Deck 3: Understanding Managed Care: Medical Contracts and Ethics
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Deck 3: Understanding Managed Care: Medical Contracts and Ethics
1
Providers are likely to agree to discounted fee-for-service contracts because they result in a(n):
A) decrease in taxes paid by the physician.
B) increase in the number of patients referred to the physician.
C) decrease in paperwork required to file claims.
D) fewer administrative tasks for the medical office assistant.
A) decrease in taxes paid by the physician.
B) increase in the number of patients referred to the physician.
C) decrease in paperwork required to file claims.
D) fewer administrative tasks for the medical office assistant.
increase in the number of patients referred to the physician.
2
A managed care contract is considered a legal document between the:
A) provider and insurer.
B) provider and patient.
C) patient and insurer.
D) insurer and employer.
A) provider and insurer.
B) provider and patient.
C) patient and insurer.
D) insurer and employer.
patient and insurer.
3
Under a discounted fee-for-service arrangement, covered services are compensated at a:
A) discounted per-diem rate.
B) per-member-per-month rate.
C) reduced percentage of usual and customary charges.
D) reduced per-case rate.
A) discounted per-diem rate.
B) per-member-per-month rate.
C) reduced percentage of usual and customary charges.
D) reduced per-case rate.
reduced percentage of usual and customary charges.
4
An increase in patient volume is often caused by:
A) discounted fee-for-service contracts.
B) per diem and per case contracts.
C) percentage of premium and capitation contracts.
D) capitation contracts.
A) discounted fee-for-service contracts.
B) per diem and per case contracts.
C) percentage of premium and capitation contracts.
D) capitation contracts.
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5
The schedule of benefits section of a managed care contract lists the:
A) deductible and coinsurance amounts that patients must pay.
B) providers in the contracted network.
C) medical services covered under the managed care plan.
D) benefits of participating in the managed care plan.
A) deductible and coinsurance amounts that patients must pay.
B) providers in the contracted network.
C) medical services covered under the managed care plan.
D) benefits of participating in the managed care plan.
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6
Fee schedules in managed care contracts are increasingly based on:
A) Medicare's resource-based relative value scale (RBRVS) and conversion factor.
B) Medicare's resource-based relative value scale (RBRVS) with a different conversion factor.
C) the HMO's per-member-per-month guidelines.
D) usual and customary charges adjusted by geographic area.
A) Medicare's resource-based relative value scale (RBRVS) and conversion factor.
B) Medicare's resource-based relative value scale (RBRVS) with a different conversion factor.
C) the HMO's per-member-per-month guidelines.
D) usual and customary charges adjusted by geographic area.
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7
A medical office specialist must do all the following EXCEPT:
A) know the Patient Bill of Rights.
B) explain the ACO to the patient.
C) be familiar with managed care terms.
D) promote the provider network.
A) know the Patient Bill of Rights.
B) explain the ACO to the patient.
C) be familiar with managed care terms.
D) promote the provider network.
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8
According to some contract terms, if an MCO does not pay a claim within the time limit specified in the contract, the provider may be able to:
A) bill the patient directly.
B) charge the usual and customary fee instead of the discounted fee.
C) take legal action against the MCO.
D) terminate the MCO contract after filing a written notice of intention.
A) bill the patient directly.
B) charge the usual and customary fee instead of the discounted fee.
C) take legal action against the MCO.
D) terminate the MCO contract after filing a written notice of intention.
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9
Which type of payment method creates an incentive to provide more preventive care?
A) capitation
B) per diem
C) per case
D) discounted fee-for-service
A) capitation
B) per diem
C) per case
D) discounted fee-for-service
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10
Contracts between the physician and managed care organization (MCO) are generally negotiated by the:
A) medical office specialist.
B) physician or upper management.
C) attorney.
D) account manager or business manager.
A) medical office specialist.
B) physician or upper management.
C) attorney.
D) account manager or business manager.
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11
ACO stands for:
A) affordable care organization.
B) acute care organization.
C) accountable care organization.
D) assurance care organization.
A) affordable care organization.
B) acute care organization.
C) accountable care organization.
D) assurance care organization.
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12
Which of the following is NOT a common type of payment arrangement in a managed care contract?
A) discounted fee-for-service
B) annual fee
C) capitation
D) per case
A) discounted fee-for-service
B) annual fee
C) capitation
D) per case
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13
A contract with which of the following payment terms can result in an increased financial risk to the provider?
A) capitation
B) percentage of premiums
C) fee-for-service
D) discounted fee-for-service
A) capitation
B) percentage of premiums
C) fee-for-service
D) discounted fee-for-service
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14
Provisions included in a managed care contract with a provider include:
A) what is expected of the provider.
B) time limits for submitting claims.
C) reimbursement amounts.
D) all of the above.
A) what is expected of the provider.
B) time limits for submitting claims.
C) reimbursement amounts.
D) all of the above.
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15
A managed care contract should clearly state all of the following EXCEPT:
A) how much the physician will be paid for services.
B) when payment should be received from the MCO.
C) the time limit for submitting claims to the MCO.
D) the list of employers with MCO contracts.
A) how much the physician will be paid for services.
B) when payment should be received from the MCO.
C) the time limit for submitting claims to the MCO.
D) the list of employers with MCO contracts.
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16
A managed care contract will include a:
A) list of patients covered by the plan.
B) list of physicians in the network.
C) description of what types of employer groups are offered coverage.
D) description of how the physician will be paid for services.
A) list of patients covered by the plan.
B) list of physicians in the network.
C) description of what types of employer groups are offered coverage.
D) description of how the physician will be paid for services.
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17
A provider who enters into a contract with an MCO is referred to as a(n):
A) active provider.
B) MCO provider.
C) participating provider.
D) permanent provider.
A) active provider.
B) MCO provider.
C) participating provider.
D) permanent provider.
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18
Managed care organizations (MCOs) develop a network by contracting with:
A) physicians.
B) facilities.
C) pharmacies.
D) all of the above.
A) physicians.
B) facilities.
C) pharmacies.
D) all of the above.
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19
Under a contract based on a per-case or per-visit rate of compensation, the provider is paid a predetermined rate for each:
A) enrolled patient.
B) episode of care.
C) diagnosis code.
D) service provided.
A) enrolled patient.
B) episode of care.
C) diagnosis code.
D) service provided.
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20
The benefits of a managed care contract to the provider include:
A) keeping costs down.
B) bringing more patients to the practice.
C) adding opportunities for staff development.
D) increasing administrative duties.
A) keeping costs down.
B) bringing more patients to the practice.
C) adding opportunities for staff development.
D) increasing administrative duties.
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21
Emergency services are warranted if the absence of immediate medical attention could result in:
A) placing the covered person's health in serious jeopardy.
B) serious impairment to bodily functions.
C) serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.
D) all of the above.
A) placing the covered person's health in serious jeopardy.
B) serious impairment to bodily functions.
C) serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.
D) all of the above.
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22
The following is true of Obamacare:
A) preventative care is more accessible.
B) employers are mandated to furnish healthcare or be fined.
C) requires all insurance plans to cover contraceptives at no cost.
D) all of the above.
A) preventative care is more accessible.
B) employers are mandated to furnish healthcare or be fined.
C) requires all insurance plans to cover contraceptives at no cost.
D) all of the above.
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23
In cases of fraudulent billing:
A) only the physician can be held liable.
B) the physician can never be held liable.
C) the medical office specialist can be held liable.
D) the medical office specialist can never be held liable.
A) only the physician can be held liable.
B) the physician can never be held liable.
C) the medical office specialist can be held liable.
D) the medical office specialist can never be held liable.
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24
What is the key component of an accountable care organization?
A) It receives an annual fee from their patients.
B) It receives a lump sum fee from a government plan.
C) It receives a retainer from their patients.
D) It receives an annual fee from Medicare.
A) It receives an annual fee from their patients.
B) It receives a lump sum fee from a government plan.
C) It receives a retainer from their patients.
D) It receives an annual fee from Medicare.
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25
An MCO may contract with a physician whose background is questionable in order to:
A) contract with all the providers in a given area.
B) make the network as large as possible.
C) ensure that all specialties are available in the network.
D) An MCO would never contract with a physician who has a questionable reputation.
A) contract with all the providers in a given area.
B) make the network as large as possible.
C) ensure that all specialties are available in the network.
D) An MCO would never contract with a physician who has a questionable reputation.
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26
When a person has health insurance coverage through two or more plans, the determination of which plan will provide benefits as primary or secondary payer is known as:
A) case management.
B) benefit determination.
C) coordination of benefits.
D) coordination of services.
A) case management.
B) benefit determination.
C) coordination of benefits.
D) coordination of services.
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27
A medical office specialist works as a liaison between: (Select all that apply)
A) the provider and patient.
B) the provider and carrier.
C) the patient and employer.
D) the employer and carrier.
A) the provider and patient.
B) the provider and carrier.
C) the patient and employer.
D) the employer and carrier.
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28
The Affordable Care Act represents the most significant overhaul of the U.S. healthcare system since:
A) the passing of Medicaid.
B) the passing of Medicare.
C) the passing of Obamacare.
D) Both A and B.
A) the passing of Medicaid.
B) the passing of Medicare.
C) the passing of Obamacare.
D) Both A and B.
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29
A managed care organization (MCO) uses a credentialing process to evaluate a provider's:
A) medical credentials.
B) service fees.
C) workplace environment.
D) all of the above.
A) medical credentials.
B) service fees.
C) workplace environment.
D) all of the above.
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30
All the following are true regarding an ACO EXCEPT:
A) It shares the patient's information with its network of providers.
B) It needs a patient's authorization to release medical information.
C) It is part of a Medicare Advantage plan.
D) It participates in a Medicare Shared Savings Program.
A) It shares the patient's information with its network of providers.
B) It needs a patient's authorization to release medical information.
C) It is part of a Medicare Advantage plan.
D) It participates in a Medicare Shared Savings Program.
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31
The organization that awards accreditation to managed care organizations is the:
A) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).
B) National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT).
C) National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA).
D) World Health Organization (WHO).
A) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).
B) National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT).
C) National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA).
D) World Health Organization (WHO).
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32
In MCOs, the business aspects of healthcare are not being controlled by:
A) physicians.
B) managers.
C) accountants.
D) actuaries.
A) physicians.
B) managers.
C) accountants.
D) actuaries.
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33
Services provided to treat a medical condition that involves the sudden onset of acute symptoms of sufficient severity to threaten a person's life or health are:
A) urgent care.
B) medical care.
C) hospital care.
D) emergency care.
A) urgent care.
B) medical care.
C) hospital care.
D) emergency care.
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34
With respect to National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) accreditation:
A) MCOs must be accredited to operate.
B) MCOs have all asked to be accredited, but some do not qualify.
C) some MCOs are accredited, and some are not.
D) accredited MCOs are always better than nonaccredited MCOs.
A) MCOs must be accredited to operate.
B) MCOs have all asked to be accredited, but some do not qualify.
C) some MCOs are accredited, and some are not.
D) accredited MCOs are always better than nonaccredited MCOs.
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35
Medically necessary services include all of the following EXCEPT services that are:
A) experimental, investigative, or unproven.
B) based on recognized standards of the specialty involved.
C) not solely for the convenience of a covered person or a healthcare provider.
D) accepted by the healthcare profession as appropriate and effective for the condition being treated.
A) experimental, investigative, or unproven.
B) based on recognized standards of the specialty involved.
C) not solely for the convenience of a covered person or a healthcare provider.
D) accepted by the healthcare profession as appropriate and effective for the condition being treated.
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36
In plans that require the primary care physician (PCP) to play a gatekeeper role, the PCP is given incentives to:
A) expand office hours and/or staff to permit more patients to be seen each day.
B) make frequent referrals to contracted network specialists.
C) see as many patients each day as possible, even if this means less time with each patient.
D) treat the patient as much as possible without a specialist referral unless absolutely necessary.
A) expand office hours and/or staff to permit more patients to be seen each day.
B) make frequent referrals to contracted network specialists.
C) see as many patients each day as possible, even if this means less time with each patient.
D) treat the patient as much as possible without a specialist referral unless absolutely necessary.
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37
The maximum allowable fee payable for the provision of a particular contracted service by a physician is called the:
A) reimbursement rate.
B) negotiated fee.
C) fee maximum.
D) capitation rate.
A) reimbursement rate.
B) negotiated fee.
C) fee maximum.
D) capitation rate.
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38
The credentialing process of a managed care organization (MCO) will examine each physician's background for evidence of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) criminal activity.
B) disciplinary actions.
C) malpractice history.
D) salary history.
A) criminal activity.
B) disciplinary actions.
C) malpractice history.
D) salary history.
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39
Business values incorporated into medical practices as a result of managed care include a(n):
A) emphasis on the doctor-patient relationship.
B) return to fee-for-service payments.
C) focus on efficiency, cost reduction, and profit.
D) focus on administrative requirements and paperwork.
A) emphasis on the doctor-patient relationship.
B) return to fee-for-service payments.
C) focus on efficiency, cost reduction, and profit.
D) focus on administrative requirements and paperwork.
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40
The contract issued by a payer, the plan document, or any other legally enforceable instrument under which a covered person may be entitled to covered services is called:
A) the schedule of benefits.
B) the benefit plan.
C) covered services.
D) contracted services.
A) the schedule of benefits.
B) the benefit plan.
C) covered services.
D) contracted services.
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41
The healthcare professional in a medical practice or billing office who is responsible for submitting insurance claims may be known as a medical office specialist.
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42
ACOs are a group of insurance providers.
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43
Providers are not required to sign a contract with a managed care plan in order to become part of the plan's provider network.
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44
In the Patient's Bill of Rights under the Affordable Care Act, which service(s) are covered with no cost to patients? (Select all that apply)
A) immunizations.
B) mammograms.
C) chemotherapy.
D) colonoscopies.
A) immunizations.
B) mammograms.
C) chemotherapy.
D) colonoscopies.
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45
A policyholder in a managed care contract is also called a member or enrollee.
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46
The contract provision that states a physician cannot seek payment from a patient under a managed care contract in relation to any benefit penalties that were applied based on a utilization review decision is:
A) no fault.
B) hold harmless.
C) stoploss coverage.
D) liability.
A) no fault.
B) hold harmless.
C) stoploss coverage.
D) liability.
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47
An individual who is an insured, enrolled subscriber or dependent under the terms of a health benefit plan is a(n):
A) contracted entity.
B) covered person.
C) payer.
D) provider.
A) contracted entity.
B) covered person.
C) payer.
D) provider.
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48
Under an ACO contract physicians receive a fee for each service they perform.
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49
Principles adopted in the Patient's Bill of Rights include all of the following EXCEPT the right to:
A) accurate and easily understood information.
B) receive emergency services without penalty.
C) know your treatment options.
D) sue the managed care organization.
A) accurate and easily understood information.
B) receive emergency services without penalty.
C) know your treatment options.
D) sue the managed care organization.
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50
According to the new Patient's Bill of Rights, the following is true regarding emergency care:
A) companies can limit which emergency department the patient goes to.
B) new plans cannot penalize for out of network care.
C) there may be a financial penalty for non-network care.
D) the primary care physician must approve emergency care.
A) companies can limit which emergency department the patient goes to.
B) new plans cannot penalize for out of network care.
C) there may be a financial penalty for non-network care.
D) the primary care physician must approve emergency care.
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51
All of the following regarding the Patient's Bill of Rights are true EXCEPT:
A) Patients joining a new plan can choose their own doctor in the insurer network.
B) Patients can receive preventative care without paying deductibles, coinsurance, or copayments.
C) Patients have the right to appeal an insurance company decision with an independent third party.
D) Patients may receive financial reimbursement for out of network penalties.
A) Patients joining a new plan can choose their own doctor in the insurer network.
B) Patients can receive preventative care without paying deductibles, coinsurance, or copayments.
C) Patients have the right to appeal an insurance company decision with an independent third party.
D) Patients may receive financial reimbursement for out of network penalties.
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52
Which of the following are new laws in the Patient's Bill of Rights under the Affordable Care Act?
A) no one can be denied coverage because of a pre-existing medical condition.
B) a patient cannot be dropped from coverage due to an unintentional mistake on their application.
C) insurance companies can no longer put a lifetime limit of the amount of coverage.
D) all of the above.
A) no one can be denied coverage because of a pre-existing medical condition.
B) a patient cannot be dropped from coverage due to an unintentional mistake on their application.
C) insurance companies can no longer put a lifetime limit of the amount of coverage.
D) all of the above.
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53
Most managed care contracts allow an unlimited time frame for submitting claims.
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54
All of the following are true regarding the concierge contract EXCEPT:
A) It may not be required to abide by the Bill of Rights.
B) It is a legal agreement between patient and provider.
C) It is a cash only agreement between the provider and patient.
D) It may require the patient to pay the provider a retainer.
A) It may not be required to abide by the Bill of Rights.
B) It is a legal agreement between patient and provider.
C) It is a cash only agreement between the provider and patient.
D) It may require the patient to pay the provider a retainer.
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55
Types of payment arrangements in managed care contracts include discounted fee-for-service, per diem, per case, percentage of premiums, and capitation.
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56
In the Patient's Bill of Rights under the Affordable Health Care Act, young adults who are not offered coverage at work are covered by their parents' plan until they reach:
A) 19.
B) 21.
C) 25.
D) 26.
A) 19.
B) 21.
C) 25.
D) 26.
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57
Managed care contracts never prohibit the provider from seeking payment directly from plan members.
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58
Which of the following is true of the new Patient's Bill of Rights under the Affordable Health Care Act?
A) Insurance companies are banned from restricting emergency room care.
B) Insurance companies are prohibited from charging patients for preventative care.
C) Insurance companies are banned from limiting choice of doctors.
D) all of the above.
A) Insurance companies are banned from restricting emergency room care.
B) Insurance companies are prohibited from charging patients for preventative care.
C) Insurance companies are banned from limiting choice of doctors.
D) all of the above.
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59
A payer that is contractually obligated to make payment for medical services on behalf of the covered person can be:
A) an insurance company.
B) a third-party administrator.
C) a self-insured health benefit plan.
D) all of the above.
A) an insurance company.
B) a third-party administrator.
C) a self-insured health benefit plan.
D) all of the above.
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60
A managed care contract that involves payment through capitation provides incentives for physicians to emphasize preventive care.
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61
A ________ contract is another form of a legal agreement between the provider and the patient under which the patient pays the provider an annual fee or retainer.
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62
The Patient's Bill of Rights under the Affordable Care Act put an end to insurance companies limiting choice of doctors.
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63
Under a discounted fee-for-service arrangement, covered services are compensated at a discount of the provider's ________ charges.
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64
The list of medical services covered under the insured's policy is called the schedule of ________.
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65
A medical office specialist cannot be held liable for fraudulent billing practices if told to do so by a physician.
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66
Determination of which of two or more health plans will provide benefits as primary or secondary payer is known as coordination of benefits.
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67
Under an ACO the member can use any doctor or hospital that accepts Medicare.
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68
Patients do not have the right to receive emergency services outside of their contracted network.
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69
The charge a covered person is required to pay at the time covered services are provided is called a(n) ________.
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70
A managed care contract specifies covered services, reimbursement amounts, and the method of ________ for the contracted physician.
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71
When a managed care organization (MCO) examines a physician's background for evidence of fraud or criminal activity, this is part of the process known as ________.
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72
Concierge medicine is a small, personalized medical practice that takes care of a limited number of patients.
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73
A medical office specialist should always document, sign, and date all conversations regarding any patient's account.
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74
An increasing number of managed care plans are basing fee schedules on the Medicare ________.
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75
Under a managed care contract, physicians cannot balance bill or impose any surcharge upon covered persons.
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76
A managed care organization will contract with physicians, laboratories, pharmacies, hospitals, clinics, and other healthcare facilities in building a provider network.
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77
The organization that awards accreditation to health plans for meeting quality standards of healthcare delivery is the ________.
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78
Patients are typically very familiar with their health plan benefits when discussing claims issues with the medical office specialist.
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79
In order to receive National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) accreditation, a managed care organization (MCO) must demonstrate that it has a thorough credentialing process.
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80
PMPM stands for________.
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