Deck 11: The Blood and Body Defenses

Question 1

Erythrocytes

A) do not contain a nucleus.
B) survive an average of 120 days.
C) do not have the ability to use O₂ for energy production despite the fact that they transport O₂ to all the other tissues of the body.
D) do not contain a nucleus and survive an average of 120 days.
E) all of these answers.

Answer 1

all of these answers.

Question 2

Which organ removes most of the worn-out red blood cells from the circulation?

A) bone marrow.
B) kidney.
C) large intestine.
D) pancreas.
E) spleen.

Answer 2

spleen.

Question 3

Antibodies are

A) gamma globulins.
B) a type of plasma protein.
C) produced by B lymphocytes.
D) two of these answers.
E) all of these answers.

Answer 3

all of these answers.

Question 4

Which is the most abundant type of cellular element in the blood?

A) erythrocytes.
B) neutrophils.
C) leukocytes.
D) lymphocytes.
E) platelets.

Question 5

Which of the following is not found dissolved in the plasma?

A) inorganic compounds
B) organic compounds
C) hemoglobin
D) gases
E) all of the above are dissolved in the plasma

Question 6

Which of the following is not true of red blood cell structure?

A) contains organelles that allow for new protein synthesis
B) contains proteins that promote flexibility
C) does not contain mitochondria
D) bi-concave shape
E) not able to reproduce on their own

Question 7

The buffy coat which represents < 1% of the whole blood is comprised of

A) erythrocytes and platelets.
B) leukocytes and platelets.
C) leukocytes and clotting factors.
D) platelets and clotting factors.
E) clotting factors and albumins.

Question 8

Which is not a function of plasma proteins?

A) plasma proteins are responsible for the blood colloid osmotic pressure.
B) provide a source of readily available amino acids to be utilized by the tissue cells for the synthesis of new tissue proteins.
C) antibodies are gamma globulins important in the body's defense mechanism.
D) plasma proteins play a role in buffering changes in pH in the body fluids.
E) the presence of plasma proteins in the blood is the primary factor responsible for preventing excessive loss of plasma from the capillaries into the interstitial fluid.

Question 9

The function of plasma albumins is

A) contributing to the clotting process.
B) body defense.
C) maintenance of the blood's osmotic pressure.
D) transport of lipids.
E) transport of metal minerals.

Question 10

If the hematocrit is 40, then the volume occupied by the

A) red blood cells is 60% of the total blood volume.
B) white blood cells is 40% of the total blood volume.
C) red blood cells is 40% of the total blood volume.
D) plasma and other cellular elements is 40% of the total blood volume.
E) more than one of these.

Question 11

Carbonic anhydrase is crucial for

A) CO₂ transport in blood.
B) conversion of CO₂ into bicarbonate ion.
C) production of NO.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) both (a) and (c) above.

Question 12

The red cell count is normally about ____ million cells per cubic millimeter.

A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 15
E) 20

Question 13

Blood is a connective tissue comprised of cellular elements and an extracellular matrix comprised primarily of water. What is the name of the blood's extracellular matrix?

A) hematocrit.
B) fibrinogen.
C) buffy coat.
D) plasma.
E) none of these answers.

Question 14

Which of the following statements concerning erythrocytes is incorrect?

A) erythrocytes do not contain any organelles.
B) erythrocytes may take on many different shapes.
C) erythrocytes originate from the same undifferentiated pluripotential stem cells as leukocytes and platelets.
D) erythrocytes are unable to utilize the O₂ they contain for their own ATP formation.
E) erythrocytes only live about 5 days.

Question 15

Albumin belongs to the group of ____ in the blood plasma.

A) hormones.
B) electrolytes.
C) proteins.
D) gases (O₂, CO₂, N₂).
E) red blood cells.

Question 16

Which of the following are cell fragments?

A) erythrocytes.
B) neutrophils.
C) leukocytes.
D) lymphocytes.
E) platelets.

Question 17

Which plasma globulins are the antibodies?

A) alpha.
B) beta.
C) gamma.
D) delta.
E) sigma.

Question 18

What advantages does the biconcavity of the erythrocyte impart on the cell?

A) it increases the overall surface area.
B) it increases the flexibility of the cell.
C) it prevents toxins from entering the cell.
D) all of these answers.
E) none of these answers.

Question 19

Which is not found within erythrocytes?

A) carbonic anhydrase.
B) glycolytic enzymes.
C) hemoglobin.
D) bicarbonate ions.
E) enzymes for Citric Acid cycle reactions

Question 20

The amount of blood in the human body is about ____ liters.

A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 12
E) 15

Question 21

A person with type B+ blood have which of the following erythrocyte antigens?

A) A only
B) Rh only
C) B only
D) A and Rh
E) B and Rh

Question 22

A mother with which of the following blood types could potentially have her pregnancy complicated by hemolytic newborn disease?

A) O-
B) AB+
C) B+
D) B-
E) O+

Question 23

Exposed collagen in a damaged vessel

A) activates factor XII to initiate blood clotting.
B) initiates platelet aggregation.
C) secretes ADP, which causes platelets to become sticky.
D) activates factor XII to initiate blood clotting and initiates platelet aggregation.
E) all of these answers.

Question 24

Iron

A) can combine reversibly with O₂.
B) deficiency can produce anemia.
C) is converted into bilirubin and secreted into the bile when an old red blood cell ruptures and is degraded.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.

Question 25

Which of the following is not accomplished by thrombin?

A) stimulates conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
B) activates tissue thromboplastin, which initiates the extrinsic clotting pathway
C) activates factor XIII (fibrin-stabilizing factor)
D) enhances platelet aggregation
E) acts in positive-feedback fashion to facilitate its own formation

Question 26

Which factor directly stimulates the kidney to release EPO?

A) elevated carbon dioxide in the plasma
B) the hematocrit
C) reduced oxygen delivery to the kidney
D) both (a) and (c)
E) all of the above

Question 27

Which is the most abundant type of enzyme found in erythrocytes?

A) those involved in glycolysis reactions
B) those involved in Citric acid cycle reactions
C) those associated with oxidative phosphorylation
D) both (a) and (c)
E) they do not contain any enzymes

Question 28

Which of the following statements concerning iron is incorrect?

A) iron is found in the heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule.
B) iron is converted into bilirubin upon erythrocyte degradation.
C) iron readily combines reversibly with O₂.
D) diets deficient in iron can lead to anemia.
E) iron is not adequately absorbed from the digestive tracts in pernicious anemia.

Question 29

Hemoglobin

A) consists of a protein made up of four highly folded polypeptide chains and four iron-containing nonprotein, nitrogenous groups.
B) appears reddish when combined with O₂ and bluish when deoxygenated.
C) can combine only with O₂.
D) both (a) and (b) above are correct.
E) all of these answers.

Question 30

Which of the following is an example of a hereditary abnormality?

A) aplastic anemia
B) hemorrhagic anemia
C) pernicious anemia
D) sickle cell disease
E) folic acid deficiency

Question 31

In addition to transporting oxygen hemoglobin transports

A) some carbon dioxide.
B) nitric oxide.
C) buffered hydrogen ions.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all these answers.

Question 32

A person with type B+ blood have which of the following antibodies in their plasma?

A) A only
B) Rh only
C) B only
D) A and Rh
E) B and Rh

Question 33

A person with type A- blood have which of the following erythrocyte antigens?

A) A only
B) Rh only
C) B only
D) A and Rh
E) B and Rh

Question 34

Erythropoiesis

A) is accomplished in the bone marrow upon stimulation by erythropoietin.
B) is accomplished in the kidneys in response to reduced O₂ delivery to the kidneys.
C) refers to increased RBC count.
D) refers to RBC destruction.
E) none of these answers.

Question 35

Erythrocytes

A) are large cells.
B) participate in the clotting of blood.
C) defend the body against foreign substances.
D) possess binding sites for oxygen and CO2
E) possess all of the organelles found in other cell types.

Question 36

Hemoglobin

A) is found in the nuclei of red blood cells.
B) contains carbonic anhydrase.
C) can combine with O₂, CO₂, H⁺, NO, and CO.
D) both (a) and (b) above..
E) all of these answers.

Question 37

During the process of hemostasis, platelets perform all of the following functions except:

A) covert fibrinogen to fibrin
B) release ADP
C) activate other nearby platelets
D) form a temporary platelet plug
E) interact with collagen fibers of an injured vessel

Question 38

In the last step of blood coagulation,

A) fibrin is converted to fibrinogen.
B) fibrinogen is converted to fibrin.
C) platelet factor enter numerous reactions.
D) prothrombin is converted to thrombin.
E) thrombin is converted to prothrombin.

Question 39

What chemical signal released by healthy endothelial tissue prevent over growth of platelet plugs?

A) ATP.
B) fibrinogen.
C) prostacyclin.
D) thromboxane.
E) thrombopoietin.

Question 40

The hormone controlling erythropoiesis is produced in what organ?

A) pancreas.
B) brain.
C) heart.
D) kidney.
E) intestine.

Question 41

White blood cells

A) are the most abundant type of blood cell.
B) do not have nuclei.
C) are actually only cell fragments.
D) defend the body against foreign invasion.
E) are found only in the blood.

Question 42

Platelets are normally attracted to a

A) collection of white blood cells.
B) disrupted surface of a blood vessel.
C) smooth surface.
D) source of ATP production.
E) surface where the blood meets the air.

Question 43

Basophils

A) contain granules that preferentially take up a basic blue dye.
B) leave the blood to become macrophages.
C) synthesize and store histamine and heparin.
D) two of these answers.
E) all of these answers.

Question 44

Myeloid stem cells give rise to all leukocytes except

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 45

Which of the following can occur with leukemia?

A) inadequate defense capabilities against. foreign invasion despite an excessive number of white blood cells.
B) anemia.
C) internal bleeding.
D) two of these answers.
E) all of these answers.

Question 46

The adaptive, or acquired, immune system

A) are non-specific
B) include functions of skin and saliva
C) rely on specific immune responses selectively targeted against specific antigens
D) is very quick in its response
E) is effective against generalized threats

Question 47

The tissue phagocytes, macrophages are derived from which agranulocyte?

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 48

Which leukocyte is implicated in certain allergic reactions and attacks internal parasites such as worms?

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 49

Lymphocytes

A) are polymorphonuclear granulocytes.
B) are the most abundant type of leukocyte.
C) can be produced in lymphoid organs as well as in the bone marrow.
D) two of these answers.
E) all of these answers.

Question 50

An increase in the circulating number of ____ is associated with parasite infestations.

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 51

Which cellular element is part of the body's specific defenses?

A) platelets.
B) neutrophils.
C) erythrocytes.
D) basophils.
E) lymphocytes

Question 52

The most abundant agranulocyte is the

A) basophil.
B) eosinophil.
C) lymphocyte.
D) monocyte.
E) neutrophil.

Question 53

____ leave the blood after circulating for only a day or two and become the large tissue phagocytes known as macrophages.

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 54

Which factor does not contribute to the formation of a thrombus?

A) roughened vessel surfaces associated with arteriosclerosis
B) imbalances in the clotting-anticlotting systems,
C) excess levels of Vitamin K.
D) slow moving blood
E) release of thromboplastin by tissue

Question 55

Which leukocyte contains histamine in its granules?

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 56

The most common leukocytes in the blood are

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.

Question 57

Which of the following is not attributable to the immune defense system?

A) defends against pathogenic microorganisms.
B) converts foreign chemicals into compounds that can be more readily eliminated in the urine.
C) removes worn-out cells and tissue debris.
D) identifies and destroys abnormal or mutant cells.
E) can inappropriately induce allergic responses and autoimmune disease.

Question 58

Which cellular element has the lowest count in the blood?

A) platelets.
B) neutrophils.
C) erythrocytes.
D) basophils.
E) eosinophils.

Question 59

Which of the following is not a function of white blood cells?

A) activation of factor XII, which triggers the clotting cascade.
B) production of antibodies.
C) destruction of cancer cells.
D) phagocytosis of foreign invaders.
E) phagocytosis of cellular debris.

Question 60

When small blood vessels are damaged, loss of blood is prevented by

A) platelet aggregation.
B) vasoconstriction of these vessels.
C) formation of a platelet plug.
D) all of these answers.
E) none of these answers.

Question 61

Cytotoxic T cells

A) are not the most numerous of the T cells.
B) secrete B-cell growth factor and T-cell growth factor.
C) confer greater phagocytic properties on macrophages, converting them into angry macrophages.
D) release antigens.
E) bind with class II MHC glycoproteins.

Question 62

Which part of the antibody is Y shaped?

A) antigen-binding fragments.
B) tail portion.
C) light chains.
D) arm regions.
E) Fab regions.

Question 63

Plasma cells

A) are not derived from B cells.
B) have an expanded rough endoplasmic reticulum.
C) do not secrete antibodies but remain dormant and expand the clone specific for the invading antigen.
D) are not derived from B cells and have an expanded rough endoplasmic reticulum.
E) all of these answers.

Question 64

Specific immune responses

A) require helper T cell activation.
B) are under control of the adaptive immune system.
C) could not occur if the thymus gland did not develop.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answer.

Question 65

Which of the following is not attributable to complement activity?

A) acting as opsonins.
B) walling-off the inflamed area.
C) serving as chemotaxins.
D) stimulating the release of histamine.
E) forming a membrane attack complex.

Question 66

Nonspecific immune responses

A) come into play whether or not there has been prior experience with the offending agent.
B) are triggered by invasion of infectious microorganisms, chemical injury, mechanical trauma, or burns.
C) are mediated by lymphocytes.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.

Question 67

Which of the following is not accomplished by a chemical released from activated phagocytes?

A) decreasing plasma iron so that it is unavailable for bacterial multiplication.
B) stimulating histamine release from mast cells.
C) stimulating the synthesis of viral-blocking enzymes.
D) inducing the development of fever.
E) stimulating granulopoiesis.

Question 68

____ T cells are necessary for cloning of other immune cells?

A) cytotoxic.
B) helper.
C) suppressor.
D) regulatory.
E) inhibitory.

Question 69

Which is not a class of T cells?

A) dendritic
B) cytotoxic
C) helper
D) regulatory
E) all of the above are types of T cells

Question 70

Which of the following is a component of innate immunity?

A) inflammation.
B) antibody production.
C) T cell function
D) B cell function
E) all of the above

Question 71

____ T cells release perforin.

A) cytotoxic.
B) helper.
C) suppressor.
D) regulatory.
E) inhibitory.

Question 72

B lymphocytes

A) are responsible for antibody-mediated immunity.
B) are activated by thymosin.
C) mature and differentiate into macrophages.
D) bind with foreign antigen in association with self-antigen.
E) are attacked by AIDS virus.

Question 73

What type of immune defense cell is selectively invaded by AIDS virus?

A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) helper T cells.
C) suppressor T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) neutrophils.

Question 74

Which of the following is not part of the inflammatory response?

A) localized vasodilation.
B) migration of neutrophils and macrophages to the site of injury.
C) kinin activation.
D) interferon inhibition of viral replication.
E) formation of interstitial-fluid clots that wall off bacterial invaders.

Question 75

Histamine:

A) family of proteins that defends against viruses.
B) natural killer cell.
C) specific bacterial surface receptor.
D) specialized type of white blood cell.
E) vasodilator agent.

Question 76

Interferon is a

A) family of proteins that defends against viruses.
B) natural killer cell.
C) specific bacterial surface receptor.
D) specialized type of white blood cell.
E) vasodilator agent.

Question 77

What type of drugs used to treat inflammation also reduce antibody production?

A) aspirin
B) motrin
C) tylenol
D) glucocorticoids
E) none of these answers.

Question 78

Which of the following does not apply to macrophages? Macrophages

A) participate in inflammation.
B) process and present antigen to lymphocytes.
C) secrete antibodies.
D) secrete interleukin 1.
E) participate in immune surveillance against cancer.

Question 79

Which of the following is not a way in which antibodies exert their protective influence?

A) neutralization.
B) agglutination.
C) direct destruction of foreign organisms.
D) activation of the complement system.
E) enhancement of phagocytosis.

Question 80

Which of the following is not a component of innate immunity?

A) inflammation.
B) antibody production.
C) interferon.
D) natural killer cells.
E) the complement system.