Deck 3: Birth and Early Infancy

Question 1

Most infants are delivered

A) feet first, facing toward the mother's spine.
B) feet first, facing forward.
C) head first, facing toward the mother's spine.
D) head first, facing forward.
E) buttocks first, face forward.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Roberta is in the first stage of labor and her contractions are closely spaced and very strong. She is most likely in which phase?

A) active
B) early
C) latent
D) transition
E) middle

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Bonita has just given birth and is in stage 3 of labor in which delivery of the placenta will take place. This is also called

A) afterbirth.
B) dilation.
C) effacement.
D) gestation.
E) implantation.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

The Apgar scoring system is used to evaluate an infant's

A) status immediately after birth and then again five minutes later.
B) weight at birth and at one week after birth.
C) social responses at one day and one week after birth.
D) strength of crying, blood pressure, and birth-weight immediately after birth.
E) readiness to be taken home.

Question 5

All of the following call for a cesarean section EXCEPT

A) breech presentation.
B) fetal distress during delivery.
C) cosmetic concerns of the mother.
D) a fetus too large to be delivered vaginally.
E) aggravation of a maternal health condition.

Question 6

Currently in the United States, about ____ of births take place in hospitals.

A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 85%
D) 90%
E) 99%

Question 7

During the first stage of labor, the cervix flattens out in a process called

A) dilation.
B) effacement.
C) flattening.
D) gestation.
E) compression.

Question 8

The epidural block given during labor and delivery is a form of

A) analgesic.
B) tranquilizer.
C) general anesthesia.
D) sedative.
E) local anesthesia.

Question 9

Based on the research evidence, what would be the correct advice to give a friend if she asked you for information about alternative birthing locations (assuming there are no complications in the pregnancy)?

A) If planned and attended by a midwife, babies born at home or in birthing centers suffer no more complications than babies born in traditional hospital settings.
B) Babies born at home or in birthing centers have a head start in their development and are better off in the long run.
C) Birthing centers should be avoided because they have neither the advantages of home birth nor the safety features of hospitals.
D) Home birth should be avoided because the risk of infection during birth is much higher than for traditional hospital births.
E) The only safe place to give birth is in a hospital.

Question 10

Studies conducted several decades ago confirmed that the presence of fathers during delivery contributes to all of the following EXCEPT

A) fewer requests for medication.
B) less pain for the mother.
C) fewer delivery complications.
D) greater attachment to the infant.
E) shorter labor/delivery times.

Question 11

Lily is about to give birth, and it is a breech presentation. Her doctor is most likely to

A) let the birth proceed naturally.
B) induce labor to speed up the process.
C) use forceps for the delivery.
D) change the baby's position.
E) do a cesarean section.

Question 12

What is the correct order of the three phases in stage 1 of labor?

A) active, latent, transition
B) latent, transition, active
C) latent, active, transition
D) transition, active, latent
E) active, transition, latent

Question 13

What would be the Apgar score for a newborn with a heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute, a strong cry, some flexion, pink body and blue extremities, and no response to stimulation of feet?

A) 4
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
E) 10

Question 14

Margie is having her first baby and is about to go into the second stage of labor. You can tell her that for mothers giving birth for the first time, the second stage of labor typically lasts

A) 10 minutes.
B) 50 minutes.
C) two to three hours.
D) 12 hours.
E) 16 hours.

Question 15

All of the following are true of prepared childbirth EXCEPT

A) someone, often the father, acts as labor coach.
B) the woman and coach attend prepared childbirth classes.
C) the woman is trained to focus on her breathing.
D) natural pain killing drugs are used.
E) relaxation techniques are used to deal with the physical discomfort of contractions.

Question 16

At the turn of the century (1900), what percent of US babies were born in a hospital?

A) 5%
B) 15%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 99%

Question 17

In the third stage of labor, the

A) cervix dilates.
B) cervix undergoes effacement.
C) baby is delivered.
D) placenta is delivered.
E) period of gestation begins.

Question 18

Alegra will be attended by a midwife when she gives birth. Where is the birth most likely to take place?

A) traditional hospital maternity unit
B) hospital-based birth center
C) birthing room
D) freestanding birth center or home
E) birthing pool

Question 19

Billie suffered from anoxia during birth. This means that she

A) was delivered through an abdominal incision.
B) had low birth weight.
C) was sluggish due to drugs administered during labor.
D) had an insufficient supply of oxygen.
E) will definitely have brain damage.

Question 20

Nearly all drugs given during labor for pain relief

A) are not able to pass through the placenta.
B) create unusually long labor.
C) usually precipitate a cesarean birth.
D) may cause the baby to show signs of being under the influence of the drugs.
E) can cause serious complications in both mother and baby.

Question 21

Which of the following would be considered an adaptive reflex?

A) Babinski
B) Moro
C) sucking
D) startle
E) eyeblink

Question 22

Researchers have found that 2/3 to 3/4 of premature infants are no longer distinguishable from their peers of the same chronological age by

A) three years of age.
B) preschool age.
C) the time they go to school.
D) puberty.
E) adolescence.

Question 23

One-month-old Maggie automatically turns her head toward any touch on her cheek. This is called the ________ reflex.

A) sucking
B) rooting
C) swallowing
D) startle
E) eyeblink

Question 24

Dr. Murphy specializes in treating children born below 1500 grams. Most of his patients

A) seem to catch up to normal functioning children within five years of birth.
B) usually die in the first three months of life.
C) will develop either Klinefelter's or Turner's syndrome.
D) will lag behind their peers for many years.
E) will be mentally retarded.

Question 25

All of the following are true about "small-for-date" infants EXCEPT

A) they include all those who are born before 36 weeks of gestation.
B) they have completed the full gestational period for a human infant.
C) they typically have suffered from prenatal malnutrition because of significant problems.
D) they are not labeled "preterm."
E) they have a poorer prognosis than preterm infants of equivalent weight.

Question 26

Belinda's baby has been labeled low birth weight. Belinda can expect that her baby will

A) probably die within one or two days.
B) be irritable and hyperactive.
C) have markedly lower levels of responsiveness.
D) have either cerebral palsy or epilepsy.
E) have few if any problems.

Question 27

Ray and Jane's baby weighs 2300 grams. She is

A) very low birth weight.
B) preterm.
C) low birth weight.
D) small for date.
E) extremely low birth weight.

Question 28

Which of the following is a correct match of birth weight and description?

A) 1800 grams-low birth weight
B) 1600 grams-very low birth weight
C) 1400 grams-extremely low birth weight
D) 3.3 pounds-extremely low birth weight
E) 5.5 pounds-low birth weight

Question 29

On the Apgar test, what is the minimum score that indicates an infant is in no danger?

A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
E) 11

Question 30

Which of the following reflexes is controlled by the medulla and midbrain?

A) swallowing
B) sucking
C) rooting
D) eyeblink
E) Moro

Question 31

Pete and Norma have a low-birth-weight baby and they are concerned about future problems. It would be most realistic to tell them that

A) it is impossible to predict whether or not their child will have problems.
B) their child will suffer from learning disabilities.
C) they should expect physical problems but no cognitive problems.
D) only boys suffer negative affects of low-birth-weight.
E) their child will probably not experience any problems.

Question 32

Scores on the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale

A) provide a quick check of the infant at birth.
B) are indicators of future intelligence.
C) include checks of reflexes, alertness, and cuddliness.
D) can only be obtained with complex equipment.
E) are a measure of verbal skills.

Question 33

Which relatively recent treatment for low-birth-weight infants seems to improve their long term chances for good functioning?

A) high-calorie frequent feedings
B) kangaroo care
C) placement in foster homes
D) longer hospital stays
E) early cognitive training

Question 34

Which of the following reflexes will persist into adulthood?

A) sucking
B) eyeblink
C) swallowing
D) rooting
E) Moro

Question 35

Which of the following low-birth-weight infants has the best chance of long-term good functioning?

A) Laura, who receives skin to skin contact
B) Dexter, who is given a high calorie diet
C) Melinda, who did not go to day care, but was home schooled
D) Juli, who was 1500 grams at birth
E) Jorge, who was three months preterm

Question 36

An infant throws both arms outward and arches her back suddenly in response to a loud noise or other startling event. This is an example of which reflex?

A) Babinski
B) rooting
C) Moro
D) arm-back
E) adaptive

Question 37

The rate of death among very-low-birth-weight infants has been reduced by about 30% because of administration of

A) surfactant.
B) estrogen.
C) oxygen.
D) blood transfusions.
E) anesthetics.

Question 38

Infants are born with a large collection of reflexes which

A) cannot be elicited by stimulation until about one week after birth.
B) are physical responses triggered involuntarily by a specific stimulus.
C) all disappear at about two years of age upon maturation of the nervous system.
D) are behaviors under the voluntary control of the infant.
E) are determined by parental behavior.

Question 39

Mr. and Mrs. Lee's baby has been given a synthetic surfactant. Their baby is suffering from

A) cerebral palsy.
B) respiratory distress syndrome.
C) damage from a c-section.
D) iron deficiency.
E) brain damage.

Question 40

Kelly was born before 38 weeks of gestation. She would, therefore, be labeled

A) small for date.
B) low birth weight.
C) extremely low birth weight.
D) preterm.
E) pregestation.

Question 41

In the majority of cultures in the world, babies sleep

A) in infant nurseries.
B) in the same bed as their parents.
C) apart from their parents until one year of age.
D) only with siblings.
E) in their own bed from birth on.

Question 42

Colette is concerned that her infant falls asleep after eating. You can reassure her that this is normal because the cycle of infant states of consciousness repeats itself about every

A) 60 minutes.
B) 90 minutes.
C) 2 hours.
D) 3 hours.
E) 4 hours.

Question 43

Research on infant crying has shown that

A) initially infants cry most in the evening.
B) newborns spend about 15 to 20 percent of their time crying.
C) crying decreases over the first six weeks of life.
D) newborns cry most of their waking hours.
E) crying is more common in Western cultures.

Question 44

By 6 or 8 weeks of age, most infants show signs of day/night sleep rhythms called

A) primitive reflexes.
B) adaptive reflexes.
C) Babinski rhythms.
D) Brazelton rhythms.
E) circadian rhythms.

Question 45

Development from the head downward is called

A) cephalocaudal.
B) proximodistal.
C) primitive.
D) adaptive.
E) sensorimotor.

Question 46

A new parent is anxious to know when his baby's sleep patterns will be easier to deal with. You can tell him that

A) it is difficult to predict sleep patterns.
B) all infants sleep through the night by 8 weeks of age.
C) signs of day/night rhythms don't appear until six months.
D) by six months, sleep will be more regular and predictable.
E) little is known about infant sleep patterns.

Question 47

When two-week-old Carlos lies in his crib with eyes closed, breathes irregularly, and develops small twitches, he is in a(n) ________ state.

A) active awake
B) active sleep
C) deep sleep
D) quiet awake
E) crying and fussing

Question 48

Which of the following is the MOST accurate statement about colic?

A) It involves intense bouts of crying for more than eight hours daily.
B) It is worse in the early morning hours.
C) It is caused by poor parenting practices.
D) Neither psychologists nor physicians know why it begins.
E) Improper diet causes colic.

Question 49

Mike swings his arms out wide to catch a ball. In a few months, he will use his hands to catch the ball. This is an example of which type of development?

A) cephalocaudal
B) proximodistal
C) primitive
D) adaptive
E) sensorimotor

Question 50

To test whether primitive reflexes are linked to important later behaviors, Zelazo and his colleagues stimulated the walking reflex on 2 to 8 week old babies. What did they find?

A) The infant's leg muscles failed to develop properly.
B) There was no difference in later motor skills.
C) This was not a reflex, but actually precocious walking.
D) Infants walked alone about a month earlier.
E) Early walking motions impaired cognitive skills.

Question 51

What percent of infants develop colic?

A) 80-90 percent
B) 60-70 percent
C) 40-45 percent
D) 20-25 percent
E) 15-20 percent

Question 52

Lester's research on infant crying has shown that

A) all infants' cries are alike.
B) infants with higher-pitched cries had lower IQ scores at five years of age.
C) low-pitched cries are an indication of mental retardation.
D) babies exposed to methadone had cries which were similar to normal babies.
E) babies' cries have no specific meaning.

Question 53

A baby's eyes are open, breathing is regular, and there is no major body movement. What state is this baby in?

A) active awake
B) crying and fussing
C) deep sleep
D) active sleep
E) quiet awake

Question 54

Ken and Anita's daughter is only six weeks old but she already makes step-like motions when held under her arms. This reflex

A) indicates that the baby is exceptionally advanced.
B) indicates that she has brain damage.
C) will disappear at about three years of age.
D) is called the tonic neck reflex.
E) will disappear by about 8 weeks in most infants.

Question 55

Persistence of the primitive reflexes past the normal point

A) is a sign of neurological maturation, indicating that the infant is normal.
B) aids in the development of the infant's social skills.
C) may suggest some neurological damage or dysfunction.
D) indicates that the infant's cerebral cortex is continuing to develop on time.
E) will only occur if reinforced.

Question 56

Laura and Will are new parents living in the United States. Based on studies of cultural beliefs they are more likely to

A) see erratic sleep cycles as a behavior problem that requires fixing.
B) regard sleeping patterns as normal development.
C) believe infants should sleep with parents.
D) allow sleep patterns to emerge without intervention.
E) emphasize contact and interdependence.

Question 57

When the pediatrician strokes one-month-old Ellie on the bottom of her feet, she splays out her toes. This is an instance of which reflex?

A) Babinski
B) rooting
C) stepping
D) arm-back
E) Moro

Question 58

Primitive reflexes disappear sometime during the first year because they are

A) negatively reinforced by parents or other caregivers.
B) superseded by the action of the cortex.
C) usually ignored by adults.
D) not needed until they reappear in adulthood.
E) not practiced enough.

Question 59

Three-month-old Willie is crying, and his cry is loud and intense. Willie is most likely

A) angry.
B) in pain.
C) hungry.
D) feeling distress.
E) just spoiled.

Question 60

Katie is a new mother and wants to know the best way to deal with her crying infant. Her doctor will tell her that

A) it is best to just ignore the crying.
B) giving more attention will lead to more crying.
C) crying is a sign of a spoiled brat.
D) she should always feed her infant when s/he cries.
E) she should hold and talk to her infant.

Question 61

The fact that babies can be classically conditioned means that

A) their behavior can be shaped through the use of positive or negative reinforcement.
B) the presence of their mother or father may trigger the sense of "feeling good."
C) muscular growth and coordination can be accelerated through exercise.
D) language development can be enhanced by exposure to harmonic music sequences.
E) parents must be careful to avoid its use.

Question 62

A rudimentary capacity to habituate and dishabituate

A) first appears at one year.
B) does not occur until age 5.
C) is a function of early experience.
D) depends on classical conditioning.
E) is built in at birth.

Question 63

Research has shown that a newborn can

A) taste sweet and salty, but not sour or bitter.
B) clearly see objects up to eight feet away.
C) recognize objects better than people.
D) discriminate his/her mother's voice from other voices.
E) efficiently track a moving object.

Question 64

Rovee-Collier has suggested that a baby can turn his head at the sound of his mother's voice in expectation of her appearance. This is an example of

A) classical conditioning.
B) operant conditioning.
C) schematic learning.
D) expectancy learning.
E) social learning.

Question 65

Which type of infant has less predictable sleeping and eating cycles, and reacts vigorously and negatively to new things?

A) difficult
B) slow-to-warm-up
C) insecure/avoidant
D) easy
E) active

Question 66

Roberto has dishabituated. This indicates that he

A) notices some significant change in the environment.
B) has been classically conditioned.
C) is delayed in brain development.
D) is suffering from sensory deprivation.
E) is no longer reinforced for habituating.

Question 67

On vacation, Anita ate Mexican food for the first time and easily adjusted to a new schedule and sleeping arrangements. Thomas and Chess would classify Anita as

A) active.
B) difficult.
C) easy.
D) slow-to-warm-up.
E) passive.

Question 68

The newborn's perceptual skills are

A) well-adapted for the interactions s/he will have with people in his world.
B) a great deal less developed than most parents believe.
C) not developed enough to discriminate between the mother and other people.
D) limited to feeling (touch), seeing, tasting, and smelling.
E) far more accurate than a preschooler's.

Question 69

The automatic reduction in the strength or vigor of a response to a repeated stimulus is called

A) contingent reinforcement.
B) shaping.
C) habituation.
D) operant conditioning.
E) classical conditioning.

Question 70

If you want your newborn to get the clearest image of your face, you should hold him approximately ________ inches away.

A) 2 to 4
B) 8 to 10
C) 16 to 18
D) 24 to 26
E) 30 to 36

Question 71

A newborn baby's perceptual skills include all of the following EXCEPT

A) focusing both eyes on the same spot.
B) hearing sounds within the pitch of the human voice.
C) tasting sweet, sour, bitter, and salty.
D) discriminating his mother's smell from another woman's.
E) efficiently follow a moving object with his eyes.

Question 72

Which of the following is the MOST accurate statement of the developmental pattern of habituation?

A) The newborn cannot habituate for the first five months.
B) The ability to habituate improves slowly over the first 10 years of life.
C) A rudimentary capacity to habituate and dishabituate is present at birth.
D) Most babies require at least a year to acquire this skill.
E) There are distinct gender differences in habituation.

Question 73

Babies vary in the way they react to new things, in their typical moods, in their rate of activity, in the regularity of their daily rhythms, etc. These variations usually go by the name of

A) temperament.
B) states.
C) habituation.
D) instincts.
E) conditioning.

Question 74

Which of the following children is experiencing habituation?

A) Billy is reinforced for using the toilet by his mother's praise.
B) Sara stops reacting to a clock's chimes after hearing them for a few weeks.
C) Sam fears the rain because he associates it with lightning.
D) Carlos reacts strongly to new sounds.
E) Reesa stops hitting her brother after she is punished.

Question 75

Whose theory would support the idea that from the beginning, the baby organizes his/her experiences into expectancies or schemas?

A) Piaget
B) Freud
C) Skinner
D) Watson
E) Erikson

Question 76

Which theorists described easy, difficult, and slow-to-warm-up children?

A) Buss and Plomin
B) Freud and Erikson
C) Thomas and Chess
D) Skinner and Bandura
E) Piaget and Vygotsky

Question 77

Infants' motor skills are repetitive, and these repeated patterns become particularly prominent at what age?

A) 6 or 7 months
B) 12 months
C) 18-20 months
D) 24 months
E) 36 months.

Question 78

The first time a newborn baby hears the dog bark, he or she will show at least a mild "startle" response. But if the dog keeps on barking, the baby will gradually stop reacting. This illustrates what process?

A) habituation
B) maturation
C) classical conditioning
D) operant conditioning
E) schematic processing

Question 79

Classical conditioning of infants first occurs easily

A) at birth.
B) by 3 or 4 weeks of age.
C) by 2 months of age.
D) only after 3 months of age.
E) only after 6 months of age.

Question 80

Operant conditioning studies have shown that the neurological wiring needed for learning to occur

A) only develops as a result of classical conditioning.
B) is present at birth.
C) is located in the brain stem.
D) does not become functional for six months after birth.
E) is developed by use of reinforcements.