Deck 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans

Question 1

Which infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing, and a hoarse cough?

A) croup
B) mumps
C) influenza
D) measles rubeola)
E) rubella

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Influenza infection can be treated with

A) amantadine.
B) rimantadine.
C) zanamivir.
D) oseltamivir.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Answer 2

E

Question 3

The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is

A) catalase.
B) reverse transcriptase.
C) hyaluronidase.
D) neuraminidase.
E) kinase.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization?

A) It contains attenuated viruses.
B) It contains toxoids.
C) It is given in early childhood.
D) It provides protection against three different viral diseases.

Question 5

Respiratory syncytial virus Pneumovirus)

A) causes serious disease in infants 6-months-old or younger.
B) uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site.
C) can be treated with the antiviral aerosol ribavirin.
D) is the most common cause of respiratory infections in babies.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 6

All the following pertain to measles rubeola), except

A) it is transmitted by direct contact with the rash.
B) humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen.
C) secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis occur.
D) it may involve a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis SSPE).
E) symptoms include dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis.

Question 7

Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following, except

A) influenza.
B) rubella.
C) dengue fever.
D) mumps.
E) SARS.

Question 8

Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of

A) croup.
B) mumps.
C) influenza.
D) measles rubeola).
E) rubella.

Question 9

Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with

A) croup.
B) mumps.
C) influenza.
D) measles rubeola).
E) rubella.

Question 10

Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes

A) debridement.
B) washing bite with soap or detergent.
C) infusion of the wound with human rabies immune globulin HRIG).
D) post-exposure vaccination with HDCV.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 11

Which is not a disease caused by arenaviruses?

A) lymphocytic choriomeningitis
B) Lassa fever
C) Hantaviruses
D) Bolivian hemorrhagic fever
E) Argentine hemorrhagic fever

Question 12

Reye's syndrome involves

A) aspirin use.
B) a febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox.
C) fatty degeneration of liver, brain, kidney.
D) children, adolescents, and young adults.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 13

Influenza vaccines include all the following, except

A) inactivated intramuscular vaccine.
B) usually incorporates three different strains.
C) attenuated, nasal drops vaccine.
D) provides lifelong immunity.
E) Guillain-Barré syndrome is a postvaccination neurological complication.

Question 14

Which febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage?

A) croup
B) mumps
C) influenza
D) measles rubeola)
E) rubella

Question 15

Parainfluenza virus

A) usually infects the elderly.
B) is in the Orthomyxovirus family.
C) causes influenza.
D) causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 16

Which is incorrect about rabies?

A) It is a zoonotic disease.
B) Wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs.
C) Transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation.
D) The average incubation in humans is one week.
E) Symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle sps, convulsions, and paralysis.

Question 17

Characteristics of the Orthomyxoviruses include all of the following, except

A) they have an envelope.
B) they include paramyxoviruses.
C) they have hemagglutinin spikes.
D) their genome is RNA.
E) they have neuraminidase spikes.

Question 18

Symptoms of influenza include

A) nasal discharge, mild fever, and absence of cough.
B) fever, diarrhea, vomiting.
C) fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge.
D) fever, sore throat, rash, cough.
E) fever and pneumonia.

Question 19

Coronaviruses cause

A) fever, rash, and nasal discharge.
B) meningitis.
C) measles.
D) croup.
E) common cold and SARS.

Question 20

Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics, except

A) its reservoir is human carriers.
B) it is a zoonosis.
C) the symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension.
D) it is transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta.
E) the first U.S. outbreak occurred in 1993 in the Southwest.

Question 21

Hydrophobia, the dumb phase, and Negri bodies in nervous tissue are all part of which disease?

A) rabies
B) dengue fever
C) Norwalk virus
D) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis SSPE)
E) Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

Question 22

West Nile virus has the following characteristics, except

A) it causes a hemorrhagic fever.
B) it is an arbovirus.
C) it is transmitted by a mosquito vector.
D) it is typically a flu-like illness.
E) it causes a severe encephalitis in less than 1% of infected persons.

Question 23

The worldwide, primary viral cause of morbidity and mortality from diarrhea is

A) coxsackie viruses.
B) rhinoviruses.
C) influenza viruses.
D) Caliciviruses.
E) rotavirus.

Question 24

All of the following pertain to HIV, except

A) it attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors.
B) the viral DNA integrates into the host nucleus.
C) it has reverse transcriptase.
D) it causes Kaposi'sarcoma.
E) it can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities.

Question 25

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome SARS)

A) can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress.
B) began with an initial outbreak in the United States and then spread to Canada and China.
C) is caused by the respiratory syncytial virus.
D) is not highly transmissible.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 26

Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involves

A) fever, headache, and rash.
B) coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases.
C) myalgia and orbital pain.
D) muscle aches and joint stiffness.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 27

Norwalk agent is

A) a Calicivirus.
B) transmitted oral-fecally.
C) sometimes acquired from contaminated water and shellfish.
D) a common enteric virus of gastroenteritis.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 28

Retroviruses have the following characteristics, except

A) glycoprotein spikes.
B) DNA genome.
C) envelope.
D) reverse transcriptase.
E) viral genes that integrate into the host genome.

Question 29

Yellow fever and Dengue fever are

A) caused by arboviruses.
B) caused by viruses that disrupt capillaries and blood clotting.
C) zoonoses.
D) transmitted by a mosquito vector.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 30

Documented transmission of HIV involves

A) mosquitoes.
B) unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.
C) respiratory droplets.
D) contaminated food.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 31

Which class of drugs interferes with the virus inserting itself into host DNA?

A) reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) protease inhibitors
C) fusion inhibitors
D) integrase inhibitors
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 32

Rubella is

A) caused by the measles virus Morbillivirus).
B) a zoonosis.
C) associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects.
D) characterized by high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 33

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is

A) leukemia.
B) Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C) Kaposi's sarcoma.
D) melanoma.
E) colon cancer.

Question 34

Which drug/s interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?

A) reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) protease inhibitors
C) fusion inhibitors
D) integrase inhibitors
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 35

Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever?

A) yellow fever
B) Western equine encephalitis
C) Eastern equine encephalitis
D) Colorado tick fever
E) St. Louis encephalitis

Question 36

All arboviruses involve

A) congenital infection.
B) arthropod vectors.
C) diarrhea.
D) birds as the primary reservoir.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 37

Which is incorrect about Hepatitis A infection?

A) It is transmitted by the oral-fecal route.
B) It has flu-like symptoms with discomfort near the liver and darkened urine.
C) It predisposes a person for liver cancer.
D) Immune globulin therapy helps decrease the severity.
E) HAVRIX is an inactivated vaccine for prevention.

Question 38

All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS, except

A) they have a profound immunodeficiency.
B) that have CD4 T-cell counts below 200 cells/mm³ of blood.
C) they get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections.
D) they can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders.
E) the highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States.

Question 39

The major agents responsible for the common cold are

A) coxsackie viruses.
B) rhinoviruses.
C) influenza viruses.
D) Caliciviruses.
E) rotavirus.

Question 40

All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis, except

A) summer outbreaks in the United States have been recently increasing.
B) it is transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water.
C) it can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea.
D) if virus enters the central nervous system, motor neurons can be infected and destroyed.
E) there are effective vaccines to prevent polio.

Question 41

Cocksackieviruses

A) are paramyxoviurses.
B) are the etiological agents of hairy-cell leukemia.
C) can cause hand-foot-mouth disease.
D) are retroviruses.
E) replicate in helper T-cells.

Question 42

The main route for transmission of HIV in most parts of the world is through

A) intravenous drug use.
B) homosexual sex.
C) blood transfusion.
D) heterosexual sex.
E) blood products.

Question 43

Which of the following is incorrect regarding Coronaviruses?

A) One type can cause the common cold.
B) One type can cause SARS.
C) They are common animal viruses in pigs, dogs, cats, and poultry.
D) There are no tests to confirm diagnosis.
E) There is no specific treatment other than supportive care.

Question 44

Influenza is predominantly transmitted by the fecal-oral route.

Question 45

All of the following are important bunyavirus diseases, except

A) Hantavirus.
B) Rift Valley fever.
C) California encephalitis.
D) severe acute respiratory syndrome SARS).
E) Korean hemorrhagic fever.

Question 46

In rabies, sps of muscles for swallowing leads to a fear of water.

Question 47

Which is correct about influenza?

A) Antigenic shift is a minor change in the viral strain.
B) The virus is found in swine and cats.
C) The virus is grown in poultry eggs for vaccines.
D) Influenza A has a mortality rate of close to 35%.
E) The virus binds to the intestinal mucosa.

Question 48

Which of the following is correct about polio?

A) The disease is still affecting millions of people worldwide, mainly in Africa and India.
B) The disease is spread by the respiratory route.
C) The oral polio vaccine OPV) is not responsible for causing any polio.
D) The Sabin vaccine is preferred over the Salk vaccine in the United States today.
E) The virus multiplies in the mucosa of the intestines and is shed in feces.

Question 49

The major reservoir for the Sin Nombre hantavirus is the deer mouse.

Question 50

Which area has the largest number of people living with HIV/AIDS?

A) North America
B) Sub-Saharan Africa
C) Southeast Asia
D) Carribbean
E) Western Europe

Question 51

The primary transmission route for acquiring agents of the common cold is by contact with hands and fomites contaminated with the nasal discharges of an infected person.

Question 52

Guillain-Barré syndrome involves varying degrees of demyelination of the peripheral nervous system leading to muscle weakness of extremities and possible paralysis.

Question 53

Respiratory syncytial virus and rotavirus are major causes of global outbreaks in infants 6 months of age, or younger.

Question 54

A client displays symptoms of fatigue, diarrhea, weight loss, neurological changes, and enlarged lymph nodes. The client thought they had the flu because they felt ill, then felt better over the last 5 years. However, this cycle of feeling tired has led to fever, fatigue, sore throat, and night sweats with a rash. The patient also has thrush. Which result indicates the causative agent of AIDS?

A) high level of CD4 T-cells
B) detection of HIV antigen
C) presence of Candida albicans
D) isolation of herpes simplex from skin and mucous membrane ulcers
E) isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 55

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is caused by a prion.

Question 56

Which is incorrect about measles?

A) Koplik's spots appear before the characteristic rash.
B) Humans are the sole reservoir.
C) Vaccination is with an attenuated oral vaccine.
D) It is also known as rubeola.
E) It is one of the most contagious infectious diseases.

Question 57

Spongiform encephalopathies are

A) associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain.
B) chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system.
C) caused by prions.
D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, kuru, and Gerstmann-Straüssler-Scheinker syndrome.
E) All of these choices are correct.

Question 58

All the following are correct about the polio vaccines, except

A) the inactivated polio vaccine IPV) can occasionally revert to a neurovirulent strain.
B) treatment for polio involves mainly alleviating pain and suffering.
C) the virus is transmitted through the fecal-oral route.
D) most infections do not result in paralysis.
E) Dr. Jonas Salk developed the IPV vaccine in 1954.

Question 59

Which of the following diseases is not caused by a paramyxovirus?

A) severe acute respiratory syndrome SARS)
B) parainfluenza
C) mumps
D) measles
E) respiratory syncytial virus RSV) infections

Question 60

What does AIDS stand for?

A) aids induced disease
B) aids in disguises
C) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
D) human acquired immunodeficiency syndromes

Question 61

The MMR vaccination is for immunity to _____, _____, and _____.

Question 62

Retroviruses have the enzyme _____ that catalyzes the synthesis of DNA from viral RNA.

Question 63

Why were blood transfusions prior to 1985 more likely to be associated with Hepatitis C transmission than blood transfusions done since 1985?

A) Since 1985, the incidence of Hepatitis C infection in the general population has been significantly lower than it was prior to 1985.
B) Since 1985, donor blood is tested for the human immunodeficiency virus.
C) Since 1985, the processing and storage of donor blood destroys any Hepatitis C virus in the blood.
D) Since 1985, donor blood has been tested for either nonA, nonB Hepatitis virus or specifically for Hepatitis C virus.

Question 64

The influenza virus uses _____ spikes to bind to host cells.

Question 65

Compare and contrast Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease CJD) variant CJD, and kuru with regard to: a) causative agent, b) transmission, c) reservoir, d) pathogenesis and symptoms, and e) methods for prevention.

Question 66

A vaccine is currently available to prevent HIV infection.

Question 67

Which of the following viruses is associated with adult T-cell leukemia?

A) HIV
B) HTLV-1
C) Hepatitis C virus
D) HTLV-2
E) reovirus

Question 68

Discuss the various stages of HIV infection and disease with regard to: a) signs and symptoms, b) corresponding virus activities, and c) diagnostic indicators.

Question 69

An antigenic _____ occurs when genome segments from different influenza strains recombine.

Question 70

One positive test for the presence of HIV antibodies dictates the diagnosis as AIDS.

Question 71

HTLV-1 is a retrovirus associated wth acute lymphocytic leukemia.

Question 72

The most serious teratogenic effects of intrauterine rubella infection occur if it is acquired during the third trimester.

Question 73

The spikes of a paramyxovirus bind and fuse adjacent host cell membranes to produce a _____.

Question 74

An antigenic _____ occurs when there is a minor change in antigenicity caused by small mutations in a single influenza virus strain.

Question 75

Which part of HIV facilitates attachment of HIV to T_H cells?

A) integrase
B) GP-120
C) fusion promoter
D) protease
E) capsid proteins

Question 76

The most effective HIV treatment includes

A) several different drugs designed to inhibit reverse transcriptase.
B) several different drugs each directed at different enzymes reverse transcriptase, integrase, fusion, and protease).
C) several different protease inhibitors.
D) several different fusion inhibitors and reverse transcriptase inhibitors.

Question 77

Aedes mosquitoes are the vector involved in yellow fever, and dengue fever, and Zika virus transmission.

Question 78

Intracellular inclusions called _____ seen in nervous tissue are indicative of rabies.

Question 79

Which two hepatitis viruses are generally acquired in a similar manner?

A) HBA and HBV
B) HBA and HBC
C) HBV and HBC

Question 80

Which of the following presents the greatest challenge to the development of a vaccine against HIV?

A) HIV doesn't provoke the production of antibodies.
B) Antibodies against HIV don't provide any protection from infection.
C) Surface antigens on HIV change readily due to frequent mutations.
D) Individuals are unwilling to participate in vaccine trials out of fear of developing AIDS.