Deck 2: Prenatal Development

Question 1

All of the following are dominant traits EXCEPT

A) Type A blood.
B) nearsightedness.
C) flat feet.
D) coarse hair.
E) freckles.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Misty was a "test-tube baby," which means she was conceived using

A) IVF.
B) FET.
C) DNA.
D) XY.
E) XX.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

The AB blood type is an example of

A) a recessive trait.
B) codominance.
C) a homozygous locus.
D) a sex chromosome influence.
E) a polygenic trait.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Which of the following statements describes Lamar's genotype?

A) He has brown hair.
B) He is short for his age.
C) He looks like his father.
D) He has type AB blood.
E) He is an overachiever.

Question 5

Meg has type A blood made up of a gene for A paired with a gene for O. Meg is ________ for blood type.

A) heterozygous
B) genotypic
C) homozygous
D) phenotypic
E) recessive

Question 6

Which of the following statements describes the person's phenotype?

A) Maria's 23rd chromosome pair is XX.
B) Mark's blood type is AO.
C) Jill is a carrier of cystic fibrosis.
D) Larry has brown hair.
E) Mel has Trisomy 21.

Question 7

Adella is 41 years of age and has been unsuccessful in her attempts to become pregnant. She has asked her doctor to try in vitro fertilization. Her doctor will tell her that only ________ percent of IVF procedures involving women over age 40 are successful.

A) 46.b.
40)c.
35)d.
24)e.
17)

Question 8

Who deduced that DNA was shaped like a double helix?

A) Down and Klinefelter
B) Turner and Watson
C) Watson and Crick
D) Horowitz and Crick
E) Freud and Watson

Question 9

In humans, the result of mitosis is a ________ chromosome cell, and the result of meiosis is a ________ chromosome cell.

A) 46; 46
B) 46; 23
C) 23; 46
D) 23; 23
E) 92; 46

Question 10

The pattern of characteristics and developmental sequences mapped in the genes of any specific individual is the

A) gamete.
B) genotype.
C) phenotype.
D) chromosome.
E) zygote.

Question 11

At conception, a zygote is formed by the joining of two

A) ova.
B) sperm.
C) gametes.
D) genes.
E) chromosomes.

Question 12

Infertility is defined as the failure to conceive after ________ consecutive months of unprotected intercourse.

A) two
B) four
C) six
D) 10
E) 12

Question 13

Which of the following is true about David's fine hair?

A) It comes from a dominant gene.
B) He carries a curly hair gene.
C) It is a polygenic trait.
D) It is a co-dominant trait.
E) He had to inherit a gene from both parents.

Question 14

Which of the following is an accurate statement about dominant and recessive genes?

A) Only about 300 physical characteristics are dominant.
B) All genes are expressed the same in every individual.
C) The dominant/recessive pattern is very straightforward.
D) Genes cannot be codominant.
E) Even simple patterns of inheritance can be complicated.

Question 15

Quentin has blue eyes, blond hair, freckles, dimples, and flat feet. Which of these traits is polygenic?

A) blue eyes
B) blond hair
C) freckles
D) dimples
E) flat feet

Question 16

Bernice just found out that she is pregnant. The cell that Bernice contributed at conception was a(n)

A) embryo.
B) zygote.
C) sperm.
D) gamete.
E) ovum.

Question 17

In order for conception to occur, the sperm must reach the ovum by traveling from the ________ to the ________ where fertilization takes place.

A) vagina; fallopian tube
B) uterus; vagina
C) fallopian tube; cervix
D) uterus; cervix
E) cervix; vagina

Question 18

It is most accurate to describe the genetic material in the nucleus of the cell as

A) DNA, which contains chromosomes and genes.
B) chromosomes composed of DNA, which has segments called genes.
C) genes, which contain DNA and are found on chromosomes.
D) separate bodies called genes, chromosomes, and DNA.
E) 46 genes made up of DNA.

Question 19

What type of cell division produces gametes?

A) meiosis
B) codominance
C) mitosis
D) splicing
E) cloning

Question 20

When genetic information at a given locus is the same on both chromosomes, the individual is ________ for that trait.

A) heterozygous
B) phenotypic
C) homozygous
D) dominant
E) genotypic

Question 21

Rita is pregnant. When she conceived, two separate ova were fertilized at the same time, and each implanted in the uterus. Rita can expect to give birth to

A) a child with Down syndrome.
B) a premature child.
C) fraternal twins.
D) identical twins.
E) monozygotic twins.

Question 22

Matt and Marcy are twins. From this statement you can be certain that they are ________ twins.

A) identical
B) monozygotic
C) fraternal
D) conjoined
E) polygenic

Question 23

Which of the following is true about fraternal twins?

A) They will be homozygous.
B) They are dizygotic.
C) They are monozygotic.
D) They are always the same sex.
E) They will be premature.

Question 24

Mikki's phenotype for her height is

A) the same as her genotype.
B) the difference between the effects of two genes.
C) the sum of the effects of several height genes.
D) inherited only from her father.
E) determined by genes on her X chromosome.

Question 25

Which of the following is an accurate description of the placenta?

A) It is a platelike mass of cells protecting the heart.
B) It is fully developed by two weeks after conception.
C) It serves as heart and lungs for the embryo.
D) It is connected to the embryo's circulatory system through the umbilical cord.
E) It develops during the germinal stage.

Question 26

The mass of cells that attaches itself to the wall of the uterus about two weeks after conception is called a(n) ________ and has about ________ cells.

A) umbilical cord; 36
B) placenta; 36
C) blastocyst; 150
D) autosome; 150
E) chorion; 3

Question 27

The embryonic stage begins when ________ is complete and continues until ________ is complete.

A) mitosis; meiosis
B) implantation; organogenesis
C) meiosis; mitosis
D) germination; implantation
E) implantation; conception

Question 28

What is the correct order of the stages of gestation?

A) germinal, fetal, and embryonic
B) embryonic, germinal, and fetal
C) germinal, embryonic, and fetal
D) embryonic, fetal, and germinal
E) fetal, germinal, and embryonic

Question 29

Robert's wife is in the germinal stage of pregnancy and he wants to know what is happening. You can tell him that the

A) amnion and placenta are developing.
B) "finishing" of organ systems is taking place.
C) gametes are being formed through meiosis.
D) the blastocyst is forming.
E) the heart is formed and beating.

Question 30

Which of the following is true of prenatal development?

A) All three trimesters occur in the first stage.
B) Trimesters vary in length.
C) There are three stages of prenatal development.
D) Each stage of prenatal development is in a different trimester.
E) Stages are the same as trimesters.

Question 31

Cell division begins ________ after conception.

A) two weeks
B) one week
C) within two to three days
D) 48 to 60 hours
E) 24 to 36 hours

Question 32

What two organs does the chorion develop into?

A) placenta and umbilical cord
B) blastocyst and zygote
C) heart and lungs
D) kidneys and liver
E) amnion and blastocyst

Question 33

All of the following can pass through the placenta EXCEPT

A) most of the mother's hormones.
B) most drugs and anesthetics.
C) oxygen.
D) digestive wastes.
E) proteins and sugars.

Question 34

The amnion is

A) a plate-like mass of cells that lies against the wall of the uterus.
B) the second half of the fetal stage.
C) the sac or bag filled with liquid in which the baby floats.
D) a filter through which nutrients pass to the embryo and fetus.
E) the first internal organ to develop.

Question 35

The correct order of the different names given to the human organism as it develops during the nine months of gestation is

A) blastocyst, fetus, embryo.
B) blastocyst, embryo, fetus.
C) embryo, blastocyst, fetus.
D) embryo, fetus, blastocyst.
E) fetus , embryo, blastocyst.

Question 36

When inherited genes are located outside the nucleus of the zygote, the inheritance is

A) polygenic.
B) multifactorial.
C) dominant.
D) mitochondrial.
E) codominant.

Question 37

Some studies suggest that genomic imprints

A) will always come from the mother's ovum.
B) results in Prader-Willi syndrome if from the father.
C) always leads to obesity and mental retardation.
D) may be particularly important in diseases that appear later in life, such as heart disease.
E) is an example of mitochondrial inheritance.

Question 38

In general, prenatal development is

A) extremely predictable.
B) controlled by maturational sequences.
C) invulnerable to environmental influences.
D) random in sequence and timing.
E) determined solely by genetic programming.

Question 39

Delores is in the fetal stage of her pregnancy. What can she expect to happen in this stage?

A) Differentiation of the major organ systems begins.
B) The development into a blastocyst is completed.
C) Organ systems are refined.
D) The placenta develops.
E) The heart begins to beat.

Question 40

Height is a trait that is all of the following EXCEPT

A) polygenic.
B) multifactorial.
C) dominant.
D) affected by environment.
E) a measure of general health.

Question 41

What changes in fetal behavior signal that fetal brain development is proceeding normally?

A) The axons lengthen and the dentronic arbor grows.
B) The majority of the prefrontal cortex is mature.
C) Glial cells begin to produce neurotransmitters.
D) The embryo gains about half its birth weight.
E) The fetus exhibits alternating periods of activity and rest, and begins to yawn.

Question 42

Longitudinal studies have shown that very active fetuses are more likely to become school children who are labeled by teachers as

A) hyperactive.
B) mentally retarded.
C) learning disabled.
D) normal.
E) gifted.

Question 43

Phenylketonuria, sickle-cell anemia, and cystic fibrosis are all

A) autosomal dominant disorders.
B) sex-linked recessive disorders.
C) autosomal recessive disorders.
D) caused by teratogens.
E) found on the X chromosome.

Question 44

Which of the following is an accurate statement of sex differences in development?

A) Boys are four to six weeks ahead in skeletal development.
B) Girls are heavier and longer at birth.
C) The average length at birth for boys is 19 inches.
D) Boys have more muscle tissue and fewer fat cells.
E) Girls are more vulnerable to prenatal problems.

Question 45

The tiny space between neurons which allows neuronal communication is the

A) terminal fiber.
B) dendrite.
C) synapse.
D) axon.
E) neurotransmitter.

Question 46

Research in fetal development has shown that

A) fetuses are unresponsive to auditory stimuli.
B) fetuses are unable to recognize patterns of sound.
C) only embryonic chicks recognize different sounds.
D) active fetuses become labeled as retarded after birth.
E) the prenatal learning process parallels what happens postnatally.

Question 47

The ________ exists in only rudimentary form at the end of embryonic period.

A) amnion
B) nervous system
C) placenta
D) circulatory system
E) umbilical cord

Question 48

The sex of the fetus can be identified by

A) five days after conception.
B) two weeks after conception.
C) 21 days after conception.
D) week 10 of gestation.
E) week 12 of gestation.

Question 49

Which is the most accurate statement of sex differences in early development?

A) Girls are more vulnerable to prenatal problems.
B) More females are spontaneously aborted.
C) Girls have more muscle and fewer fat cells.
D) Boys are four to six weeks ahead in bone development at birth.
E) Boys are slightly heavier and longer at birth.

Question 50

The cells that hold together and give form to the structures of the nervous system are called

A) axons.
B) dendrites.
C) glial cells.
D) nerve cells.
E) soma.

Question 51

Sex differences in children's responsive to external stimuli first appear

A) in the womb.
B) in the first few weeks of life.
C) at about 3 years of age.
D) in elementary school.
E) at puberty.

Question 52

During prenatal development, the presence of testosterone is

A) equally important for the development of both male and female genitalia.
B) important in female development in the last three months.
C) is minimal in both males and females.
D) the masculinizing factor in prenatal development.
E) a cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

Question 53

The great majority of neurons are apparently formed

A) by two years after birth.
B) at birth.
C) in the third trimester of pregnancy.
D) between 10 and 18 weeks into gestation.
E) at conception.

Question 54

In the fetal brain, synapse formation requires the growth of which two neuronal structures?

A) dendrites; terminal fibers
B) terminal fibers; axon
C) axons; dendrites
D) glial cells; dendrite
E) axons; terminal fiber

Question 55

Duane and Jeanine are African American. A genetic counselor would most likely test them for

A) sickle cell disease.
B) PKU.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) Tay Sachs.
E) Huntinton's disease.

Question 56

Helen's daughter has PKU. Which of the following is most likely to be true?

A) Helen is African American.
B) Her daughter cannot drink milk.
C) The disorder was discovered when her daughter was in her teens.
D) She was exposed to a teratogen while pregnant.
E) Helen was over 40 when she gave birth.

Question 57

Research on prenatal development suggests that the fetus can distinguish between familiar and novel stimuli by the

A) end of germinal period.
B) end of the embryonic period.
C) 20th week of prenatal development.
D) 32nd or 33rd week prenatally.
E) the first month after birth.

Question 58

Luigi has a sex-linked disorder. This is caused by a gene on the

A) 15th chromosome pair.
B) autosomes.
C) X chromosome.
D) mitochondria.
E) 22nd chromosome pair.

Question 59

Adela has congenital adrenal hyperplasia. She will

A) tend to be masculinized.
B) be extremely feminine in her behavior.
C) not be affected by this disorder.
D) be masculine as a child, but feminine as an adult.
E) be shy and timid as a child.

Question 60

In the United States about ________ African Americans have sickle cell disease and about ________ have sickle cell trait.

A) 1 in 10,000; 1 in 100
B) 1 in 5,000; 1 in 20
C) 1 in 20; 1 in 5,000
D) 1 in 12; 1 in 500
E) 1 in 500; 1 in 12

Question 61

All of the following statements about fetoscopy are accurate EXCEPT

A) it involves insertion of a camera into the womb.
B) it is used routinely on all high risk pregnancies.
C) it has made it possible to surgically correct prenatal defects.
D) it can be used to take samples of blood from the umbilical cord.
E) it has made fetal bone marrow transplants possible.

Question 62

Dr. Urlich is using a prenatal test on one of his pregnant patients in which he filters fetal cells out of fluid to test for genetic disorders. He is using

A) amniocentesis.
B) CVS.
C) fetoscopy.
D) ultrasound.
E) DNA testing.

Question 63

What substance in the mother's blood indicates abnormalities in the fetal brain and spinal cord?

A) alpha-fetoprotein
B) CVS
C) estrogen
D) progesterone
E) testosterone

Question 64

Research on the HIV virus in pregnant women has shown that

A) HIV is always transmitted to an embryo or fetus by an infected mother.
B) HIV is decreasing in women of childbearing age.
C) HIV is less likely to be transmitted when the mother has been treated with antiretroviral drugs during pregnancy.
D) women exposed to AZT have a greater probability of transmitting the disease to their child.
E) only children of drug abusing mothers are at risk for HIV.

Question 65

Which of the following is an accurate statement concerning CMV?

A) Symptoms are always severe in adults.
B) It is not a serious disease.
C) It is a virus in the herpes group.
D) It cannot be transmitted prenatally.
E) It causes syphilis.

Question 66

Which of the following statements about STDs in pregnant women is accurate?

A) Herpes cannot be transmitted to the fetus during delivery.
B) Gonorrhea can cause the infant to be blind.
C) Syphilis is most harmful during the embryonic stage.
D) CMV does not reach the fetus.
E) All babies of HIV mothers will be HIV positive.

Question 67

Craig has a sex-linked disorder. Which of the following does he have?

A) Huntington's
B) Tay Sachs
C) Schizophrenia
D) Albinism
E) Hemophilia

Question 68

Which of the following mothers is at the greatest risk for having a Down syndrome child?

A) Claudia, who is 18
B) Zoe, who is 25
C) Barb, whose husband works with pesticides
D) Glendora, who is very active in sports
E) Marian, who is 30

Question 69

Janine has Turner's syndrome. She will experience all of the following EXCEPT

A) little, if any, breast development.
B) lack of menstruation.
C) poor spatial ability.
D) below normal verbal skills.
E) stunted growth.

Question 70

Melissa wants to have a baby but she is worried about catching rubella since she was never vaccinated as a child. What should Melissa do?

A) She should not have any children.
B) She should be vaccinated at least two years before becoming pregnant.
C) She should be vaccinated while she is pregnant.
D) She should be vaccinated at least three months before pregnancy.
E) The baby should be vaccinated immediately after birth.

Question 71

All of the following are true of Huntington's disease EXCEPT

A) It is usually not diagnosed until adulthood.
B) It affects psychological and motor functions.
C) There is a blood test to identify it.
D) It is a dominant disorder.
E) Although motor functions fail, the brain is not affected.

Question 72

Which of the following disorders is usually fatal in the first three years of life?

A) PKU
B) cystic fibrosis
C) muscular dystrophy
D) Tay Sachs
E) Huntington's disease

Question 73

In South Africa about ________ of pregnant women are HIV-positive.

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 30%
E) 40%

Question 74

Of the following STD's, which are transmitted during delivery?

A) CMV and HIV
B) herpes, syphilis, and HIV
C) syphilis and gonorrhea
D) CMV, herpes, and gonorrhea
E) HIV and syphilis

Question 75

Which sex-chromosome anomaly is paired with its correct label or characteristics?

A) XXY - Turner's syndrome
B) XYY - unusually tall, with mild retardation
C) XXX - Klinefelter's syndrome
D) XO - male with slow physical development
E) YY - fragile X

Question 76

A disorder that causes mental retardation that becomes progressively worse as children get older and is also strongly associated with autism is known as ________________.

A) Down syndrome.
B) Klinefelter's syndrome.
C) Fragile-X syndrome.
D) Turner's syndrome.
E) Huntington's disease.

Question 77

Which of the following disorders is a sex-linked disorder?

A) Down syndrome
B) Fragile-X syndrome
C) Klinefelter's syndrome
D) Turner's syndrome
E) Tay Sachs

Question 78

Which of the following disorders is also called Trisomy 21?

A) Tay Sachs
B) triple-X syndrome
C) cystic fibrosis
D) hemophilia
E) Down Syndrome

Question 79

Mrs. Robertson is having a prenatal test in which cells are extracted from the placenta. This test is

A) amniocentesis.
B) CVS.
C) fetoscopy.
D) ultrasound.
E) sonography.

Question 80

What is the greatest period of vulnerability for all organ systems?

A) first 2 years of life
B) first 6 months of life
C) last trimester of pregnancy
D) third through seventh weeks of pregnancy
E) first two weeks of pregnancy