Deck 17: Sleep Physiology and Its Relationship to the Cardiopulmonary System

Question 1

How many hours of sleep a day does an average adult require?

A) 10 hours
B) 8-10 hours
C) 9 hours
D) 6-8 hours

Answer 1

D

Question 2

During a 6 hour sleep study period, approximately how many 30 sec epochs would be recorded?

A) 480
B) 120
C) 240
D) 720

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Non-REM sleep accounts for what percent of sleep time in the average adult?

A) 50-55 percent
B) 60-75 percent
C) 75-80 percent
D) 40-50 percent

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which condition is described as "a state of unconsciousness from which one cannot be awakened by even the most forceful stimuli"?

A) deep sleep
B) sleep
C) coma
D) lethargy

Question 5

Which agency offers a credentialing exam for the Sleep Disorder Specialist?

A) CAAHEP
B) NBRC
C) AARC
D) CoARC

Question 6

Which waves are known as deep sleep waves and are predominantly seen in Stage N3?

A) theta
B) delta
C) beta
D) alpha

Question 7

During a sleep study, which of the following monitors muscle activity?

A) ECG
B) EEG
C) EOG
D) EMG

Question 8

During a sleep study, which of the following monitors movements of the eyes?

A) EEG
B) EOG
C) ECG
D) EMG

Question 9

During a sleep study, which of the following monitors electrical activity of the heart?

A) EMG
B) EOG
C) EEG
D) ECG

Question 10

Which sleep stage is characterized by beta waves with high frequency, low amplitude activity and sawtooth waves?

A) N2
B) Eyes Open - Wake
C) Eyes Closed Wake
D) N1

Question 11

What term is described as "a recorded measurement of time during a sleep study of multiple physiologic variables"?

A) epoch
B) circadian cycle
C) time cycle
D) critical incident

Question 12

During a sleep study, which of the following monitors the exhaled carbon dioxide?

A) thermistor
B) capnography
C) oximeter
D) co-oximeter

Question 13

Which EEG waveform is called "busy waves" and are often seen when the patient is awake with eyes open?

A) theta
B) alpha
C) delta
D) beta

Question 14

What is another term for a sleep study?

A) SS
B) polysomnography
C) diagnostic sleep study
D) somnology polystudy

Question 15

During a sleep study, which of the following monitors electrophysiologic changes in the brain?

A) EOG
B) EMG
C) EEG
D) ECG

Question 16

Which EEG waveform is called the "relaxed wave," have a high voltage, and are often seen in the drowsy patient?

A) theta
B) delta
C) beta
D) alpha

Question 17

What is the term for the condition described as "a partial state of unconsciousness from which one can be awakened by stimulation"?

A) coma
B) sleep
C) lethargy
D) lassitude

Question 18

What are the two major types of sleep?

A) Drowsy and REM
B) W and NREM
C) NREM and REM
D) W and REM

Question 19

Which EEG waveform is called the "drowsy wave" and has a low voltage and low amplitude and is predominant in N2?

A) theta
B) alpha
C) delta
D) beta

Question 20

During a sleep study, which of the following monitors oxygen saturation?

A) ETCO₂
B) co-oximeter
C) oximeter
D) thermistor

Question 21

In a young adult, how many awakenings occur during a normal night's sleep?

A) 1-2
B) 3-5
C) 7-9
D) 5-6

Question 22

In which sleep phase do the majority of dreams occur?

A) Stage 3
B) Stage 1
C) REM sleep
D) Stage 2

Question 23

How long after the onset of Stage N1 does Stage N3 Slow Wave Sleep begin?

A) 40-55 minutes
B) 20-25 minutes
C) 35-40 minutes
D) 10-12 minutes

Question 24

What is the term for the duration of time required to fall asleep?

A) sleep latency
B) drowsiness
C) lights out time
D) sleep delay time

Question 25

With what stage does one full sleep cycle begin?

A) N2
B) N1
C) REM
D) N3

Question 26

Which sleep stage accounts for 40-50% of total sleep time?

A) Stage N3
B) Stage N2
C) REM
D) Stage N1

Question 27

During which sleep stage would hypnic myoclonia be most likely to occur?

A) Stage N3
B) Stage N2
C) Stage N1
D) REM

Question 28

Which is the average duration of Stage N1?

A) 4-6 minutes
B) 14-16 minutes
C) 10-12 minutes
D) 20-22 minutes

Question 29

Which waves commonly appear toward the end of Stage N1?

A) sawtooth
B) delta
C) sleep spindles
D) vertex

Question 30

What state does REM sleep resemble?

A) N2
B) Eyes Closed - Wake
C) Eyes Open - Wake
D) N1

Question 31

Which sleep phase is called paradoxic sleep?

A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) REM

Question 32

How long is each sleep cycle?

A) 120-140 minutes
B) 40-60 minutes
C) 70-90 minutes
D) 90-110 minutes

Question 33

What are the primary functions of sleep?

A) to allow the cerebral cortex and cerebellum to be passive and inactive
B) to allow time for the medulla and pons to be passive and inactive
C) to restore and repair the body and conserve energy
D) to hardwire memories and conserve energy

Question 34

Which daytime diagnostic test objectively tests sleepiness by monitoring sleep latency?

A) PSG
B) MWT
C) MSLT
D) MSG

Question 35

During which sleep stage are night terrors and sleepwalking most likely to occur?

A) Stage N3 Slow Wave Sleep
B) Stage N2
C) stage N1
D) Stage N3 Deep Sleep

Question 36

When do sawtooth waves appear?

A) Eyes Open Wake and N1
B) Eyes Open Closed and REM
C) REM and N1
D) Eyes Open Wake and REM

Question 37

In which sleep stage(s) would K complexes commonly appear?

A) N2 and N3
B) REM
C) Stage W
D) N1

Question 38

3Which sleep stage is the transitional stage between drowsiness and sleep?

A) Stage N2
B) Stage N1
C) Stage N3
D) Eyes Closed- Wake

Question 39

In which sleep stage(s) would sleep spindles appear?

A) Stage W
B) N2 and N3
C) REM
D) N1

Question 40

At what frequency do Circadian rhythms occur?

A) once every 28 days
B) once about every 24 hours
C) once every calendar month
D) once per week

Question 41

What is the term for sleep periods of excessive depth or duration?

A) sleep paralysis
B) sleep apnea
C) hypersomnia
D) cataplexy

Question 42

What is the term for the total of all nights of lost sleep?

A) sleep latency
B) sleep debt
C) sleepiness quotient
D) exhaustion quotient

Question 43

What percent of a newborn's total sleep time is spent in REM?

A) 30%
B) 20%
C) 40%
D) 50%

Question 44

Approximately what percent of American women have obstructive sleep apnea?

A) 8%
B) 2%
C) 4%
D) 6%

Question 45

What is the term for the condition characterized by the cessation of airflow with the absence of respiratory efforts?

A) narcolepsy
B) OSA
C) CSA
D) hypersomnia

Question 46

Which of the following are risk factors for CSA? Male gender
CHF or atrial fibrillation
Use of opioids
Over 65 years of age

A) I and III only
B) I, II and III only
C) I, II, III, and IV
D) I and IV only

Question 47

Which of the following risk factors are associated with OSA? Obesity
Female gender
Hypertension
Enlarged tonsils or adenoids

A) I, III, and IV only
B) I, II, and IV
C) I and IV only
D) I, II, III, and IV

Question 48

What is the most common sleep disorder?

A) narcolepsy
B) insomnia
C) sleep apnea
D) hypersomnia

Question 49

How many hours of total sleep time per day are required by most two year olds?

A) 12 hours
B) 16 hours
C) 10 hours
D) 14 hours

Question 50

Which of the following statements are true regarding PLMD? It occurs during non-REM sleep
The incidence increases with age
It often occurs with RLS

A) I and III only
B) I, II, and III
C) I only
D) II and III only

Question 51

Which sleep disorder can be treated with tracheostomy?

A) RLS
B) PLMD
C) CSA
D) OSA

Question 52

What is the average duration of short term insomnia?

A) 1-3 weeks
B) less than 1 week
C) 1-3 months
D) 3-4 weeks

Question 53

Which of the following are symptoms of obstructive sleep apnea? Loud snoring, snorting, or nocturnal choking
Moodiness, irritability, or depression
Excessive daytime sleepiness
Sexual impotence

A) I, II, and IV
B) I and III only
C) I, II, III, and IV
D) I, II, and III

Question 54

Which sleep disorder can be treated with negative pressure ventilation?

A) RLS
B) OSA
C) CSA
D) PLMD

Question 55

How much sleep is required by the older adult?

A) 8-10 hours per day
B) 10-12 hours per day
C) 12-14 hours per day
D) 6-8 hours per day

Question 56

What is the most commonly prescribed treatment for moderate OSA?

A) CPAP
B) surgery
C) nasal decongestants
D) weight loss

Question 57

What portion of an adolescent's sleep time is spent in REM?

A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 20%
D) 30%

Question 58

Which of the following factors enhance sleep? Elevated body temperature
Frequent work shift changes
Caffeine ingestion
Moderate exercise

A) I, II, III, and IV
B) III and IV
C) II and IV
D) IV only

Question 59

Which of the sleep disturbances is usually hereditary?

A) transient insomnia
B) narcolepsy
C) RLS
D) PLMD

Question 60

Which of the following factors exacerbate RLS? Pregnancy
Caffeine
Diabetes
Renal insufficiency

A) III and IV only
B) II and III only
C) II and IV only
D) I, II, III and IV

Question 61

Which of the following physiologic changes occur during sleep? Colonic motility is decreased
Penile tumescence occurs during REM
Plasma growth hormones peak during Stage N3
The heart rate can increase by up to 35% during REM
Cerebral blood flow decreases during non-REM sleep

A) II, III, and V only
B) I, III, V only
C) I, II, III, IV, and V
D) I, II, III only

Question 62

What does a score of 11 indicate on the Epworth Sleepiness Scale?

A) Individual is getting enough sleep
B) Additional evaluation by a sleep specialist is recommended
C) Normal score- no followup needed
D) No such assessment tool exists

Question 63

Which of the following statements are true? Parasympathetic activity begins at sleep onset and continues throughout non-REM sleep
Somatic skeletal muscle tone is lowest during REM
Body temperature falls during REM sleep and increases during non REM sleep
Urine production decreases during REM and non-REM sleep

A) I, II, and III only
B) I, II, and IV only
C) I, III, and IV only
D) I, II, III, and IV

Question 64

Which of the following contribute to the decrease in minute ventilation during non-REM sleep? Decreased metabolic rate during sleep
Reduced ability of medulla to respond to ventilatory signals during sleep
Increased Raw caused by reduced upper airway muscle tome

A) I only
B) I and III only
C) I, II, and III
D) II only