Deck 5: Developmental Disorders

Question 1

There are six paired pharyngeal or branchial arches. The mandibular arch gives rise to all the following EXCEPT the:

A) Maxilla
B) Thymus
C) Trigeminal nerve
D) Mandible

Answer 1

Thymus

Question 2

Failure of palatal processes to fuse at week 11 results in clefting of the:

A) Median lip mucosa
B) Hard palate
C) Soft palate only
D) Lip and palate

Answer 2

Soft palate only

Question 3

Two lingual swellings grow rapidly and merge with the tuberculum impar to form the:

A) Posterior one-third of the tongue
B) Posterior two-thirds of the tongue
C) Anterior one-third of the tongue
D) Anterior two-thirds of the tongue

Answer 3

Anterior two-thirds of the tongue

Question 4

The tongue develops from contributions of which of the following three pharyngeal arches?

A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 4, 6
C) 2, 3, 5
D) 4, 5, 6

Question 5

Fissured tongue is a component of which of the following syndromes?

A) Denys-Drash syndrome
B) Harlequin syndrome
C) Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
D) Dubin-Johnson syndrome

Question 6

A congenital abnormality commonly seen in persons with Down syndrome is:

A) Microglossia
B) Macroglossia
C) Ankyloglossia
D) Bifid uvula

Question 7

Paramedian lip pits have been associated with:

A) Guillain-Barré syndrome
B) Tourette syndrome
C) Ellis-van Creveld syndrome
D) Van der Woude syndrome

Question 8

A primitive head can be defined visually in utero in the:

A) 2nd week
B) 4th week
C) 8th week
D) 12th week

Question 9

Teratogens are agents in the environment that:

A) Cause developmental abnormalities
B) Do not cause alterations in DNA
C) Contribute to the reduced enamel epithelium
D) Do not cause alterations in the cell cycle

Question 10

The developing embryo is covered with a layer of tissue called:

A) Ectoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Endoderm
D) Duododerm

Question 11

Which of the following structures in the embryo separates the primitive gut from the oral cavity?

A) Tonsillar pillars
B) Tuberculum impar
C) Buccopharyngeal membrane
D) Duodenal membrane

Question 12

Which gland begins its formation at the foramen caecum?

A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Submental
D) Thyroid

Question 13

Cleft lip results from impaired fusion of which of the following?

A) The median and lateral nasal processes
B) The median nasal and maxillary processes
C) The lateral nasal and palatal shelves
D) The lateral maxillary shelves

Question 14

Contact and fusion of the intermaxillary segment with the medial aspect of the maxillary processes form the:

A) Nasal placodes
B) Articular surface
C) Primary palate
D) Philtrum of the lip

Question 15

Double lip, benign nontoxic thyroid enlargement, and sagging eyelid tissues are characteristic of:

A) Ascher syndrome
B) Austrian syndrome
C) Alagille syndrome
D) Arakawa syndrome 2

Question 16

All of the following statements about neural crest cells in the head and neck region are true EXCEPT:

A) They undergo extensive migration.
B) They arise along the lateral margins of the developing tongue.
C) They form tissue called ectomesenchyme.
D) They arise along the lateral margins of the neural tube.

Question 17

The frontal prominence in the developing embryo contains which of the following?

A) Maxillary teeth
B) Buccopharyngeal membrane
C) Oral cavity
D) Brain

Question 18

By the sixth week in utero, the medial nasal processes form the philtrum of the lip, and the right and left maxillary processes form the sides of the upper lip. A disturbance at this time may result in:

A) Cleft lip
B) Cleft palate
C) Cleft lip and cleft palate
D) Anodontia

Question 19

The two lateral palatine processes or shelves elevate over the tongue and fuse to form the secondary palate at weeks:

A) 4 to 7
B) 9 to 12
C) 14 to 16
D) 18 to 20

Question 20

Bifid uvula is often an indicator to investigate for which of the following?

A) Ankyloglossia
B) Bilateral cleft lip
C) Van der Woude syndrome
D) Submucosal palatal clefting

Question 21

In the developed jaw, rests of Malassez are located within the:

A) Periodontal ligament space
B) Root canals
C) Pulp chamber
D) Maxillary sinuses

Question 22

Which of the following refers to the formation of a supernumerary cusp on a posterior tooth?

A) Dens invaginatus
B) Dens evaginatus
C) Enamel pearl
D) Talon's cusp

Question 23

The 12 permanent molars develop from:

A) Continued distal growth of the dental lamina
B) Continued mesial growth of the dental lamina
C) Lingual outgrowths from the epithelial buds
D) Facial outgrowths from the epithelial buds

Question 24

Tooth development occurs in which the following sequences?

A) Bud, cap, bell
B) Bell, bud, cap
C) Cap, bud, bell
D) Bud, bell, cap

Question 25

All of the following statements about peg laterals are true EXCEPT:

A) They are considered macrodonts.
B) The incisor has a conical shape.
C) They are smaller than normal laterals.
D) One or both laterals may be affected.

Question 26

All of the following are common congenitally missing permanent teeth EXCEPT:

A) Third molars
B) Mandibular lateral incisors
C) Mandibular second premolars
D) Maxillary lateral incisors

Question 27

Dentin of adjacent tooth buds, fused together to become a single mass, is referred to as:

A) Concrescence
B) Fusion
C) Gemination
D) Dens evaginatus

Question 28

An extra cusp on the lingual surface of an anterior tooth is referred to as a talon cusp and is typically:

A) Triangular shaped
B) Square shaped
C) Rectangular shaped
D) Octagonal shaped

Question 29

Concrescence is when teeth with close root approximation become bound together by:

A) Enamel
B) Dentin
C) Cementum
D) Alveolar bone

Question 30

Generalized macrodontia has been associated with which of the following?

A) Van der Woude syndrome
B) Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome
C) Pituitary dwarfism
D) Gigantism

Question 31

The enamel organ surrounds the dental papillae, which gives rise to:

A) Enamel and ameloblasts
B) Dentin and odontoblasts
C) Dentin and cementoblasts
D) Cementum and periodontal ligament fibers

Question 32

At approximately what week in utero does tooth development begin?

A) 3rd week
B) 6th week
C) 8th week
D) 12th week

Question 33

All of the following statements about dens invaginatus are true EXCEPT:

A) It occurs most frequently in the posterior teeth.
B) Direct communication with the pulp in the cingulum area is common.
C) Pulp necrosis and apical pathology occur soon after tooth eruption.
D) Preventive restorations are often placed in the cingulum area.

Question 34

Which of the following occurs when a single tooth bud attempts to divide into two teeth?

A) Concrescence
B) Fusion
C) Gemination
D) Dens evaginatus

Question 35

The phenomenon in which extra tooth buds develop from the dental lamina is called:

A) Oligodontia
B) Hypodontia
C) Anodontia
D) Supernumerary

Question 36

A nodule of ectopic thyroid tissue at the foramen caecum is known as:

A) Thyrotoxicosis
B) Goiter
C) Thyroid ganglion
D) Lingual thyroid

Question 37

Ectoderm lining the primitive mouth gives rise to two horseshoe bands of thickened epithelium called:

A) Enamel papilla
B) Dental papilla
C) Enamel lamina
D) Dental lamina

Question 38

Which of the following is the most common supernumerary tooth?

A) Mesiodens
B) Maxillary lateral incisor
C) Maxillary first bicuspid
D) Mandibular first bicuspid

Question 39

Reduced enamel epithelium protects the enamel surface:

A) From bruxism
B) From the forces of mastication
C) During tooth eruption
D) From aggressive tooth brushing

Question 40

Hemifacial microsomia is a congenital condition in which:

A) The whole face is underdeveloped.
B) One-half of the face is underdeveloped.
C) One-half of the face is overdeveloped.
D) The whole face is overdeveloped.

Question 41

All of the following statements about erythroblastosis fetalis are true EXCEPT:

A) It occurs as a result of a red blood cell surface antigen known as Rh.
B) The mother and fetus have the same blood types.
C) Destruction of red blood cells produces pigments that are incorporated in developing teeth.
D) The permanent dentition is normal in color.

Question 42

Nasolabial cysts are:

A) Derived from the rests of Serres
B) Occur in bone behind the maxillary central incisors
C) Found within soft tissues of the lip below the ala of the nose
D) Derived from the rests of Malassez

Question 43

Which of the following presents as a small radiopaque sphere, commonly mistaken for calculus?

A) Talon's cusp
B) Dilaceration
C) Enamel pearl
D) Taurodontism

Question 44

Enamel hypoplasia that affects multiple teeth in a band-like pattern, and reflects the times of tooth development at which amelogenesis was interrupted, is known as:

A) Turner tooth
B) Contemporaneous
C) Dentinogenesis
D) Systemic

Question 45

Tetracycline chelates calcium ions and becomes incorporated into all of the following mineralizing tissues EXCEPT:

A) Bone
B) Enamel
C) Dentin
D) Pulp

Question 46

All of the following statements about primordial cysts are true EXCEPT:

A) The anterior region of the mandible is the most common site.
B) They are believed to arise from degeneration of tooth germs.
C) They are located in the space where a tooth should have formed.
D) Radiographic appearance is that of a unilocular radiolucency.

Question 47

Epidermoid cysts of the skin typically originate from:

A) Inflamed masticatory mucosa
B) Minor salivary glands
C) Desquamated keratin and sebum
D) A hair follicle that has become inflamed

Question 48

The presence of multiple odontogenic keratocysts (OKCs) has been associated with which of the following syndromes?

A) Lynch syndrome
B) Cowden syndrome
C) Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome
D) Gardner syndrome

Question 49

All of the following statements about cysts are true EXCEPT:

A) There is a cavity or space lined by epithelium.
B) In bone they are called intraosseous.
C) They increase in size by osmotic attraction of fluids.
D) The odontogenic types can occur anywhere in the body.

Question 50

Rests of Serres are epithelial remnants of dental lamina that are found in:

A) Gingiva
B) Pulp
C) Dentinal tubules
D) Dental papillae

Question 51

A well-defined unilocular radiolucency around the crown of an unerupted tooth within bone is most likely a(n):

A) Dentigerous cyst
B) Radicular cyst
C) Eruption cyst
D) Periodontal cyst

Question 52

Incomplete or defective development of enamel is known as:

A) Enamel hypoplasia
B) Hyperplastic enamel
C) Demineralization
D) Enamel hyperplasia

Question 53

Which of the following cysts may have a heart-shaped appearance?

A) Primordial cyst
B) Nasopalatine duct cyst
C) Nasolabial cyst
D) Median palatine cyst

Question 54

Enamel hypoplasia of one or two permanent teeth, caused by localized disturbance of amelogenesis, is referred to as

A) Exogenous amelogenesis
B) Amelogenesis imperfecta
C) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
D) Turner tooth

Question 55

Which of the following cysts often occurs above the mylohyoid muscle, and displaces the tongue back and upward toward the roof of the mouth?

A) Dermoid cyst
B) Epidermoid cyst
C) Nasopalatine duct
D) Median palatine cyst

Question 56

Rests of Malassez are epithelial remnants of:

A) Fordyce granules
B) Stellate reticulum
C) Hertwig's root sheath
D) Dental papillae

Question 57

The degree of tetracycline staining in teeth is related to all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Patient's age during drug administration
B) Dosage of the drug
C) Frequency of fluoride application
D) Duration of use

Question 58

Follicular cysts occur when:

A) Rests of Malassez proliferate due to inflammation
B) Reduced enamel epithelium becomes separated from the enamel surface
C) Rests of Serres proliferate due to inflammation
D) Reduced enamel epithelium adheres to the enamel surface at the cemento-enamel junction

Question 59

Which of the following is characterized by a vertical increase in the size of the crown of the tooth at the expense of the roots?

A) Dens evaginatus
B) Talon's cusp
C) Fusion
D) Taurodontism

Question 60

Which of the following cysts can be seen in the gingiva of newborns at or shortly after birth, or in adults?

A) Lateral periodontal cyst
B) Odontogenic keratocyst
C) Eruption cyst
D) Gingival cyst

Question 61

Oral lymphoepithelial cysts are most commonly found in a zone of the oral cavity referred to as:

A) The carotid triangle
B) The submental triangle
C) Waldeyer's ring
D) Circle of Willis

Question 62

The term globulomaxillary describes an anatomic area between the:

A) Maxillary central incisors
B) Maxillary second and third molar
C) Maxillary first and second premolar
D) Maxillary lateral incisor and canine

Question 63

Cervical lymphoepithelial (branchial cleft) cysts typically present as a unilateral swelling anterior to the:

A) Sternocleidomastoid muscle
B) Thyroid gland
C) Buccinators muscle
D) Mentalis muscle

Question 64

Static bone and simple bone cavities:

A) Are not true cysts
B) Have an epithelial lining
C) Are multilocular
D) Are associated with hyperplastic dental follicles