Deck 3: Federalism: Forging a Nation

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT an enumerated power?

A)public education
B)regulation of commerce
C)declaration of war
D)taxation
E)All of these answers are correct.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Which of the following is almost exclusively a state power?

A)chartering banks
B)delivering mail
C)law enforcement
D)registering voters
E)loaning money

Answer 2

D

Question 3

The 2010 Affordable Care Act

A)was ruled unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in 2012.
B)increased the control that states had over health insurance.
C)was passed by strong bipartisan majorities.
D)was enacted as a voluntary program with no penalties for nonparticipation.
E)None of these answers is correct.

Answer 3

E

Question 4

In America today,public education is primarily the responsibility of

A)the national government.
B)state and local governments.
C)the National Education Association (NEA).
D)the American Federation of Teachers (AFT).
E)the U.S.Department of Education.

Question 5

The elastic clause is related to which of the following concepts?

A)enumerated powers
B)reserved powers
C)implied powers
D)concurrent powers
E)All of these answers are correct.

Question 6

The enumerated powers in Article I of the Constitution were intended to

A)limit the powers of the state governments.
B)ensure that neither small nor large states would be at a disadvantage.
C)ensure that neither northern nor southern states would be at a disadvantage.
D)establish a government strong enough to forge a union that was secure in its defense and stable in its economy.
E)limit the power of the presidency.

Question 7

Which of the following was an argument in favor of federalism at the time of the writing of the Constitution?

A)Federalism will protect liberty.
B)Federalism will moderate the power of government.
C)Federalism will provide for a stronger national government than existed under the Articles of Confederation.
D)Federalism will be less likely to produce an all-dominant faction.
E)All of these answers are correct.

Question 8

Which of the following is a national power only?

A)law enforcement
B)intrastate commerce
C)borrowing money
D)transportation
E)national defense

Question 9

Which choice describes the American change in governmental structure in 1787?

A)unitary to confederal
B)confederal to unitary
C)federal to unitary
D)confederal to federal
E)federal to confederal

Question 10

Which of the following is most closely related to the concept of implied powers?

A)necessary and proper clause
B)supremacy clause
C)Tenth Amendment
D)commerce clause
E)power to tax

Question 11

________ opposed the ratification of the U.S.Constitution.

A)George Washington
B)Patrick Henry
C)James Madison
D)Benjamin Franklin
E)John Adams

Question 12

The Constitution allows states to

A)raise an army in peacetime.
B)print money.
C)make commercial agreements with other states without the consent of Congress.
D)govern intrastate commerce.
E)govern interstate commerce.

Question 13

Which of the following statements about the Tenth Amendment is accurate?

A)Because it cannot define the federal government's lawful power,it has not proved a strong protection against the growth of federal power at the expense of the states.
B)Because it defines state powers too narrowly,it has not proved a strong protection against the growth of federal power at the expense of the states.
C)It has proven to be a strong force and preventive against the "nationalization" of the federal system.
D)Because of its ambiguous nature,it has proved incompatible with the American federal system.
E)It has vastly exceeded the Anti-Federalists' intent when the amendment was proposed.

Question 14

According to ________,a large republic is less likely to have an all-powerful faction.

A)Patrick Henry
B)George Mason
C)James Madison
D)John C.Calhoun
E)John Marshall Harlan

Question 15

The writers of the Constitution established a federal system of government in part because

A)the states already existed as established entities and had to be preserved.
B)few states in history had successfully established unitary governments.
C)Locke and Montesquieu had concluded it was superior to other systems of government.
D)the British political system was based on the federal principle.
E)the states would be valuable sources of revenue for a federal government.

Question 16

Which of the following is a concurrent power held by both the national government and state governments?

A)chartering local governments
B)issuing currency
C)taxation
D)foreign affairs
E)national defense

Question 17

In 1787,most countries in the world had a ________ form of government.

A)confederal
B)federal
C)unitary
D)democratic
E)theocratic

Question 18

The federal government's power to tax,regulate commerce among the states,and declare war are all examples of ________ powers.

A)reserved
B)enumerated
C)implied
D)concurrent
E)None of these answers is correct.

Question 19

Sovereignty refers to

A)a government headed by a king.
B)a division of authority between the national government and the states.
C)supreme and final governing authority.
D)subnational (state)governments.
E)None of these answers is correct.

Question 20

A federal system is one where

A)constitutional authority is centralized in a national government.
B)constitutional authority is decentralized,only residing in state governments.
C)constitutional authority is divided between a national government and state governments.
D)constitutional authority is unlimited.
E)constitutional authority is divided among multiple branches of the national government.

Question 21

At the worst depths of the Great Depression,approximately ________ of workers were unemployed.

A)10 percent
B)15 percent
C)25 percent
D)40 percent
E)60 percent

Question 22

All of the following individuals embraced a "nationalist view" of federalism EXCEPT

A)John Marshall.
B)Roger Taney.
C)Franklin D.Roosevelt.
D)Lyndon B.Johnson.
E)Alexander Hamilton.

Question 23

The period of dual federalism (1865-1937)was marked by ________ in the area of commerce.

A)congressional supremacy
B)state-government supremacy
C)presidential supremacy
D)business supremacy
E)national supremacy

Question 24

The Tenth Amendment addressed the concerns of Anti-Federalists about

A)individual freedoms.
B)the meaning of the commerce clause.
C)popular representation in Congress.
D)the powers of state governments.
E)the Electoral College.

Question 25

Viewed in historical terms,federalism has been a

A)contentious and dynamic system that has evolved over time to make for a progressively stronger national government.
B)theoretical principle,in that constitutional provisions for federalism have virtually no impact on the relationship between the nation and the states.
C)flawed principle,in that the relationship between the nation and the states has been a constant source of problems without many positive benefits.
D)fixed principle,in that the relationship between the nation and states is almost completely defined by provisions of the Constitution.
E)poor replacement for the confederal system that existed before the Constitution.

Question 26

A blending of state and national authority is associated with ________ federalism,while a separation of national and state authority is associated with ________ federalism.

A)dual; fiscal
B)dual; cooperative
C)cooperative; dual
D)picket-fence; cooperative
E)cooperative; pyramid

Question 27

In Lochner v.New York (1905),the Supreme Court ruled that

A)the doctrine of separate but equal was constitutional.
B)state regulation of labor practices violated firms' property rights.
C)the Fourth Amendment did not apply to interstate commerce.
D)factory practices could only be regulated by the states.
E)factory practices could only be regulated by the federal government.

Question 28

Which of the following individuals would agree that each state should be allowed to determine for itself the extent to which national authority restricts its actions?

A)John Marshall
B)John C.Calhoun
C)Lyndon Johnson
D)Franklin D.Roosevelt
E)None of these answers is correct.

Question 29

The doctrine of nullification is most closely associated with

A)Thomas Jefferson.
B)Andrew Jackson.
C)Roger B.Taney.
D)John C.Calhoun.
E)John Marshall.

Question 30

Dual federalism held that

A)the states were equal to the national government in all respects.
B)a precise separation of national and state authority was both possible and desirable.
C)national and state authority were indivisible.
D)the Senate and the House were equal in their federal authority.
E)None of these answers is correct.

Question 31

During the Great Depression of the 1930s,the national government

A)provided vast sums to business firms to keep them out of bankruptcy.
B)provided health care to Americans on a temporary basis,as a means of alleviating economic hardships.
C)asserted the power to regulate the nation's economy.
D)provided vast sums to the states so they could meet their citizens' welfare needs.
E)utilized laissez-faire capitalism in its policies.

Question 32

According to the Anti-Federalists,too strong of a national government meant

A)eventual encroachment upon the sovereignty of the states.
B)that a new constitutional convention would have to convene every few years.
C)that a monarchy was preferable to a republic.
D)that effective commerce between and among the states was an impossibility.
E)that slavery would be abolished immediately.

Question 33

What was the impact of the Industrial Revolution on the concept of dual federalism?

A)It brought about the immediate end of the concept.
B)It created dominant business interests that raised questions about the suitability of dual federalism as a governing concept.
C)It had no impact at all upon the concept.
D)It led to passage of the Tenth Amendment.
E)It made the doctrine of nullification a political reality.

Question 34

The only counterforce that was potentially strong enough to control the business trusts of the late 19th and early 20th centuries was

A)government.
B)the buying public.
C)organized labor.
D)business competitors.
E)farmers.

Question 35

The "separate but equal" standard was created by

A)Congress.
B)the Supreme Court.
C)the state supreme court of Virginia.
D)President Ulysses S.Grant.
E)Justice John Marshall Harlan.

Question 36

McCulloch v.Maryland

A)ruled in favor of state-centered federalism.
B)asserted that the necessary and proper clause was a restriction on the power of the national government.
C)affirmed that national law is supreme to conflicting state law.
D)established the Supreme Court's power to judge constitutional issues.
E)allowed for a narrow reading of the Constitution.

Question 37

Through its Dred Scott decision,the Supreme Court

A)ruled that "free land" made "free men."
B)upheld free blacks' rights of citizenship.
C)upheld the principles of the Missouri Compromise.
D)soothed sectarian tensions.
E)ruled that Congress could not outlaw slavery anywhere in the United States.

Question 38

From President Abraham Lincoln's perspective,the decision to wage a civil war against the southern states is best summarized in what fashion?

A)States that allowed slavery were no longer sovereign.
B)The states were older than the union.
C)Southern states had abused the "reserved powers" amendment.
D)The union was older than the states.
E)None of these answers is correct.

Question 39

In significant decisions early in the New Deal era,the Supreme Court

A)invalidated key pieces of FDR's New Deal legislation.
B)upheld FDR's "court-packing" proposal.
C)ruled that segregation violated the Fourteenth Amendment.
D)ruled that public accommodations were part of interstate commerce.
E)invalidated the commerce clause.

Question 40

Which decision is indicative of how the Supreme Court interpreted the Fourteenth Amendment and state discretion in civil rights matters in the decades after the Civil War?

A)Brown v.Board of Education
B)the Dred Scott decision
C)Plessy v.Ferguson
D)McCulloch v.Maryland
E)Gibbons v.Ogden

Question 41

Federal grants-in-aid used only for a designated activity are called

A)categorical grants.
B)block grants.
C)revenue-sharing grants.
D)targeted grants.
E)streamlined grants.

Question 42

Devolution is the

A)passing of authority from the national government to the state and local levels.
B)expansion of national authority that began in the 1930s.
C)contraction of state authority and the expansion of local government authority.
D)expansion of national authority that began in the 1960s.
E)None of these answers is correct.

Question 43

National authority has greatly expanded in the 20th century,in large part because

A)the states and the federal government have become increasingly interdependent.
B)constitutional amendments have opened the way for wider application of national authority.
C)the state governments have shown themselves to be an ineffective level of government.
D)the Democrats have been in control of Congress for most of the century.
E)Americans like the idea of "big government."

Question 44

In what decade did federal grants-in-aid NOT expand significantly?

A)1960s
B)1970s
C)1980s
D)1990s
E)2000s

Question 45

A public policy program on which national,state,and local policymakers collaborate is an example of

A)dual federalism.
B)cooperative federalism.
C)unitary federalism.
D)confederal federalism.
E)cosponsor federalism.

Question 46

Which of the following statements is true?

A)The federal government raises roughly the same amount of revenue from taxation as all state and local governments combined.
B)The federal government raises more tax revenue than all state and local governments combined.
C)State and local governments combined raise twice as much revenue from taxation as the federal government.
D)State and local governments combined raise three times as much revenue from taxation as the federal government.
E)State and local governments combined raise six times as much revenue as the federal government.

Question 47

The TANF aspect of the Welfare Reform Act

A)was a categorical grant that restricted federal assistance to three years but limited state discretion in how to use the funds.
B)was a block grant that,among other aspects,restricted a family's access to federal assistance to five years.
C)was a categorical grant that placed no time restrictions on federal assistance but dramatically limited state discretion in how to use the funds.
D)was a block grant with no time or activity restrictions on how to use federal funds.
E)ended direct federal welfare assistance to the states in grants of any form.

Question 48

The expansion of national authority in the 20th century first became evident in which decade?

A)1930s
B)1950s
C)1960s
D)1980s
E)1990s

Question 49

During the Great Depression,Americans turned to the federal government when

A)the states refused to do anything.
B)the federal government switched parties.
C)it was clear that the states would be unable to help.
D)the Supreme Court overturned the state's right to regulate commerce.
E)President Roosevelt lost the election.

Question 50

What did Reagan promote as part of his version of "new federalism"?

A)an increase in federal funding of state education initiatives
B)a reduction of the Supreme Court's role in determining the line between federal and state finance
C)the use of block grants over categorical grants
D)increased policy collaboration between states and the federal government
E)a reduction in federal enumerated powers

Question 51

States in which of the following regions receive more of their revenue from the federal government than do most other states?

A)the West
B)the Northeast
C)the Midwest
D)the South
E)the noncontiguous states of Alaska and Hawaii

Question 52

Political conservatives who favor more political power devolved back to the states would likely prefer which of the following?

A)categorical grants
B)block grants
C)Pell grants
D)higher tax rates for the wealthy
E)None of these answers is correct.

Question 53

Which of the following would one NOT expect to apply to a state's active poverty relief program that can be classified as cooperative federalism?

A)Aspects of the program are administered by both the federal and state government.
B)The program receives funding by both the federal and state government.
C)Both the state and federal government would participate in determining eligibility of individuals receiving aid.
D)Federal regulations would make the program appear somewhat uniform when compared to the same cooperative federalism program in other states.
E)The state government provides most of the general administration,and a federal agency does most of the provision of relief to individuals.

Question 54

Alaska receives ________ of its general revenue from the federal government,the lowest percentage of any state.

A)45 percent
B)30 percent
C)15 percent
D)20 percent
E)100 percent

Question 55

What did Newt Gingrich declare about federalism in 1994?

A)that government had moved too far away from the federalism of the early 20th century
B)that power was beginning to swing back to the federal government
C)that the 1960s-style federalism was dead
D)that federalism was the only system that could preserve the power of the states
E)that the federal government had betrayed the promise of states' rights in the Constitution

Question 56

If a state accepts a federal grant-in-aid,it must

A)comply with federal restrictions on its use.
B)reimburse the federal government after a specified period.
C)match the funds with twice that amount in state funds.
D)reduce its income tax rates to adjust for the increased income.
E)None of these answers is correct.

Question 57

Fiscal federalism refers to the

A)coordinated fiscal policy decisions of the federal government and the states.
B)expenditure of federal funds on programs run in part through state and local governments.
C)national banking system first established by Alexander Hamilton in the 1790s.
D)fact that both the federal government and the states have the power to tax.
E)ability of the states to manipulate federal decision making.

Question 58

________ is an illustration of cooperative federalism.

A)The U.S.Postal Service
B)Medicaid
C)A marriage license
D)A driver's license
E)All of these answers are correct.

Question 59

Roughly one in every ________ dollars spent by local and state governments in recent decades was raised not by them but by the government in Washington.

A)two
B)five
C)ten
D)fifty
E)one hundred

Question 60

________ advocated a "new federalism."

A)President Ronald Reagan
B)President George W.Bush
C)President John Kennedy
D)President Lyndon Johnson
E)President Jimmy Carter

Question 61

Explain what is meant by fiscal federalism,and describe how it has strengthened the authority of the federal government.

Question 62

Explain the differences among enumerated,implied,and reserved powers.

Question 63

Beginning with the Articles of Confederation and continuing through the modern period,explain how the commerce power of the national government has related to the issue of national authority.

Question 64

The Affordable Care Act

A)increased state control over health insurance.
B)decreased state control over health insurance.
C)had no significant impact on state control over health insurance.
D)ended government regulation of health insurance.
E)None of these answers is correct.

Question 65

From 1789 to 1865,the most significant issue of federalism was

A)the application of the Bill of Rights to action by the state governments.
B)the survival of the Union and federalism itself.
C)whether business trusts would be regulated primarily by the states or by the national government.
D)whether the states would respect the sovereignty of neighboring states.
E)laissez-faire capitalism.

Question 66

Describe the differences between a federal system of government and a unitary system.