Deck 2: Biological Beginnings

Question 1

Which of the following statements describes the main idea of David Buss' theory?

A) It is not useful to compare human social behavior with social behavior in other species.
B) Evolutionary processes can influence behavior as well as physical features.
C) Behavior is determined by the environmental consequences it brings about.
D) Development proceeds in a series of stages.

Answer 1

Evolutionary processes can influence behavior as well as physical features.

Question 2

In a human body, all cells except the sperm and egg reproduce by a process called

A) meiosis.
B) mitosis.
C) fertilization.
D) zygote.

Answer 2

mitosis.

Question 3

Which of the following explanations do developmental evolutionary psychologists favor for an extended childhood period in human development?

A) During this time, a human's immune system reaches its full potential.
B) A long childhood period is a "left over" adaptation from the time when the human life span was considerably shorter than it is today.
C) Rebellion against authority is a necessary step in the evolutionary development of independent behavior.
D) During this time, humans develop a large brain and gain experience required to master the complexities of human society.

Answer 3

During this time, humans develop a large brain and gain experience required to master the complexities of human society.

Question 4

According to Baltes, older adults have an increased

A) generativity.
B) need for culture-based resources.
C) benefits of evolutionary selection.
D) developmental plasticity.

Question 5

Natural selection favors individuals of a species that are best able to _____ and _____.

A) survive; reproduce
B) find food; hide
C) survive change; adapt
D) change; adapt

Question 6

Which of the following statements BEST explains the nature of genetic expression?

A) A single gene is the source of a single protein's genetic information.
B) Events outside of a cell cannot excite or inhibit genetic expression.
C) Only internal events inside a cell can influence genetic expression.
D) The activity of genes is affected by the internal and external factors.

Question 7

Which of the following has 23 unpaired chromosomes?

A) zygotes
B) the sperm and egg
C) mitosis
D) chromosome

Question 8

Fertilization results in the formation of a(n)

A) egg.
B) zygote.
C) gamete.
D) sperm.

Question 9

How many chromosomes does an egg or a sperm have?

A) 46
B) 24
C) 23
D) 48

Question 10

A bidirectional view of evolutionism suggests that

A) social behavior is a product of evolved biology.
B) evolved biology is a product of social behavior.
C) environmental and biological conditions influence each other.
D) evolution dictates social behavior.

Question 11

What did researchers working on the Human Genome project accomplish?

A) They estimated how many genes humans have.
B) They determined that many genes are collaborative.
C) They found that the number of human proteins is higher than the number of human genes.
D) All of these answers are correct.

Question 12

Baltes holds that natural selection operates

A) primarily during the first half of life.
B) primarily during late adulthood.
C) through the end of the adolescent period.
D) through the end of late childhood.

Question 13

_____ is a specialized form of cell division that occurs to form eggs and sperm.

A) Meiosis
B) Mitosis
C) Reproduction
D) Fertilization

Question 14

Approximately how many genes does a typical human have according to the latest research?

A) more than 100,000
B) 50,000-75,000
C) 35,000-40,000
D) around 20,000

Question 15

Some species are better adapted to their environment in a way that helps them survive and reproduce, while other species do not adapt well and die. This process is called

A) canalization.
B) sociobiology.
C) natural selection.
D) genetic inheritance.

Question 16

Natural selection operates primarily on characteristics that are tied to

A) group social interaction.
B) psychological wellness.
C) reproductive fitness.
D) developmental plasticity.

Question 17

In his book The Dependent Gene, David Moore reports that

A) genes are collaborative.
B) genes act independently.
C) genes have a one-to-one correspondence with proteins.
D) the expression of genes is not affected by environmental conditions.

Question 18

Which of the following statements is NOT an idea held by evolutionary developmental psychologists?

A) Evolved characteristics are not always adaptive in contemporary society.
B) Some evolved characteristics could be the cause of problems in contemporary society.
C) All evolved mechanisms are adaptive in contemporary society.
D) An extended childhood period may be the result of evolution.

Question 19

Which of the following is a double-helix-shaped molecule that contains genetic information?

A) chromosome
B) genotype
C) DNA
D) gene

Question 20

Evolutionary psychology holds that

A) natural selection does not ring true for personality characteristics.
B) natural selection favors certain behaviors that increase reproductive success.
C) biological evolution explains why humans live well beyond child-bearing years.
D) only physical development is stage-like in process.

Question 21

Which of the following characteristics is likely to be exhibited in boys with fragile X syndrome?

A) a flattened skull
B) aggression and violence
C) hyperactivity
D) mental deficiency

Question 22

Angela describes her friend as tall and slender with blue eyes and red hair. She is describing her friend's

A) genotype.
B) phenotype.
C) dominant genes.
D) recessive genes.

Question 23

Dr. Santos designs studies to examine the influence of heredity and environment on individual differences in human traits and development. Her field of study is in

A) behavior genetics.
B) evolutionary genetics.
C) evolutionary psychology.
D) developmental genetics.

Question 24

Behavior genetics is the field of study that seeks to discover how individual differences in human traits and development are influenced by

A) environment.
B) heredity.
C) heredity and environment.
D) behavior.

Question 25

Conditions like phenylketonuria and sickle cell anemia are produced by _____ abnormalities.

A) chromosome
B) sex-linked chromosome
C) both sex-linked chromosome and gene-linked
D) gene-linked

Question 26

_____ is a genetic disorder that can be controlled by diet.

A) Down syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Sickle-cell anemia
D) Phenylketonuria (PKU)

Question 27

_____ syndrome causes males to have undeveloped testes, enlarged breasts, and tallness. Boys with this chromosomal disorder often have language, academic, attentional, and motor impairments.

A) Down
B) Klinefelter
C) Turner
D) Fragile X

Question 28

Which of the following genetic disorders occurs most often in African Americans?

A) Down syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) sickle-cell anemia
D) phenylketonuria (PKU)

Question 29

Behavior genetics mostly uses which of the following research methods?

A) twin studies
B) adoption studies
C) both twin studies and adoption studies
D) neither twin studies nor adoption studies

Question 30

People who have hemophilia or fragile-X syndrome are

A) equally distributed among females and males.
B) mostly females.
C) mostly males.
D) those who have mutated genes carried on the Y chromosome.

Question 31

All of a person's genetic material makes up the _____, whereas the _____ consists of only observable characteristics.

A) phenotype; genotype
B) genotype; phenotype
C) dominant genes; recessive genes
D) recessive genes; dominant genes

Question 32

Both _____ are genetic disorders caused by the presence of an extra chromosome.

A) Down syndrome and Turner syndrome
B) Turner syndrome and sickle-cell anemia
C) Klinefelter syndrome and Down syndrome
D) Phenylketonuria (PKU) and XYY syndrome

Question 33

X-linked inheritance describes the inheritance of a(n)

A) unaltered gene that is carried on the Y chromosome.
B) mutated gene that is carried on the Y chromosome.
C) unaltered gene that is carried on the X chromosome.
D) mutated gene that is carried on the X chromosome.

Question 34

You notice that Lou's eyes are a unique shade of green. You have observed his:

A) genotype.
B) phenotype.
C) dominant genes.
D) recessive genes.

Question 35

Most characteristics are the result of the interaction of many different genes. This is the concept of

A) dominant-recessive inheritance.
B) sex-linked inheritance.
C) genetic imprinting.
D) polygenic inheritance.

Question 36

Which of the following principles is demonstrated when one gene overrides the potential effect of a second gene?

A) polygenic inheritance
B) sex-linked genes
C) dominant-recessive genes
D) genetic imprinting

Question 37

_____ is a genetic disorder that occurs less often to children with mothers who are 16 to 34 years old.

A) Down syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Sickle-cell anemia
D) Phenylketonuria (PKU)

Question 38

Kevin has blond hair, but both of his parents have brown hair. What might account for Kevin's differing phenotype from both of his parents?

A) polygenic inheritance
B) genetic imprinting
C) sex-linked genes
D) dominant-recessive genes

Question 39

Melinda and Joseph both have brown eyes, but their child has blue eyes. This shows that

A) both Melinda and Joseph are carrying a recessive gene for blue eyes.
B) either Melinda or Joseph is carrying a recessive gene for blue eyes.
C) both Melinda and Joseph are carrying a dominant gene for blue eyes.
D) either Melinda or Joseph is carrying a dominant gene for blue eyes.

Question 40

In _____, the number of cells doubles, whereas in _____, the number of chromosomes in the resulting four cells is half of what the parent cell contained.

A) meiosis; mitosis
B) mitosis; meiosis
C) genotype; phenotype
D) phenotype; genotype

Question 41

The (G × E) interaction involves what two specifically measured factors?

A) variation in DNA and a specific aspect of the environment
B) variation in DNA and variation in gene-produced proteins
C) variation in DNA and variation in biological heredity
D) a specific aspect of the environment and variation in behaviors of peers and relatives

Question 42

Katrina played basketball in high school and in college. She recently enrolled her son in a junior basketball league. This is an example of which type of genotype-environment correlation for Katrina's son?

A) passive
B) evocative
C) active
D) niche-picking

Question 43

Dani loves dinosaurs. She always chooses library books about dinosaurs and has even asked her parents to enroll her in a junior paleontology club. This is an example of which type of genotype-environment correlation?

A) passive
B) evocative
C) active
D) None of these answers are correct.

Question 44

Louis and his twin sister are entering late adolescence and preparing to go to different colleges. They are likely

A) to have less difficulty separating from each other and their primary caregiver than do non-twins.
B) to have more difficulty separating from each other and their primary caregiver than do non-twins siblings.
C) to have more distinct and individual senses of self by the time they separate for college than would non-twin siblings.
D) to have completed their twin-separation process in early adolescence.

Question 45

When baby Juanita was born, she had problems with her eyes, ears, and nose. MOST likely, Juanita's problems came from defects in the formation of

A) the ectoderm.
B) the endoderm.
C) the mesoderm.
D) any of the three layers.

Question 46

Brent is an athlete who has always loved to play catch or shoot baskets with others, and he frequently seeks to do both with his son Todd. Todd is quickly developing the same affinity for sports. This is an example of which type of genotype-environment correlation?

A) active
B) passive
C) evocative
D) niche-picking

Question 47

Kylie is friendly and outgoing. Because of this, people treat her well and often seem drawn to her. This is an example of which type of genotype-environment correlation?

A) active
B) passive
C) evocative
D) niche-picking

Question 48

Which of the following is the prenatal development period that takes place during the first 2 weeks after conception, includes the creation of a zygote, and ends with attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall?

A) germinal
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) fertilization

Question 49

Baby Weston's digestive system did not fully develop and does not function properly. This problem likely arose from a defect in the formation of

A) the ectoderm.
B) the endoderm.
C) the mesoderm.
D) any of the three layers.

Question 50

The relative contributions of heredity and environment are not additive. This means

A) a person's characteristics and behavior are a result of a constantly fluctuating mix of gene expression and environment.
B) some characteristics are solely due to heredity and others to environmental conditions.
C) certain characteristics are more linked to heredity and others to environmental conditions.
D) that the person we become is due to x percent genetics and x percent environment.

Question 51

During which prenatal developmental period do the mesoderm, ectoderm, and endoderm form?

A) germinal
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) fertilization

Question 52

During which prenatal development period does differentiation of cells take place?

A) embryonic
B) germinal
C) fetal
D) fertilization

Question 53

Elise has enrolled in a parenting program aimed at teaching parents to recognize and support a child's natural abilities and chosen activities. If she helps her child enroll and pursue only activities her child seems drawn to, which type of heredity-environment correlation will she be encouraging?

A) passive
B) evocative
C) active
D) suggestive

Question 54

Hannah is an "easy" child. She rarely cries and is cooperative and pleasant. As a result, she receives much attention and nurturing. This is an example of which type of genotype-environment correlation?

A) passive
B) evocative
C) active
D) niche-picking

Question 55

Allison learned that she had a good singing voice in childhood. She requested vocal lessons, and now she participates in the school choral program. This is an example of which type of genotype-environment correlation?

A) passive
B) evocative
C) niche-picking
D) None of these answers is correct.

Question 56

When does the zygote implant in the lining of the mother's uterus?

A) immediately after conception
B) within 2 days after conception
C) about 10 to 14 days after conception
D) at the end of the embryonic period

Question 57

What is the emerging view among developmentalists about the contributions of both heredity and the environment to development?

A) Heredity plays the dominant role in developmental trajectory.
B) Environment plays the dominant role in developmental trajectory.
C) Genes influence complex behaviors and generally lead to a developmental trajectory, but said trajectory is dependent on environment as well.
D) Genes determine developmental trajectory largely regardless of environment.

Question 58

Which of the following is a genotype-environment interaction that plays a smaller role in development as children grow older?

A) passive
B) evocative
C) active
D) niche-picking

Question 59

The epigenetic view of development states that development is

A) becomes less influenced by heredity and more influenced by environments as people grow older.
B) becomes more influenced by heredity and less influenced by environment as people grow older.
C) is influenced 50 percent by heredity and 50 percent by environment.
D) is the result of an ongoing, bidirectional interchange between heredity and the environment.

Question 60

Which of the following is the correct order of an embryo's layering of cells starting from the outermost layer?

A) mesoderm, endoderm, ectoderm
B) mesoderm, ectoderm, endoderm
C) endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm
D) ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

Question 61

The doctor tells Sharice and Jayden that their unborn baby is having problems because of a drastic change in temperature. The _____ has failed to perform its protective function.

A) umbilical cord
B) amniotic fluid
C) placenta
D) trophoblast

Question 62

Which of the following prenatal diagnostic tests would involve removing a small sample of the placenta?

A) ultrasound sonography
B) amniocentesis
C) maternal blood sampling
D) chorionic villus sampling

Question 63

During which prenatal developmental period is the probability of a structural defect the greatest?

A) implantation
B) germinal
C) embryonic
D) fetal

Question 64

Psychoactive drugs primarily affect the _____ system.

A) endocrine
B) nervous
C) respiratory
D) digestive

Question 65

Which of the following handle(s) information processing at the cellular level?

A) anencephaly
B) neurons
C) spina bifida
D) neural tubes

Question 66

Sidney is expecting her first child and recently began to feel kicking movements. Sidney is MOST likely in the _____ month of her pregnancy.

A) second
B) fourth
C) sixth
D) seventh

Question 67

During which prenatal developmental period do the following changes-rapid weight gain; active movement of arms and legs; face, forehead, eyelids, nose, and chin becoming distinguishable-take place?

A) germinal
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) fertilization

Question 68

Stephanie's doctor reduces the dosage of her daily medication when she begins trying to get pregnant. The principle behind this action states that

A) the effect of any teratogen is dependent on the genetic susceptibility of the fetus.
B) the effect of any teratogen is dependent on the time of exposure.
C) the greater the dose of a teratogen, the greater the effect on prenatal development.
D) the effect of any teratogen is greater in the last stage of prenatal development.

Question 69

At approximately 15 weeks after conception, cells move outward from their point of origin to their appropriate locations. This is known as

A) anencephaly.
B) spina bifida.
C) neurogenesis.
D) neuronal migration.

Question 70

Which of the following prenatal diagnostic tests could detect an elevated risk for spina bifida but not the actual condition in the fetus?

A) ultrasound sonography
B) amniocentesis
C) maternal blood screening
D) chorionic villi sampling

Question 71

Which of the following is a nonprescription drug known to cause harmful prenatal effects?

A) estrogen
B) antibiotics
C) isotretinoin
D) aspirin

Question 72

When a blood test was performed on Cindy's fetus, the doctors found some of Cindy's red blood cells in the fetus' circulatory system. We know that this most likely

A) is normal because the mother's red blood cells are shared with the fetus.
B) indicates a problem with the blastocyst, which should not contain red blood cells.
C) indicates a problem with the placenta, which should block the mother's red blood cells.
D) indicates a problem with the amnion, which should eliminate the mother's red blood cells.

Question 73

Which of the following statements about teratogens is NOT true?

A) Female fetuses are far more likely to be affected by teratogens than male fetuses.
B) The greater the dose of a teratogen, the greater the effect.
C) Differences in placental membranes can affect a fetus' exposure to a teratogen.
D) The time of exposure to a teratogen impacts the type and degree of damage to the fetus.

Question 74

Which of the following involves the process of cells moving outward from their point of origin to their appropriate locations in the brain?

A) neuronal migration
B) neurogenesis
C) neural connectivity
D) organogenesis

Question 75

The _____ connects a baby to the placenta.

A) amniotic fluid
B) amnion
C) umbilical cord
D) uterine wall

Question 76

What is approximately the earliest point that a fetus can survive outside the womb?

A) 5 months
B) 6 months
C) 7 months
D) 8 months

Question 77

Iyanla, who is pregnant, is concerned that the bacteria from her ear infection may pass to her unborn baby. She does not need to worry because

A) although the bacteria will pass to the fetus, supercharged white blood cells in the umbilical cord will successfully destroy the infection.
B) the bacteria will be destroyed by the amniotic fluid.
C) bacteria are large molecules and will be filtered out by the placenta and not reach the fetus.
D) the baby's sinuses are filled with amniotic fluid and are immune to sinus bacteria.

Question 78

Gina is pregnant and is a heavy smoker. Compared to the baby of a nonsmoker, her baby is MORE likely to suffer from which of the following?

A) facial and limb deformities
B) sudden infant death syndrome
C) cleft palate
D) tremors and increased general irritability

Question 79

Teri's doctor has recommended that she take folic acid regularly throughout her pregnancy. The doctor is most likely trying to prevent which of the following from occurring?

A) spina bifida
B) fetal neural tube defects
C) anencephaly
D) All of these answers are correct.

Question 80

Exposure to teratogens after organogenesis is complete is most likely to result in

A) severe anatomic defects.
B) stunted growth.
C) an enlarged cranium.
D) death of the fetus.