Deck 5: ICD-10 Cm Medical Coding

Question 1

In addition to the reimbursement process, ICD-10-CM codes are used by outside agencies to:

A) forecast healthcare needs.
B) conduct studies of disease trends.
C) review costs and evaluate facilities.
D) all of the above.

Answer 1

all of the above.

Question 2

ICD-10-CM codes submitted on insurance claim forms are used to:

A) record a patient's office visits or inpatient days.
B) report specific procedures and services.
C) determine medical necessity for covered procedures and services.
D) report patient demographic information.

Answer 2

determine medical necessity for covered procedures and services.

Question 3

The ICD-10-PCS contains:

A) qualifier.
B) body system.
C) approach.
D) all of the above.

Answer 3

all of the above.

Question 4

ICD-10-CM offers an expanded selection of:

A) inpatient codes.
B) complication codes.
C) outpatient codes.
D) co-existing condition codes.

Question 5

The Table of Drugs and Chemicals contains all of the following EXCEPT:

A) poisoning, assault.
B) overdose, severity.
C) under-dosing.
D) adverse effect.

Question 6

The ICD-10-PCS has what type of alphanumeric code structure?

A) three-character
B) five-character
C) seven-character
D) nine-character

Question 7

To locate the correct code for the first encounter, the medical specialist must first look for the term in the:

A) Tabular List of Diseases and Injuries.
B) External Causes Index.
C) Neoplasm Table.
D) Alphabetic Index.

Question 8

The ICD-10-PCS is used to report:

A) inpatient procedure coding.
B) proper diagnosis coding.
C) outpatient procedure coding.
D) proper mortality coding.

Question 9

ICD-10-PCS replaced which volume(s) of ICD-9-CM?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1 and 2

Question 10

Which code indicates a reason for an encounter?

A) U
B) V
C) X
D) Z

Question 11

The cause or origin of a disease is its:

A) morphology.
B) past history.
C) etiology.
D) pathology.

Question 12

Secondary codes for use in any healthcare setting that provide data for injury research and evaluation of injury-prevention strategies can be found in the:

A) External Causes Index.
B) Neoplasm Table.
C) Table of Drugs and Chemicals.
D) Alphabetic List of Procedures.

Question 13

A type 1 Excludes note means :

A) not otherwise specified.
B) not included here.
C) not elsewhere classified.
D) not coded here.

Question 14

What appears at the end of the Alphabetic Index entry to indicate that additional characters are required?

A) the letter "N"
B) parentheses
C) brackets
D) a hyphen

Question 15

Once the correct code is located in the Alphabetic Index it must then be verified in the:

A) External Causes Index.
B) Tabular List of Diseases and Injuries.
C) Neoplasm Table.
D) Table of Drugs and Chemicals.

Question 16

The switch from ICD-9- CM to ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS allows for greater reporting of the descriptions of:

A) disease.
B) mortality.
C) morbidity.
D) all of the above.

Question 17

The Alphabetic Index to diseases is arranged in alphabetic order by all of the following EXCEPT:

A) injury.
B) eponym.
C) illness.
D) frequency.

Question 18

What punctuation is used in the Tabular List after an incomplete term which needs one or more of the modifiers indented under it to make it assignable to a given category.

A) parenthesis
B) hyphen
C) brackets
D) colon

Question 19

What instructional term following a main term in the Alphabetic index indicates that another main term should be referenced?

A) "see"
B) "see also"
C) "code also"
D) "and"

Question 20

A coder's first step in the reimbursement process is:

A) registering the patient.
B) reading and understanding the physician's documentation.
C) filling out a claim form.
D) calling the insurance carrier.

Question 21

The Tabular List of Diseases and Injuries is based on:

A) frequency of disease occurrence.
B) treatment options for condition.
C) complexity of condition.
D) body system or condition.

Question 22

To report external causes of injury and poisoning, a coder should use:

A) Z codes.
B) External cause codes.
C) numeric codes only.
D) a written explanation.

Question 23

Which digits in the ICD-10-CM provide greater detail of etiology, anatomical site, and severity?

A) 1-2.
B) 2-3.
C) 3-5.
D) 4-6.

Question 24

All of the following are true of supplementary terms in an ICD-10-CM entry EXCEPT:

A) they are essential to the selection of the correct code.
B) they aid the coder in finding the correct term.
C) they can be in parentheses.
D) they can be in brackets.

Question 25

What is step 4 of the ICD-10-CM coding guidelines?

A) Review entries for modifiers.
B) Read cross-references listed with the main term or the subterm.
C) Determine whether the code is at the highest level of specificity.
D) Interpret abbreviations cross-references, default codes, additional characters and brackets.

Question 26

Which abbreviation is the equivalent of unspecified?

A) NEC
B) NOS
C) USC
D) NSC

Question 27

The acronym NEC (not elsewhere classified) represents "other specified" when:

A) a condition hasn't been researched enough to be included in the classifications.
B) the coder must choose between two similar codes.
C) a specific code is not available for a condition.
D) this is the first year a condition has been included in the classifications.

Question 28

The first step in locating the accurate and most-specific code is to:

A) determine the reason for the encounter.
B) locate the term in the alphabetic index.
C) locate the term in the tabular list.
D) determine the services that were provided.

Question 29

All the following are true regarding coding an impending or threatening condition EXCEPT:

A) code as a confirmed diagnosis if it occurred.
B) if it did not occur look for a subentry term.
C) if it did occur look for subterms in the Index.
D) code the underlying condition if no subterms are found.

Question 30

What is the 9^th step of the ICD-10-CM coding guidelines?

A) Locate the main term entry.
B) Review entries for modifiers.
C) Assign the code.
D) Sequence codes correctly.

Question 31

If the physician cannot determine the diagnosis at the time of the encounter, the coder should:

A) wait until a definite diagnosis is made.
B) ask the physician to guess at a possible diagnosis.
C) code the symptoms, signs, or reason for the encounter.
D) code any preexisting or coexisting conditions.

Question 32

Which of the following is true of carryover lines (turnover lines)?

A) They are used if the main term or subterm is too long to fit on one line.
B) They are used to show the cause of the disease (etiology).
C) They are used to identify the body site of the condition.
D) They list another name for the condition or disease.

Question 33

The code next to the main term is called the:

A) specified code.
B) primary code.
C) combination code.
D) default code.

Question 34

Subterms in an ICD-10-CM entry may show:

A) the cause or origin of the disease.
B) another name for the disease.
C) a better description of the disease.
D) treatments of the disease.

Question 35

The terms in parentheses following the main term entry are:

A) essential modifiers.
B) nonessential modifiers.
C) subentries.
D) all of the above.

Question 36

The coder must refer to the ICD-10-CM's chapter guidelines to:

A) code to the lowest level of specificity.
B) code to the highest level of certainty and specificity.
C) code the primary diagnosis after the current coexisting conditions.
D) downcode to avoid any question of abuse.

Question 37

All of the following are true regarding coding late effects EXCEPT:

A) generally requires 2 codes.
B) the condition is sequenced last.
C) the nature is sequenced first.
D) the late effect code is sequenced second.

Question 38

Square brackets are used in the Tabular List to enclose:

A) antonyms and synonyms.
B) synonyms, alternate wording, or explanatory phrases.
C) eponyms and other proper names.
D) homonyms, alternate wording, or explanatory text.

Question 39

For each site in neoplasm coding how many code choices might there be?

A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6

Question 40

The Tabular List of Diseases and Injuries include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) morphology of neoplasms.
B) diabetes table.
C) external causes of morbidity.
D) table of drugs and chemicals.

Question 41

A medical office specialist should always code to the highest level of specificity.

Question 42

The primary diagnosis is the main reason for the outpatient visit or encounter.

Question 43

Cross-references such as "see and "see also" are identified by:

A) bold type.
B) larger font.
C) italicized type.
D) square brackets.

Question 44

Brackets are used in the Alphabetic Index to identify:

A) severity codes.
B) default codes.
C) use additional codes.
D) manifestation codes.

Question 45

In coding late (residual) effects, the coder should:

A) code only the cause of the late effect.
B) code only the late effect.
C) code first the cause followed by the code for the late effect.
D) code first the late effect followed by the code for its cause.

Question 46

Always code intentional when intentional harm is suspected.

Question 47

When the physician determines the patient's main reason for the encounter, this information is referred to as the:

A) primary diagnosis.
B) prevailing diagnosis.
C) admitting diagnosis.
D) chief complaint.

Question 48

E codes include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) abnormal results from medication or surgery.
B) the place where the event occurred.
C) the intent of the injury or poisoning.
D) history of past medical conditions.

Question 49

The diagnosis after the patient has been admitted to the hospital and an examination or tests have been performed is known as the:

A) rule-out diagnosis.
B) secondary diagnosis.
C) principal diagnosis.
D) primary diagnosis.

Question 50

The term encounter refers to any occurrence of patient care, regardless of the setting in which it is provided.

Question 51

The word "with" in the Alphabetic Index is sequenced:

A) in alphabetical order.
B) directly before the main term.
C) immediately following the main term.
D) after the essential modifier.

Question 52

ICD-10-CM uses an indented format for ease in reference.

Question 53

External cause codes are used to provide data for injury research and evaluation of injury-prevention strategies.

Question 54

In the ICD-10-PCS which character specifies the general type of procedure performed?

A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

Question 55

The treatment provided for a particular condition is known as its manifestation.

Question 56

Malignant neoplasms are classified as:

A) primary, secondary, or carcinoma in situ.
B) primary, secondary, or third-level.
C) carcinoma in situ or noncarcinoma in situ.
D) primary or secondary only.

Question 57

An External cause code would be used to report that a healthy person has become an organ donor.

Question 58

A condition that remains after a patient's acute illness or injury is called a(n):

A) complication.
B) late effect.
C) manifestation.
D) adverse effect.

Question 59

Parentheses are used to enclose supplementary words that may be present or absent in a statement of disease without affecting the code assignment.

Question 60

Which are always indented two spaces to the right under main terms?

A) carryover lines
B) subterms
C) supplementary terms
D) special notes

Question 61

When a specific code is not available for a condition the Tabular List includes an NEC entry under a code to identify the code as the "________" code.

Question 62

When a patient comes into the office for a blood pressure check due to hypertension, the ________ is Hypertension.

Question 63

If body mass index (BMI) is to be documented, it must be provided by the patient's provider as a primary diagnosis.

Question 64

All ICD-10 codes must have seven characters.

Question 65

If the encounter is for an illness for which the Alphabetic Index gives a choice of acute versus chronic, code the acute last.

Question 66

When coding late effects the condition or nature of the late effect is sequenced first.

Question 67

External cause codes include the place where the event occurred, and the activity of the patient at the time of the event.

Question 68

Codes with fewer than six characters that require a seventh character must contain placeholder "________" to fill in the empty characters.

Question 69

In the ICD-10-CM, the seventh character is only used in certain chapters to provide data about the characteristic of the encounters.

Question 70

Classified (codes R00.0-R99) contain all codes for symptoms.

Question 71

The Tabular List contains categories, subcategories, and valid codes which may be either a letter or a number.

Question 72

In the ICD-10-PCS the ________ character of the procedure code always specifies the section.

Question 73

Codes that describe symptoms and signs, as opposed to diagnoses, are acceptable for reporting purposes when a related definitive diagnosis has not been established by the provider.

Question 74

When the physician gives a diagnosis of Gastric Ulcer, the ________ would be Ulcer and the ________ is Gastric.

Question 75

A code is invalid if it has not been coded to the full number of characters or (greatest level of ________).

Question 76

To prevent coding errors, always use both the Alphabetic Index to ________ and the Tabular List to ________.

Question 77

Codes in ICD-10-CM can contain from three up to ________alphanumeric characters.

Question 78

When coding neoplasms, the sixth digit of a morphology code indicates the behavior of the neoplasm.

Question 79

When coding a poisoning the coder would locate the intent followed by the drug.

Question 80

A code that is used to classify a diagnosis with an associated secondary process (manifestation) is called a ________ code.