Deck 9: How Genes and Genomes Evolve

Question 1

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)The human genome is more similar to the orangutan genome than it is to the mouse genome.
B)A comparison of genomes shows that 90% of the human genome shares regions of conserved synteny with the mouse genome.
C)Primates, dogs, mice, and chickens all have about the same number of genes.
D)Genes that code for ribosomal RNA share significant similarity in all eukaryotes but are much more difficult to recognize in archaea.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)The position of introns in most genes is conserved among vertebrates.
B)The more nucleotides there are in an organism's genome, the more genes there will be in its genome.
C)Because the fly Drosophila melanogaster and humans diverged from a common ancestor so long ago, any two fly genes will show more similarity to each other than it will to a human gene.
D)Two closely related organisms are more likely to have a genome of the same size than a more evolutionarily diverged animal.

Answer 2

A
A constitutively active phospholipase C will lead to the constitutive production of IP₃ and diacylglycerol, leading to activation of PKC in a signal-independent manner; thus, Rafty activation and the lipid modification will be signal-independent.A mutation in the GPCR that bind the signal more tightly and a Ca²⁺ channel with an increased affinity for IP will increase activity of the signal transduction pathway in a signal-dependent manner.A mutation that renders Rafty such that it can no longer by phosphorylated by PKC will prevent PKC from activating Rafty and will thus prevent the lipid modifications.

Question 3

You are interested in finding out how the budding yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is so good for making bread and have collected five new related species from the wild.You sequence the genomes of all of these new species and also consult with a fungal biologist to help you construct the phylogenetic tree shown in Figure 9-19.You find that species V, W, and X make pretty good bread whereas species Y and Z do not, suggesting that the last common ancestor of species X and S.cerevisiae may have the genes necessary for making good bread.You compare the gene sequences of species X and S.cerevisiae and find many identical coding sequences, but you also identify nucleotides that differ between the two species.Which species would be the best to examine to determine what the sequence was in the last common ancestor of species X and S.cerevisiae? Figure 9-19

A)species V
B)species W
C)species Y
D)species Z

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Given the evolutionary relationship between higher primates shown in Figure 9-18, which of the following statements is FALSE? Figure 9-18

A)The last common ancestor of humans, chimpanzees, gorillas, and orangutans lived about 15 million years ago.
B)Chimpanzees are more closely related to gorillas than to humans.
C)Humans and chimpanzees diverged about 6 million years ago.
D)Orangutans are the most divergent of the four species shown in Figure 9-18.

Question 5

You isolate a pathogenic strain of E.coli from a patient and discover that this E.coli strain is resistant to an antibiotic.Common laboratory strains of E.coli are not resistant to this antibiotic, nor are any other previously isolated pathogenic E.coli strains.However, such resistance has been observed in other bacteria in the hospital in which the patient was treated.This newly discovered antibiotic resistance in E.coli is most likely due to

A)a mutation within a gene.
B)a mutation within the regulatory DNA of a gene.
C)gene duplication.
D)horizontal gene transfer.

Question 6

Your friend works in a lab that is studying why a particular mutant strain of Drosophila grows an eye on its wing.Your friend discovers that this mutant strain of Drosophila is expressing a transcription factor incorrectly.In the mutant Drosophila, this transcription factor, which is normally expressed in the primordial eye tissue, is now misexpressed in the primordial wing tissue, thus turning on transcription of the set of genes required to produce an eye in the wing primordial tissue.If this hypothesis is true, which of the following types of genetic change would most likely lead to this situation?

A)A mutation within the transcription factor gene that leads to a premature stop codon after the third amino acid.
B)A mutation within the transcription factor gene that leads to a substitution of a positively charged amino acid for a negatively charged amino acid.
C)A mutation within an upstream enhancer of the gene.
D)A mutation in the TATA box of the gene.

Question 7

Which of the following changes is least likely to arise from a point mutation in a regulatory region of a gene?

A)A mutation that changes the time in an organism's life during which a protein is expressed.
B)A mutation that eliminates the production of a protein in a specific cell type.
C)A mutation that changes the subcellular localization of a protein.
D)A mutation that increases the level of protein production in a cell.

Question 8

You discover that the underlying cause of a disease is a protein that is now less stable than the non-disease-causing version of the protein.This change is most likely to be due to

A)a mutation within a gene.
B)a mutation within the regulatory DNA of a gene.
C)gene duplication.
D)horizontal gene transfer.

Question 9

Which of the following is the least likely to be a selectively neutral mutation? (The codon table in Figure 9-14 will help you answer this question.) $\text { The Genetic Code }$
$\begin{array}{|l|l|l|l|l|}\hline & \text { U } & \text { C } & \text { A } & \text { G } \\\hline &\text { UUU Phe (F) } & \text { UCU Ser (S) } & \text { UAU Tyr (Y) } & \text { UGU Cys (C) } \\&\text { UUC - } & \text { UCC - } & \text { UAC - } & \text { UGC - } \\ \text { U } &\text { UUA Leu (L) } & \text { UCA -- } & \text { UAA Stop } & \text { UGA Stop } \\&\text { UUG - } & \text { UCG - } & \text { UAG Stop } & \text { UGG Trp (W) } \\\hline &\text { CUU Leu (L) } & \text { CCU Pro (P) } & \text { CAU His (H) } & \text { CGU Arg (R) } \\&\text { CUC - } & \text { CCC - } & \text { CAC - } & \text { CGC - } \\ \text { C}&\text { CUA - } & \text { CCA - } & \text { CAA Gin (Q) } & \text { CGA - } \\&\text { CUG }- & \text { CCG }- & \text { CAG }- & \text { CGG }- \\\hline &\text { AUU Ile (I) } & \text { ACU Thr (T) } & \text { AAU Asn (N) } & \text { AGU Ser (S) } \\&\text { AUC - } & \text { ACC - } & \text { AAC - } & \text { AGC - } \\ \text { A}&\text { AUA - } & \text { ACA - } & \text { AAA Lys (K) } & \text { AGA Arg (R) } \\&\text { AUG Met (M) } & \text { ACG - } & \text { AAG - } & \text { AGG - } \\\hline &\text { GUU Val (V) } & \text { GCU Ala (A) } & \text { GAU Asp (D) } & \text { GGU Gly (G) } \\&\text { GUC - } & \text { GCC - } & \text { GAC - } & \text { GGC - } \\ \text { G}&\text { GUA - } & \text { GCA - } & \text { GAA Glu (E) } & \text { GGA - } \\&\text { GUG - } & \text { GCG - } & \text { GAG - } & \text { GGG - } \\\hline\end{array}$ Table 9-14

A)A mutation that deletes 50% of a pseudogene.
B)A mutation that changes the CCC codon to the CCT codon in a protein-coding gene.
C)A mutation that changes the TCC codon to the AGT codon in a protein-coding gene.
D)A mutation that changes the TAT codon to the TAG codon in a protein-coding gene.

Question 10

Which of the following statements about gene families is FALSE?

A)Because gene duplication can occur when crossover events occur, genes are always duplicated onto homologous chromosomes.
B)Not all duplicated genes will become functional members of gene families.
C)Whole-genome duplication can contribute to the formation of gene families.
D)Duplicated genes can diverge in both their regulatory regions and their coding regions.

Question 11

Which of the following situations would facilitate the process of exon shuffling?

A)shorter introns
B)a haploid genome
C)exons that code for more than one protein domain
D)introns that contain regions of similarity to one another

Question 12

Which of the following statements about homologous genes is TRUE?

A)For protein-coding genes, homologous genes will show more similarity in their amino acid sequences than in their nucleotide sequences.
B)Fewer than 1% of human genes have homologs in the nematode and the fruit fly.
C)Most homologous genes arose by gene duplication.
D)A gene in humans that has homologs in plants and prokaryotes will show the same level of similarity in nucleotide sequence when the human and prokaryotic sequences are compared as when the human and chimpanzee sequences are compared.

Question 13

What is the most likely explanation of why the overall mutation rates in bacteria and in humans are roughly similar?

A)Cell division needs to be fast.
B)Most mutations are silent.
C)There is a narrow range of mutation rates that offers an optimal balance between keeping the genome stable and generating sufficient diversity in a population.
D)It benefits a multicellular organism to have some variability among its cells.

Question 14

Figure 9-12 shows the evolutionary history of the globin gene family members. Figure 9-12
Given this information, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)The ancestral globin gene arose 500 million years ago.
B)The α-globin gene is more closely related to the ε-globin gene than to the δ-globin gene.
C)The nucleotide sequences of the two γ-globins will be most similar because they are the closest together on the chromosome.
D)The fetal β-globins arose from a gene duplication that occurred 200 million years ago, which gave rise to a β-globin expressed in the fetus and a β-globin expressed in the adult.

Question 15

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)A mutation that arises in a mother's somatic cell often causes a disease in her daughter.
B)All mutations in an asexually reproducing single-celled organism are passed on to the progeny.
C)In an evolutionary sense, somatic cells exist only to help propagate germ-line cells.
D)A mutation is passed on to offspring only if it is present in the germ line.

Question 16

Figure 9-7 shows an experiment used to determine the spontaneous mutation rate in E.coli.If the spontaneous mutation rate in E.coli is 1 mistake in every 10⁹ nucleotides copied, about how many colonies would you expect to see on the plates lacking histidine if you were to assay 10¹¹ cells from the culture for their ability to form colonies? Figure 9-7

A)1
B)2
C)10
D)100

Question 17

Figure 9-17 shows the nucleotide sequence from a protein-coding region of a gene in humans, chimpanzees, and gorillas and the protein sequence produced from this gene.The seventeen amino acids encoded by this DNA are numbered below.The two codons that are not conserved in all three species have been boxed.These two codons code for amino acids 3 and 15. Figure 9-17
Which of these statements is consistent with these sequence-comparison data?

A)The gorilla sequence is more similar to the chimp sequence than to the human sequence.
B)Since these sequences are so similar, this protein must also be found in invertebrates.
C)The chimp DNA sequence has likely diverged at the DNA coding for amino acid 15 from the sequence found in the last common ancestor of humans and chimps.
D)The last common ancestor of chimps and gorillas most likely used AAA to code for amino acid number 3.

Question 18

Two individuals are represented in Figure 9-6; individual 1 is one of the parents of individual 2.The asterisk indicates the occurrence of a single mutation. Figure 9-6
What is the chance that individual 2 will inherit the mutation in individual 1?

A)100%
B)50%
C)1 in 100,000
D)none

Question 19

Which of the following statements about pseudogenes is FALSE?

A)All pseudogenes code for microRNAs.
B)Pseudogenes share significant nucleotide similarity with functional genes.
C)Pseudogenes are no longer expressed as a protein product.
D)There are approximately 11,000 pseudogenes in the human genome.

Question 20

Which of the following statements about the globin gene family is TRUE?

A)The globin protein, which can carry oxygen molecules throughout an organism's body, was first seen in ancient vertebrate species about 500 million years ago.
B)The gene duplication that led to the expansion of the globin gene family led to the separation and distribution of globin on many chromosomes in mammals, such that no chromosome has more than a single functional member of the globin gene family.
C)As globin gene family members diverged over the course of evolution, all the DNA sequence variations that have accumulated between family members are within the regulatory DNA sequences that affect when and how strongly each globin gene is expressed.
D)Some of the duplicated globin genes that arose during vertebrate evolution acquired inactivating mutations and became pseudogenes in modern vertebrates.

Question 21

Which of the following is true of a retrovirus, but NOT of the Alu retrotransposon?

A)It requires cellular enzymes to make copies.
B)It can be inserted into the genome.
C)It can be excised and moved to a new location in the genome.
D)It encodes its own reverse transcriptase.

Question 22

HIV is a human retrovirus that integrates into the host cell's genome and will eventually replicate, produce viral proteins, and ultimately escape from the host cell.Which of the following proteins is not encoded in the HIV genome?

A)reverse transcriptase
B)envelope protein
C)RNA polymerase
D)capsid protein

Question 23

The pufferfish, Fugu rubripes, has a genome that is one-tenth the size of mammalian genomes.Which of the following statements is NOT a possible reason for this size difference?

A)Intron sequences in Fugu are shorter than those in mammals.
B)Fugu lacks the repetitive DNA found in mammals.
C)The Fugu genome seems to have lost sequences faster than it has gained sequences over evolutionary time.
D)Fugu has lost many genes that are part of gene families.

Question 24

Which of the following processes is NOT thought to contribute to the diversity in the genome seen between any two human individuals?

A)exon shuffling
B)single-nucleotide polymorphisms
C)new mutations seen at birth that are not present in the genomes of either parent
D)duplication and deletion of large blocks of sequence

Question 25

Which of the following generalities about genomes is TRUE?

A)All vertebrate genomes contain roughly the same number of genes.
B)All unicellular organisms contain roughly the same number of genes.
C)The larger an organism, the more genes it has.
D)The more types of cell an organism has, the more genes it has.

Question 26

A finished draft of the human genome was published in

A)1965.
B)1984.
C)2004.
D)2018.

Question 27

Which of the following functions do you NOT expect to find in the set of genes found in all organisms on Earth?

A)DNA replication
B)DNA repair
C)protein production
D)RNA splicing

Question 28

Which of the following statements about mobile genetic elements is TRUE?

A)Mobile genetic elements can sometimes rearrange the DNA sequences of the genome in which they are embedded by accidentally excising neighboring chromosomal regions and reinserting these sequences into different places within the genome.
B)DNA-only transposons do not code for proteins but instead rely on transposases found in cells that are infected by viruses.
C)The two major families of transposable sequences found in the human genome are DNA-only transposons that move by replicative transposition.
D)During replicative transposition, the donor DNA will no longer have the mobile genetic element embedded in its sequence when transposition is complete.

Question 29

The yeast genome was sequenced more than 20 years ago, yet the total number of genes continues to be refined.The sequencing of closely related yeast species was important for validating the identity of short (less than 100 nucleotides long) open reading frames (ORFs) that were otherwise difficult to predict.What is the main reason that these short ORFs are Difficult to find without the genomes of other yeast for comparison?

A)Short ORFs are found only in yeast.
B)The short ORFs code for RNAs.
C)Many short stretches of DNA may lack a stop codon simply by chance, making it difficult to distinguish those DNA sequences that code for proteins from those that do not.
D)Short ORFs occur mainly in gene-rich regions, making them difficult to identify by computer programs.

Question 30

Which of the following statements about what we have learned by comparing the modern-day human genome to other genomes is TRUE?

A)Modern humans whose ancestors come from Europe or Asia share up to 2% of their genome with Neanderthals.
B)Many of the 3 million genetic differences between the genome of two humans are the result of new mutations that have arisen within the last 2000 years.
C)The human genome is far more gene-dense than the yeast genome.
D)In syntenic regions of the human and mouse genomes, both gene order and the placements of more than 95% of the mobile genetic elements are conserved.

Question 31

The nucleotide sequences between individuals differ by 0.1%, yet the human genome is made up of about 3 × 10⁹ nucleotide pairs.Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)In most human cells, the homologous autosomes differ from each other by 0.1%.
B)All changes between human individuals are single-nucleotide polymorphisms.
C)Any two individuals (other than identical twins) will generally have more than 3 million genetic differences in their genomes.
D)Much of the variation between human individuals was present 200,000 years ago, when the human population was small.

Question 32

Viral genomes

A)can be made of DNA.
B)can be made of RNA.
C)can be either double-stranded or single-stranded.
D)All of these answers are true.

Question 33

The evolutionary relationships between seven different species-G, H, J, K, L, M, and N-are diagrammed in Figure 9-25. Figure 9-25
Given this information, which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)These are all highly related species, because the sequence divergence between the most divergent species is 3%.
B)Species M is as closely related to species G as it is to species J.
C)Species N is more closely related to the last common ancestor of all of these species than to any of the other species shown in the diagram.
D)Species G and H are as closely related to each other as species J and K are to each other.

Question 34

Viruses reproduce inside a host cell because

A)viruses package DNA from the host-cell genome into the virus particle.
B)viruses need host-cell reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA into DNA.
C)viruses use host-cell ribosomes to produce viral coat proteins.
D)all viruses must insert their genomes into the host-cell genome in order to be replicated.

Question 35

Which of the following regions of the genome is the LEAST likely to be conserved over evolutionary time?

A)the upstream regulatory region of a gene that encodes the region conferring tissue specificity
B)the upstream regulatory region of a gene that binds to RNA polymerase
C)the portion of the genome that codes for proteins
D)the portion of the genome that codes for RNAs that are not translated into protein

Question 36

Which of the following DNA sequences is NOT commonly carried on a DNA-only transposon?

A)transposase gene
B)reverse transcriptase gene
C)recognition site for transposase
D)antibiotic-resistance gene

Question 37

In humans and in chimpanzees, 99% of the Alu retrotransposons are in corresponding positions.Which of the following statements below is the most likely explanation for this similarity?

A)The Alu retrotransposon is not capable of transposition in humans.
B)Most of the Alu sequences in the chimpanzee genome underwent duplication and divergence before humans and chimpanzees diverged.
C)The Alu retrotransposons are in the most beneficial position in the genome for primates.
D)The Alu retrotransposons must also be in the same position in flies.

Question 38

Which of the following statements about the human genome is FALSE?

A)About 50% of the human genome is made up of mobile genetic elements.
B)More of the human genome comprises intron sequences than exon sequences.
C)About 1.5% of the human genome codes for exons.
D)Only the exons are conserved between the genomes of humans and other mammals.

Question 39

Which of the following statements about retroviruses is FALSE?

A)Retroviruses are packaged with a few molecules of reverse transcriptase in each virus particle.
B)Retroviruses use the host-genome integrase enzyme to create the provirus.
C)The production of viral RNAs can occur long after the initial infection of the host cell by the retrovirus.
D)Viral RNAs are translated by host-cell ribosomes to produce the proteins required for the production of viral particles.

Question 40

An SNP found in the conserved sequence of the regulatory region of a gene is likely to

A)affect protein folding.
B)affect when and where the gene is expressed.
C)be a new mutation.
D)be found in plants as well as humans.

Question 41

The human genome has 3.2 × 10⁹ nucleotide pairs.At its peak, the Human Genome Project was generating raw nucleotide sequences at a rate of 1000 nucleotides per second.At the rate of 1000 nucleotides per second, how long would it take to generate 3.2 × 10⁹ nucleotides of sequence?

Question 43

Some retrotransposons and retroviruses integrate preferentially into regions of the chromosome that are packaged in euchromatin and are also located outside the coding regions of genes that contain information for making a protein.Why might these mobile genetic elements have evolved this strategy?

Question 45

Some types of gene are more highly conserved than others.For each of the following pairs of gene functions, choose the one that is more likely to be highly conserved.
A.genes involved in sexual reproduction; genes involved in sugar metabolism
B.DNA replication; developmental pathways
C.hormone production; lipid synthesis

Question 46

There are about 700 eukaryotic genes that have obvious prokaryotic homologs.Would you predict that this set of genes would be enriched for genes that are used at distinct times during the life cycle of multicellular animals? Explain your answer.

Question 47

Figure 9-52 shows a hypothetical phylogenetic tree.Use this tree to answer the following questions.
Figure 9-52
A.How many years ago did species M and N diverge from their last common ancestor?
B.How much nucleotide divergence is there on average between species M and N?
C.Are species M and N more or less closely related to each other than species P and S are?
D.In looking for functionally important nucleotide sequences, is it more informative to compare the genome sequences of species M and N or those of species M and Q?

Question 48

A.When a mutation arises, it can have three possible consequences: beneficial to the individual, selectively neutral, or detrimental.Order these from most likely to least likely.
B.The spread of a mutation in subsequent generations will, of course, depend on its consequences to individuals that inherit it.Order the three possibilities in part A to indicate which is most likely to spread and become overrepresented in subsequent generations, and which is most likely to become underrepresented or disappear from the population.

Question 50

For each of the following sentences, fill in the blanks with the best word or phrase in the list below.Not all words or phrases will be used; use each word or phrase only once.
divergence purifying selection
exon shuffling single-nucleotide polymorphisms
gene duplication synteny
horizontal gene transfer unequal crossing-over
__________ may arise by recombination within introns and can create proteins with novel combinations of domains.Scientists and government regulators must be very careful when introducing herbicide-resistant transgenic corn plants into the environment, because if resistant weeds arise from __________, then the herbicides could become useless.Families of related genes can arise from a single ancestral copy by __________ and subsequent __________.

Question 51

For each of the following sentences, fill in the blanks with the best word or phrase in the list below.Not all words or phrases will be used; use each word or phrase only once.
cellulose intron
common neutral
deleterious somatic
gamete unequal
homologous zygote
Sexual reproduction in a multicellular organism involves specialized reproductive cells, called __________s, which come together to form a __________ that will divide to produce both reproductive and __________ cells.A point mutation in the DNA is considered a __________ mutation if it changes a nucleotide that leads to no phenotypic consequence; a point mutation is considered __________ if it changes a nucleotide within a gene and causes the protein to be nonfunctional.

Question 52

Consider a gene with a particular function.Mutation X and mutation Y each cause defects in the function of the encoded protein, yet a gene containing both mutations X and Y encodes a protein that works even better than the original protein.The odds are exceedingly small that a single mutational event will generate both mutations X and Y.Explain a simple way that an organism with a mutant gene containing both mutations X and Y could arise during evolution.

Question 53

You are working in a human genetics laboratory that studies causes and treatments for eye cataracts in newborns.This disease is thought to be caused by a deficiency in the enzyme galactokinase, but the human gene that encodes this enzyme has not yet been identified.At a talk by a visiting scientist, you learn about a strain of baker's yeast that contains a mutation called gal1^- in its galactokinase gene.Because this gene is needed to metabolize galactose, the mutant strain cannot grow in galactose medium.Knowing that all living things evolved from a common ancestor and that distantly related organisms often have homologous genes that perform similar functions, you wonder whether the human galactokinase gene can function in yeast.Because you have an optimistic temperament, you decide to pursue this line of experimentation.You isolate mRNA gene transcripts from human cells, use reverse transcriptase to make complementary DNA (cDNA) copies of the mRNA molecules, and ligate the cDNAs into circular plasmid DNA molecules that can be stably propagated in yeast cells.You then transform the pool of plasmids into gal1^- yeast cells so that each cell receives a single plasmid.What will happen when you spread the plasmid-containing cells on Petri dishes that contain galactose as a carbon source? How can this approach help you find the human gene encoding galactokinase?

Question 54

Transposable elements litter the genomes of primates, and a few of them are still capable of moving to new regions of the genome.If a transposable element jumped into an important gene in one of your cells when you were a baby and caused a disease, is it likely that your child would also have the disease? Explain.

Question 55

The average size of a protein in a human cell is about 430 amino acids, yet the average gene in the human genome is 27,000 nucleotide pairs long.Explain.

Question 56

Propose a reason to explain why highly repetitive regions of the genome are particularly susceptible to expansions and contractions in number.

Question 57

The genomes of some vertebrates are much smaller than those of others.For example, the genome of the pufferfish Fugu is much smaller than the human genome, and even much smaller than genomes of other fish, primarily because of the small size of its introns.
A.Describe a mechanism that might drive evolution toward small introns or loss of introns and could therefore account for the evolutionary loss of introns according to the "introns early" hypothesis.
B.Describe a mechanism that might drive evolution toward more or larger introns and could thereby account for the evolutionary appearance of introns according to the "introns late" hypothesis.

Question 58

For each of the following sentences, fill in the blanks with the best word or phrase selected from the list below.Not all words or phrases will be used; each word or phrase should be used only once.
0.5 1.5 3
4 9 23
30 50 75
The human genome has ~3 × 10__________ nucleotide pairs that make up the sequence of __________ sets of chromosomes.We estimate that this sequence encodes approximately 1.9 × 10 __________ protein-coding genes and about 5 × 10__________ non-protein-coding genes, which include structural catalytic, and regulatory RNAs.Approximately __________% of the human genome is made up of high-copy repetitive elements, while the percentage of DNA sequence in protein-coding exons is __________%.

Question 59

The spontaneous mutation rate in E.coli was determined to be 1 mistake for every 10⁹ nucleotides copied.This was determined by measuring the frequency of a particular AT-to-GC change.This was accomplished using a strain of E.coli that started out unable to produce histidine (His^-) because of an inserted UGA stop codon that disrupted the region coding for an enzyme required to produce histidine.When a spontaneous mutation arose that enabled the UGA stop codon to code for tryptophan, the E.coli cells were then able to produce the enzyme required for histidine production.
You discover that if the stop codon were to change to code for cysteine (instead of tryptophan), this change would also allow the bacteria to produce histidine.How would the previously calculated spontaneous mutation rate of 1 mistake every 10⁹ nucleotides copied change, given this new information? Explain.(The codon table is shown in Figure 9-48 to help you answer this question.)
Figure 9-48

Question 60

Which of the following would NOT be useful when finding genes in a newly sequenced mammalian genome?

A)searching for splicing sequences that signal an intron-exon boundary
B)searching for sequences that code for proteins similar to those found in fruit flies
C)matching sequences obtained from RNA-Seq back to the genome
D)searching for long stretches of DNA sequence conservation with intron sequences from zebrafish