) studies if a small business is capable of designing an effective marketing program that can serve the chosen market segment.
A) identifies and estimates the size of a segment.
B) has to do with consumer preferences.
C) studies if the segment is large and profitable enough to justify an investment.
D) studies if a business can communicate with and reach the segment.
E) studies if a small business is capable of designing an effective marketing program that can serve the chosen market segment.
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37
The focus of marketing strategy identifies:
A) where the business is going.
B) why the business exists.
C) what the business will want to accomplish with its marketing strategy.
D) how the business will accomplish its marketing objectives.
E) what sales level is required to start making a profit.
A) where the business is going.
B) why the business exists.
C) what the business will want to accomplish with its marketing strategy.
D) how the business will accomplish its marketing objectives.
E) what sales level is required to start making a profit.
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38
A company's mission looks to articulate:
A) where the business is going.
B) why the business exists.
C) what the business will want to accomplish with its marketing strategy.
D) how the business will accomplish its marketing objectives.
E) what sales level is required to start making a profit.
A) where the business is going.
B) why the business exists.
C) what the business will want to accomplish with its marketing strategy.
D) how the business will accomplish its marketing objectives.
E) what sales level is required to start making a profit.
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39
Quick-response (QR) codes are high-tech bar codes that are scanned with smartphone cameras, after which company and/or product content pops up on the screen.
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40
A discount pricing strategy could lead to a product or a service being perceived as low quality.
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41
Dynamic pricing is seen to be in action when:
A) buyers and sellers can view and compare prices for products sold online.
B) prices are varied for individual customers.
C) a company figures out how much it costs to make a product or deliver a service and then sets the price by adding a profit to the cost.
D) when the pricing strategy taps into the belief that a high price means high quality.
E) a low price is set in order to attract customers and gain market share.
A) buyers and sellers can view and compare prices for products sold online.
B) prices are varied for individual customers.
C) a company figures out how much it costs to make a product or deliver a service and then sets the price by adding a profit to the cost.
D) when the pricing strategy taps into the belief that a high price means high quality.
E) a low price is set in order to attract customers and gain market share.
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42
Lindt, a confectionery company, offers expensive luxury Swiss chocolates. Which of the following approaches to positioning is this company using?
A) Positioning by attribute
B) Positioning by price/quality
C) Positioning by use or application
D) Positioning by product user
E) Positioning by product class
A) Positioning by attribute
B) Positioning by price/quality
C) Positioning by use or application
D) Positioning by product user
E) Positioning by product class
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43
Which of the following layers of a product captures the emotional and psychological connections of a product to a consumer?
A) Core layer
B) Expected layer
C) Augmented layer
D) Potential layer
E) Symbolic layer
A) Core layer
B) Expected layer
C) Augmented layer
D) Potential layer
E) Symbolic layer
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44
Which stage of a product's life cycle has costs but absolutely no sales?
A) Product development stage
B) Product introduction stage
C) Product growth stage
D) Product maturity stage
E) Product decline stage
A) Product development stage
B) Product introduction stage
C) Product growth stage
D) Product maturity stage
E) Product decline stage
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45
Which of the following layers of a product carries its physical anatomy and its basic features?
A) Core layer
B) Expected layer
C) Augmented layer
D) Potential layer
E) Symbolic layer
A) Core layer
B) Expected layer
C) Augmented layer
D) Potential layer
E) Symbolic layer
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46
Each time a coach teaches a new batch of students, he will perform in a different way. This implies that services are:
A) intangible.
B) perishable.
C) inseparable.
D) variable.
E) simultaneous.
A) intangible.
B) perishable.
C) inseparable.
D) variable.
E) simultaneous.
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47
Which of the following pricing strategies taps into the belief that a high price means high quality?
A) Discount pricing
B) Cost-based pricing
C) Prestige pricing
D) Eve-odd pricing
E) Geographic pricing
A) Discount pricing
B) Cost-based pricing
C) Prestige pricing
D) Eve-odd pricing
E) Geographic pricing
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48
If a reservation at a restaurant is missed, it is lost or it does not exist. This means that services are:
A) intangible.
B) perishable.
C) inseparable.
D) variable.
E) heterogeneous.
A) intangible.
B) perishable.
C) inseparable.
D) variable.
E) heterogeneous.
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49
Which of the following is a typical characteristic of a product's growth stage?
A) There are costs but no sales.
B) Profits are typically low or nonexistent.
C) Sales decline and profits erode.
D) Sales increase rapidly.
E) Profits stabilize or decline.
A) There are costs but no sales.
B) Profits are typically low or nonexistent.
C) Sales decline and profits erode.
D) Sales increase rapidly.
E) Profits stabilize or decline.
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50
Which of the following stages of a product's life cycle is characterized by slow growth because most of the buyers interested in a product have bought it?
A) Product development stage
B) Product introduction stage
C) Product growth stage
D) Product maturity stage
E) Product decline stage
A) Product development stage
B) Product introduction stage
C) Product growth stage
D) Product maturity stage
E) Product decline stage
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51
Which of the following is a characteristic of a product's augmented layer?
A) It carries a product's physical anatomy and its basic features.
B) It enhances a product by attaching additional value to it.
C) It contains attributes that buyers normally expect when they purchase a product.
D) It captures the emotional and psychological connections of a product to a consumer.
E) It augments and transforms a product to undergo changes in the future.
A) It carries a product's physical anatomy and its basic features.
B) It enhances a product by attaching additional value to it.
C) It contains attributes that buyers normally expect when they purchase a product.
D) It captures the emotional and psychological connections of a product to a consumer.
E) It augments and transforms a product to undergo changes in the future.
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52
Competition enters the marketplace once the product observes success. This is usually the characteristic of a product's:
A) development stage.
B) introduction stage.
C) growth stage.
D) maturity stage.
E) decline stage.
A) development stage.
B) introduction stage.
C) growth stage.
D) maturity stage.
E) decline stage.
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53
Unlike a product, services offered by a university cannot be seen, smelled, heard, or touched prior to purchase. This implies that services are:
A) intangible.
B) perishable.
C) inseparable.
D) variable.
E) heterogeneous.
A) intangible.
B) perishable.
C) inseparable.
D) variable.
E) heterogeneous.
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54
Which of the following approaches to positioning has its focus on a particular quality, a product feature, or customer benefit?
A) Positioning by attribute
B) Positioning by price/quality
C) Positioning by use or application
D) Positioning by product user
E) Positioning by product class
A) Positioning by attribute
B) Positioning by price/quality
C) Positioning by use or application
D) Positioning by product user
E) Positioning by product class
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55
Things such as packaging, promotion, warranties, guarantees, brand name, and design are a part of a product's:
A) core layer.
B) expected layer.
C) augmented layer.
D) potential layer.
E) symbolic layer.
A) core layer.
B) expected layer.
C) augmented layer.
D) potential layer.
E) symbolic layer.
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56
A company's website has articles that engage visitors, allowing them to add comments or opinions. Which of the following design elements does this site feature?
A) Layout
B) Typography
C) Graphics
D) Interactivity
E) Navigation
A) Layout
B) Typography
C) Graphics
D) Interactivity
E) Navigation
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57
When a product is available to buy for the first time, it is in its:
A) development stage.
B) introduction stage.
C) growth stage.
D) maturity stage.
E) decline stage.
A) development stage.
B) introduction stage.
C) growth stage.
D) maturity stage.
E) decline stage.
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58
Setting selling prices in whole numbers in order to convey a higher-quality image is a form of:
A) cost-based pricing.
B) prestige pricing.
C) geographic pricing.
D) even-odd pricing.
E) dynamic pricing.
A) cost-based pricing.
B) prestige pricing.
C) geographic pricing.
D) even-odd pricing.
E) dynamic pricing.
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59
A user has used a company's website before, and he can remember enough to use it effectively the next time without having to start over again and learning everything. This means that the website has high-quality:
A) color.
B) typography.
C) usability.
D) graphics.
E) performance.
A) color.
B) typography.
C) usability.
D) graphics.
E) performance.
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60
The service consumer must sit in a restaurant, and correspondingly, a waitress must be in the same restaurant for delivering service. This implies that services are:
A) intangible.
B) perishable.
C) inseparable.
D) variable.
E) heterogeneous.
A) intangible.
B) perishable.
C) inseparable.
D) variable.
E) heterogeneous.
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61
The process of communicating with a potential buyer (or buyers) face-to-face with the purpose of selling a product or service is known as:
A) personal selling.
B) reputation management.
C) sales promotion.
D) banner advertising.
E) direct selling.
A) personal selling.
B) reputation management.
C) sales promotion.
D) banner advertising.
E) direct selling.
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62
Which of the following steps of the traditional sales process involves describing the needs of a prospect, attitudes about available products and brands, critical product attributes and benefits desired, and current vendors?
A) Prospecting and qualifying
B) Preapproach
C) Presentation and demonstration
D) Overcoming objections
E) Closing
A) Prospecting and qualifying
B) Preapproach
C) Presentation and demonstration
D) Overcoming objections
E) Closing
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63
_____ is defined as the result of information technology applied to traditional marketing.
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64
Online advertisements in newsletters are a form of:
A) banner advertising.
B) e-mail advertising.
C) news site advertising.
D) blog advertising.
E) social media advertising.
A) banner advertising.
B) e-mail advertising.
C) news site advertising.
D) blog advertising.
E) social media advertising.
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65
_____ can be defined as the performance of the product in terms of sales and profits over time.
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66
A local baker allows its customers to order cakes online or by phone and then pick them up at the bakery. Which of the following channels of distribution is the bakery using?
A) Intermediary channel
B) Retail channel
C) Wholesale channel
D) Service channel
E) Hybrid channel
A) Intermediary channel
B) Retail channel
C) Wholesale channel
D) Service channel
E) Hybrid channel
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67
A good _____ should deliver a clear message, be to pronounce, confirm a company's credibility, make an emotional connection with the target market, motivate the buyer, and solidify customer loyalty.
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68
Online shoppers abandon their carts for a variety of reasons, the most important one being:
A) high shipping charges.
B) not being able to find preferred payment option.
C) item being unavailable at checkout.
D) not being able to find customer support.
E) concern about security of credit card data.
A) high shipping charges.
B) not being able to find preferred payment option.
C) item being unavailable at checkout.
D) not being able to find customer support.
E) concern about security of credit card data.
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69
Which of the following is an example of a direct channel?
A) A farmer who sells his produce to local shops.
B) A small business that makes one-of-a-kind handcrafted vases sells them to a florist who in turn sells the vases to his customers.
C) A baker selling his products at a local school.
D) A manufacturer that sells its products through another online business.
E) A farmer selling flowers with the help of a hundred florists across the state.
A) A farmer who sells his produce to local shops.
B) A small business that makes one-of-a-kind handcrafted vases sells them to a florist who in turn sells the vases to his customers.
C) A baker selling his products at a local school.
D) A manufacturer that sells its products through another online business.
E) A farmer selling flowers with the help of a hundred florists across the state.
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70
_____ pricing is an approach by which a company figures out how much it costs to make a product or deliver a service and then sets the price by adding a profit to the cost.
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71
Which of the following is a form of online advertising where advertisers pay the website owner when the ad is clicked?
A) Banner advertising
B) E-mail advertising
C) News site advertising
D) Blog advertising
E) Affiliate advertising
A) Banner advertising
B) E-mail advertising
C) News site advertising
D) Blog advertising
E) Affiliate advertising
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72
A(n) _____ is a small, more narrowly defined market that is not being served well or at all by mainstream product or service marketers.
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73
Odd-numbered prices give consumers the impression that they are getting a great value; this is a form of _____ pricing.
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74
_____ is the process of dividing a market into relatively homogeneous subgroups that behave much the same way in the marketplace.
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75
Contests, sweepstakes, coupons, premiums and gifts, product samples, rebates, low-interest financing, price discounting, point-of-sale displays, and frequent user or loyalty programs are forms of:
A) advertising.
B) interactive marketing.
C) direct marketing.
D) affiliate marketing.
E) sales promotion.
A) advertising.
B) interactive marketing.
C) direct marketing.
D) affiliate marketing.
E) sales promotion.
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76
Websites that feature user-generated content or material created by visitors rather than the website publishers and encourage visitors to read and respond to that material are a form of:
A) reputation management.
B) direct marketing.
C) advertising.
D) social media.
E) sales promotion.
A) reputation management.
B) direct marketing.
C) advertising.
D) social media.
E) sales promotion.
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77
The most significant risk factor facing small businesses is _____.
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78
An outcome of PR that is produced by the news media and is not paid for or sponsored by the business involved is known as:
A) advertising.
B) banner advertising.
C) sales promotion.
D) publicity.
E) affiliate marketing.
A) advertising.
B) banner advertising.
C) sales promotion.
D) publicity.
E) affiliate marketing.
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79
_____ is about placing a company or a brand in the mind of the consumer in relation to the competition.
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80
_____ involves segmenting the market, selecting a target or targets, making differentiation and positioning decisions, and designing the marketing mix.
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