Deck 8: Development

Question 1

What would it mean to say that intelligence is a polygenic trait?

A) This trait is determined by environmental influences and is not controlled by specific genes.
B) This trait is determined purely by specific genes and cannot be modified by the external environment.
C) This trait is the product of the interaction of many different genes, not the expression of a single gene.
D) This trait is controlled by genes on the sex chromosome, and so differs significantly between males and females.

Answer 1

This trait is the product of the interaction of many different genes, not the expression of a single gene.

Question 2

As part of a large research study examining many people, David, now 24 years old, has been weighed, measured, observed, and tested every two years since he was born. The study in which he is participating would be described as

A) a longitudinal study.
B) a cross-sectional study.
C) a cross-sequential study.
D) a case study.

Answer 2

a longitudinal study.

Question 3

Twenty-two pairs of chromosomes are called ________ and the twenty-third pair is called ________.

A) complete; partial
B) X; Y
C) autosomes; sex chromosomes
D) sex chromosomes; autosomes

Answer 3

autosomes; sex chromosomes

Question 4

Which of the following is not one of the three controversial issues described in the text that developmental psychologists must consider?

A) Is development continuous or does it occur in stages?
B) Is it ethical to compare the development of humans and animals?
C) To what extent are personal characteristics stable over time?
D) To what degree do heredity and environment influence development?

Question 5

The biochemical instructions that direct the transmission of all our hereditary traits which enable cells to perform specific functions in the human body are provided by

A) zygotes.
B) sperm or ova.
C) genes.
D) gametes.

Question 6

The chromosome pattern of females is

A) YX.
B) XX.
C) XY.
D) either XY or YY.

Question 7

________ are segments of DNA located on rod-shaped structures called ________ and found in the nuclei of the body cells.

A) Chromosomes; genes
B) Nuclei; chromosomes
C) Nuclei; genes
D) Genes; chromosomes

Question 8

Which of the following is a correct statement?

A) All eggs are X and all sperm are Y.
B) Half of both the eggs and sperm are X, and half are Y.
C) Half of the eggs are X and half are Y.
D) Half of the sperm are X and half are Y.

Question 9

Researchers announce in a local paper that they are seeking subjects aged 4, 8, 12 and 16 to participate in a study for several days. Which type of study were the researchers conducting?

A) A case study
B) A cross-sectional study
C) A longitudinal study
D) A cross-sequential study

Question 10

The issue of whether heredity or environment is more important in development relates to

A) a historical view of development where environment was important in the past, but now heredity is recognized as the leading influence.
B) the nature-nurture controversy.
C) the question of whether development happens in stages or continuously.
D) the extent of personal characteristics being stable over time.

Question 11

If Ahmed is studying the relationship between temperament and intelligence as children grow from birth to age 12, which developmental issue is he addressing?

A) To what degree do heredity and environment influence development?
B) Is it ethical to compare the development of humans and animals?
C) Is development continuous, or does it occur in stages?
D) To what extent are personal characteristics stable over time?

Question 12

The chromosome pattern of males is

A) XY.
B) XX.
C) YY.
D) either XY or YY.

Question 13

Genes which determine one's sex and primary and secondary sex characteristics are carried on the

A) 23rd pair of chromosomes.
B) autosomes.
C) first pair of chromosomes.
D) 21st pair of chromosomes.

Question 14

If researchers compare different groups of subjects of different ages on various characteristics, the study would be described as

A) a cross-sectional study.
B) a cross-sequential study.
C) a case study.
D) a longitudinal study.

Question 15

A recessive gene is

A) expressed if it is paired with another recessive gene.
B) rarely passed on to offspring.
C) expressed regardless of whether it is paired with a recessive or a dominant gene.
D) expressed only if it is paired with a dominant gene.

Question 16

How many chromosomes does the one-celled zygote receive from each parent?

A) 23
B) 46
C) 1
D) 55

Question 17

Which of the following questions deals with the issue of whether or not developmental changes result in qualitative differences from one time to another?

A) To what extent are personal characteristics stable over time?
B) Is it ethical to compare the development of humans and animals?
C) Is development continuous, or does it occur in stages?
D) To what degree do heredity and environment influence development?

Question 18

If the same group of subjects is followed and measured at different ages, the study would be described as

A) a longitudinal study.
B) a case study.
C) a cross-sequential study.
D) a cross-sectional study.

Question 19

If a person inherits a gene for blonde hair and a gene for brown hair, the person will have brown hair. Therefore, the gene for brown hair is

A) dominant.
B) recessive.
C) multifactorial.
D) polygenic.

Question 20

In humans, genes are located on how many pairs of chromosomes?

A) 44
B) 23
C) 22
D) 46

Question 21

Fraternal twins form when

A) a sperm splits in half and fertilizes two eggs that have been released at the same time.
B) a single egg that is fertilized by two different sperm splits in half and develops into two fetuses.
C) two eggs are released at once and fertilized by two different sperm.
D) a single egg, fertilized by a sperm, splits in half and develops into two fetuses.

Question 22

In the weeks just prior to becoming a fetus, an organism is called

A) a gamete.
B) an embryo.
C) a zygote.
D) a neonate.

Question 23

The period when major systems, organs, and structures are formed is called the period of the

A) ovum.
B) fetus.
C) embryo.
D) zygote.

Question 24

For the first two weeks after conception, the human organism is called the

A) neonate.
B) fetus.
C) embryo.
D) zygote.

Question 25

From the moment the zygote becomes implanted in the uterine wall and for the next six weeks, the human organism is known as

A) a placenta.
B) an embryo.
C) a fetus.
D) an ovum.

Question 26

The period of the embryo can be characterized as

A) involving rapid growth and further development of body structures and systems.
B) the first half of prenatal development.
C) the first two weeks of life.
D) involving the formation of the major systems, organs, and structures of the body.

Question 27

All of the following are identified in the textbook as negative influences on prenatal development, except

A) certain prescription and non-prescription drugs.
B) maternal infections and illnesses.
C) maternal inactivity.
D) poor maternal nutrition.

Question 28

The period of the fetus begins when

A) the major structures of the body form.
B) the developing organism attaches itself to the uterine wall.
C) internal organs begin to function.
D) bone cells begin to form.

Question 29

In the 1960s, women who took thalidomide during the fifth to eighth week of pregnancy often gave birth to children with malformed or absent limbs. This can be explained by the concept of

A) cephalocaudal development.
B) proximodistal development.
C) the critical period.
D) the sensitive period.

Question 30

Which of the following is not a stage of prenatal development?

A) the period of the neonate
B) the period of the zygote
C) the period of the fetus
D) the period of the embryo

Question 31

Negative influences such as drugs, illness, and environmental hazards cause the most devastating consequences during the

A) second and third trimester.
B) second trimester.
C) third trimester.
D) first trimester.

Question 32

Harmful factors in the prenatal environment that can damage the developing organism and interfere with normal development are called

A) teratogens.
B) fetal poisons.
C) analgesics.
D) toxins.

Question 33

Which of the following is not true about fraternal twins?

A) The twins develop when two different sperm fertilize two eggs that are released at the same time during ovulation.
B) They are no more alike genetically than ordinary brothers and sisters.
C) They are always the same sex.
D) They are also called dizygotic twins.

Question 34

A dominant trait will not be expressed if the individual carries

A) two dominant genes for the trait.
B) two recessive genes for the trait.
C) one dominant gene and one recessive gene for the trait.
D) either one or two dominant genes for the trait.

Question 35

Which of the following is the term for the developing human organism during the six-week period after the zygote becomes implanted in the wall of the uterus?

A) embryo
B) ovum
C) fetus
D) neonate

Question 36

The zygote is not yet an embryo. Therefore, no more than ________ days have elapsed since conception took place.

A) 14
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8

Question 37

Which of the following is not true about identical twins?

A) The twins are genetically identical.
B) The twins develop when two eggs are released during ovulation.
C) They are always the same sex.
D) They are also called monozygotic twins.

Question 38

The developing human organism is known as the fetus from

A) the moment of conception to birth.
B) the end of the second month to birth.
C) the moment of conception to about the fourth month.
D) the second to the seventh month.

Question 39

The period of the embryo ends when

A) the developing organism attaches itself to the uterine wall.
B) bone cells begin to form.
C) the major structures of the body are ready to form.
D) all of the internal organs are functioning.

Question 40

The rate of multiple births has increased dramatically because

A) there has been a great decrease in the amount of teratogens ingested by mothers.
B) improved health care for neonates increases the likelihood of survival of multiples.
C) of dietary changes in western food consumption.
D) of greater access to and use of fertility procedures.

Question 41

The adolescent growth spurt occurs

A) at around age 11 in both boys and girls.
B) earlier in boys than in girls.
C) earlier in girls than in boys.
D) occurs between ages 16 and 17 for girls, and between ages 18 and 20 for boys.

Question 42

The major landmark for females at the onset of puberty is known as

A) menopause.
B) accommodation.
C) menarche.
D) centration.

Question 43

Consumption of alcoholic beverages during pregnancy increases the chances of all of the following except having a baby that is

A) lower in intelligence.
B) smaller than usual.
C) born with cerebral palsy.
D) born with facial, organ, or limb abnormalities.

Question 44

Which of the following explains the importance of reflexes?

A) Reflexes are merely remnants of our evolutionary past and have little importance.
B) Reflexes govern all our behaviour.
C) Reflexes provide ready-made behaviours that ensure the survival of newborns.
D) Reflexes exist due to learned behaviours, and thus they indicate how well our learning mechanisms are working.

Question 45

Jane's baby is quite small, has abnormal facial features and some organ damage, and is believed to have intellectual deficits. During pregnancy, Jane most likely

A) drank alcohol heavily.
B) smoked heavily.
C) drank large quantities of caffeinated coffee daily.
D) contracted rubella, or German measles, in her second trimester.

Question 46

Infants possess a number of simple reflexes at birth, including all of the following, except

A) sucking on a nipple placed in the mouth.
B) turning the head in the direction of a touch on the cheek.
C) reaching for a visible object placed near the face.
D) blinking and coughing.

Question 47

All of the following conditions increase the risk of having a low-birth-weight baby, except

A) poor nutrition.
B) insufficient folic acid.
C) maternal infection
D) smoking.

Question 48

Which of the following would be least likely to increase the chance of having a low-birth-weight baby?

A) maternal stress
B) poor maternal nutrition
C) smoking
D) poor prenatal care

Question 49

According to the text, the built-in responses to certain stimuli that are needed to ensure the survival of newborns are known as

A) reflexes.
B) schemas.
C) habits.
D) instincts.

Question 50

Adolescence is defined as beginning

A) at age 13.
B) at age 12.
C) at the onset of puberty.
D) when children reach the stage of formal operational thinking.

Question 51

Marda, a nine-year-old girl, has just experienced menarche. Recent research would suggest that

A) this event may have occurred early due to an unusually high level of physical activity.
B) this event may have occurred early due to a high-fat diet.
C) This event has occurred within the typical age range.
D) This event may have occurred late due to high levels of stress.

Question 52

Another term for a newborn child is

A) neonate.
B) embryo.
C) fetus.
D) toddler.

Question 53

Most teratogens are most harmful to the developing fetus during the first trimester because

A) the fetus has not gathered sufficient resources to combat the effects of teratogens.
B) the placental barrier has not yet fully developed.
C) the fetal immune system is not yet capable of mounting a response to the teratogenic substance.
D) the first trimester contains the critical period of development for many major systems and body structures.

Question 54

According to the text, shortly after birth, infants prefer

A) their father's voice over an unfamiliar male voice.
B) their mother's voice over an unfamiliar female voice.
C) their father's voice over their mother's voice.
D) their mother's voice over soothing music.

Question 55

Compared to a newborn, the number of reflexes you possess is

A) smaller.
B) much larger.
C) the same.
D) slightly larger.

Question 56

Physical abnormalities are most likely to result when there are harmful agents in the prenatal environment during

A) the second trimester.
B) any trimester.
C) the first trimester.
D) the third trimester.

Question 57

Which of the following occurs last?

A) The child kicks a ball forward.
B) The child walks, holding on.
C) The child sits without support.
D) The child stands alone.

Question 58

Teratogens during the second trimester are more likely to cause

A) social impairments.
B) either intellectual or social impairments.
C) physical abnormalities.
D) intellectual impairments.

Question 59

Prenatal malnutrition can negatively affect development of the embryo and the fetus; it can have particularly harmful effects on brain development during

A) conception.
B) the first trimester.
C) the second trimester.
D) the final trimester.

Question 60

The neonate's built-in responses like sucking, blinking, and grasping are called

A) habits.
B) sensory capacities.
C) neonatal skills.
D) reflexes.

Question 61

The secondary sex characteristics

A) are directly involved in reproduction.
B) define sexual identity.
C) occur at about the same time in all adolescents.
D) distinguish mature males from mature females.

Question 62

At what age do children first have preferences for certain odours, tastes, and sounds?

A) at 6 months
B) at birth
C) at 4 months
D) at 2 months

Question 63

Which of the following is not a secondary sex characteristic that develops in the male?

A) The voice deepens.
B) Body hair, such as underarm or chest hair, appears.
C) Facial hair appears.
D) Males grow to a taller height than females.

Question 64

Researchers have found that newborns can

A) perceive depth.
B) follow a slowly moving object with their eyes.
C) distinguish colours.
D) focus best on distant objects.

Question 65

Puberty is defined by

A) biological changes.
B) psychological changes.
C) cultural standards.
D) behavioural symptoms.

Question 66

Which of the following do middle-aged and older people generally not experience?

A) increasingly impaired night vision
B) becoming more farsighted
C) decreased intellect
D) hearing loss in the higher frequencies

Question 67

Newborns are not able to

A) clearly see far away objects.
B) follow a slowly moving object with their eyes.
C) distinguish their mother's face from that of unfamiliar females.
D) show a preference for looking at human faces.

Question 68

Menopause occurs when women are approximately ________ years old and results in the ________.

A) 40; cessation of menstruation
B) 50; cessation of menstruation
C) 50; end of sexual desire
D) 40; loss of sexual desire

Question 69

Which of the following refers to a period of rapid growth that culminates in sexual maturation?

A) puberty
B) adolescence
C) childhood
D) adulthood

Question 70

Which of the following statements is not true of the adolescent growth spurt?

A) It marks the end of puberty.
B) It is a period of rapid physical growth.
C) It occurs in boys at about age 14.
D) It occurs in girls at about age 12.

Question 71

Men experience a gradual decline in their testosterone levels from

A) birth.
B) about age 20.
C) their middle years.
D) age 60 onward.

Question 72

The onset of menarche occurs at

A) an average age of 10 years.
B) no sooner than 13 years old.
C) an average age of 12 years.
D) no later than 11 years old.

Question 73

The visual cliff apparatus is used to study

A) form perception.
B) depth perception.
C) colour perception.
D) infant fears.

Question 74

Facial hair, breasts, and underarm hair are all

A) primary sexual characteristics.
B) sexual markers.
C) gender symbols.
D) secondary sex characteristics.

Question 75

Which of the following statements about infant sensory development is not true?

A) Infants can show preferences in what they want to look at, hear, taste, and smell shortly after birth.
B) Vision, hearing, taste, and smell are all functional at birth.
C) Vision, hearing, taste, and smell are all fully developed at birth.
D) Hearing is better developed at birth than vision.

Question 76

Which of the following statements is not true of the secondary sex characteristics?

A) They include pubic and underarm hair in both sexes, breasts in females, and chest hair and deepened voice in males.
B) They are directly involved in reproduction.
C) They develop at puberty.
D) They are associated with sexual maturity.

Question 77

Which of the following responses best describes the sensory ability of the newborn?

A) All of the newborn's senses are functional at birth.
B) The neonate does not yet have preference for certain tastes or sounds.
C) All of the newborn's senses are fully developed at birth.
D) None of the newborn's senses are functional at birth.

Question 78

Which of the following colours is not one of the top four preferred by a three-month-old infant?

A) Purple
B) Blue
C) Red
D) Green

Question 79

For the majority of women, menopause

A) involves much physical discomfort.
B) is the most stressful experience of their lives.
C) signals the end of being a sexually active woman.
D) is accompanied by hot flashes.

Question 80

In the sequence of changes that take place during puberty, the first change in girls and boys is usually

A) a spurt in growth.
B) growth of underarm hair.
C) the appearance of pubic hair.
D) enlargement of breasts and testes.