Deck 5: The Anatomy and Physiology of the Circulatory System
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Deck 5: The Anatomy and Physiology of the Circulatory System
1
Which of the following are granulocytes?
I. Lymphocytes
II. Neutrophils
III. Eosinophils
IV. Basophils
A) II, III, and IV only
B) I only
C) I, II, III, and IV
D) II and III only
I. Lymphocytes
II. Neutrophils
III. Eosinophils
IV. Basophils
A) II, III, and IV only
B) I only
C) I, II, III, and IV
D) II and III only
II, III, and IV only
2
In the normal adult female, what is the hematocrit value?
A) 58%
B) 36%
C) 50%
D) 42%
A) 58%
B) 36%
C) 50%
D) 42%
D
3
What is the term or acronym for the percentage of RBCs in the blood volume?
A) HBV ratio
B) hematocyte %
C) RBCV
D) hematocrit
A) HBV ratio
B) hematocyte %
C) RBCV
D) hematocrit
D
4
What is the primary function of erythrocytes?
A) transport O2 to tissues and CO2 to the lungs
B) transport nutrients and waste products
C) regulate pH of blood
D) form clots
A) transport O2 to tissues and CO2 to the lungs
B) transport nutrients and waste products
C) regulate pH of blood
D) form clots
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5
Which of the following are functions of blood?
I. Regulate pH and osmosis
II. Maintain body temperature
III. Transport nutrients and waste products
IV. Form clots
A) I, II, III, and IV
B) I, II, and III only
C) I and II only
D) I, II, and IV only
I. Regulate pH and osmosis
II. Maintain body temperature
III. Transport nutrients and waste products
IV. Form clots
A) I, II, III, and IV
B) I, II, and III only
C) I and II only
D) I, II, and IV only
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6
What is the average blood volume in adult males?
A) 6-7 L
B) 3-4 L
C) 4-5L
D) 5-6 L
A) 6-7 L
B) 3-4 L
C) 4-5L
D) 5-6 L
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7
Which anemia results from an autosomal recessive hereditary disorder?
A) Sickle cell
B) nutritional deficiency
C) hemolytic
D) hemorrhagic
A) Sickle cell
B) nutritional deficiency
C) hemolytic
D) hemorrhagic
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8
What is the average lifespan of a RBC?
A) 60 days
B) 90 days
C) 150 days
D) 120 days
A) 60 days
B) 90 days
C) 150 days
D) 120 days
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9
What is the primary function of leukocytes?
A) protection against invading microorganisms
B) transport of nutrients
C) body temperature regulation
D) clot formation
A) protection against invading microorganisms
B) transport of nutrients
C) body temperature regulation
D) clot formation
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10
In a healthy newborn, what is the hematocrit value?
A) 55-70%
B) 25-40%
C) 45-60%
D) 35-45%
A) 55-70%
B) 25-40%
C) 45-60%
D) 35-45%
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11
Which organs are responsible for destroying RBCs?
A) spleen and kidneys
B) spleen and liver
C) liver and pancreas
D) liver and kidneys
A) spleen and kidneys
B) spleen and liver
C) liver and pancreas
D) liver and kidneys
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12
What percent of the total blood volume can be attributed to plasma?
A) 40%
B) 28%
C) 65%
D) 55%
A) 40%
B) 28%
C) 65%
D) 55%
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13
There are how many types of white blood cells?
A) 4
B) 7
C) 5
D) 3
A) 4
B) 7
C) 5
D) 3
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14
Which type of anemia is due to a deficiency of iron in the diet?
A) nutritional deficiency
B) hemorrhagic
C) pernicious
D) pernicious
A) nutritional deficiency
B) hemorrhagic
C) pernicious
D) pernicious
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15
What is the major component of the RBC that accounts for the red color?
A) hemoglobin
B) carboxyhemoglobin
C) myoglobin
D) methemoglobin
A) hemoglobin
B) carboxyhemoglobin
C) myoglobin
D) methemoglobin
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16
Which type of anemia is due to blood loss?
A) pernicious
B) hemorrhagic
C) hemolytic
D) aplastic
A) pernicious
B) hemorrhagic
C) hemolytic
D) aplastic
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17
What is the primary function of hemoglobin?
I. Transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissue cells
II. Transport carbon dioxide from the tissue cells to the lungs
III. Regulate pH
IV. Form clots
A) I, and II only
B) II and IV only
C) I, II, and III only
D) II, III, and IV only
I. Transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissue cells
II. Transport carbon dioxide from the tissue cells to the lungs
III. Regulate pH
IV. Form clots
A) I, and II only
B) II and IV only
C) I, II, and III only
D) II, III, and IV only
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18
Which anemia results from an inadequate dietary intake of vitamin B12?
A) nutritional deficiency
B) hemorrhagic
C) hemolytic
D) pernicious
A) nutritional deficiency
B) hemorrhagic
C) hemolytic
D) pernicious
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19
What is the average blood volume in adult females?
A) 3-4 L
B) 5-6 L
C) 4-5 L
D) 6-7 L
A) 3-4 L
B) 5-6 L
C) 4-5 L
D) 6-7 L
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20
Which type of anemia is due to autoimmune disease?
A) pernicious
B) hemorrhagic
C) hemolytic
D) aplastic
A) pernicious
B) hemorrhagic
C) hemolytic
D) aplastic
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21
What is the term for the WBC's ability to leave the blood vessel?
A) migration
B) diapedesis
C) transference
D) egression
A) migration
B) diapedesis
C) transference
D) egression
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22
What is the term for the site where the heart is in contact with the chest wall?
A) POC
B) MIP
C) PMC
D) PMI
A) POC
B) MIP
C) PMC
D) PMI
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23
What structure separates the atria in the heart?
A) pericardium
B) interventricular septum
C) conchae
D) interatrial septum
A) pericardium
B) interventricular septum
C) conchae
D) interatrial septum
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24
Which of the WBCs are the largest in size and can differentiate into macrophages?
A) basophils
B) lymphocytes
C) neutrophils
D) monocytes
A) basophils
B) lymphocytes
C) neutrophils
D) monocytes
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25
Asthmatic patients have an elevated count in what granulocyte?
A) basophils
B) eosinophils
C) monocytes
D) monocytes
A) basophils
B) eosinophils
C) monocytes
D) monocytes
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26
What is the name of the sac that encloses the heart?
A) epicardium
B) pleura
C) pericardium
D) mediastinum
A) epicardium
B) pleura
C) pericardium
D) mediastinum
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27
Which of the formed elements in the blood contain serotonin?
A) basophils
B) neutrophils
C) platelets
D) eosinophils
A) basophils
B) neutrophils
C) platelets
D) eosinophils
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28
What is the term for a decrease in the number of WBCs?
A) anemia
B) polycythemia
C) leukopenia
D) leukocytosis
A) anemia
B) polycythemia
C) leukopenia
D) leukocytosis
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29
In what cavity are the heart, great vessels, and thymus gland located?
A) pleural cavity
B) peritoneum
C) mediastinum
D) pericardium
A) pleural cavity
B) peritoneum
C) mediastinum
D) pericardium
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30
Which of the lymphocytes produce antibodies?
A) T lymphocytes
B) NK lymphocytes
C) B lymphocytes
D) A lymphocytes
A) T lymphocytes
B) NK lymphocytes
C) B lymphocytes
D) A lymphocytes
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31
What are the smallest of the formed elements in the blood?
A) eosinophils
B) lymphocytes
C) basophils
D) platelets or thrombocytes
A) eosinophils
B) lymphocytes
C) basophils
D) platelets or thrombocytes
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32
What is the second most numerous leukocyte in the blood?
A) eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Lymphocytes
D) monocytes
A) eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Lymphocytes
D) monocytes
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33
What portion of plasma is composed of proteins?
A) 7%
B) 2%
C) 17%
D) 12%
A) 7%
B) 2%
C) 17%
D) 12%
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34
Which respiratory disorder would be suspected if a patient had an eosinophil count of 8%?
A) pneumonia
B) pulmonary emboli
C) pulmonary edema
D) asthma
A) pneumonia
B) pulmonary emboli
C) pulmonary edema
D) asthma
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35
What is the clinical term for an inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart?
A) endocarditis
B) myocarditis
C) pleurisy
D) pericarditis
A) endocarditis
B) myocarditis
C) pleurisy
D) pericarditis
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36
Which white blood cells normally composes 65% of the total WBC count?
A) neutrophils
B) basophils
C) eosinophils
D) lymphocytes
A) neutrophils
B) basophils
C) eosinophils
D) lymphocytes
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37
Which of the blood cells are considered to be polymorphonuclear granulocytes?
A) basophils
B) eosinophils
C) neutrophils
D) lymphocytes
A) basophils
B) eosinophils
C) neutrophils
D) lymphocytes
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38
What information can be obtained from a CBC?
I. Hemoglobin
II. Hematocrit
III. SpO2
IV. WBC Differential
A) I and II only
B) I, II, and IV only
C) II and IV only
D) I, II, III, and IV
I. Hemoglobin
II. Hematocrit
III. SpO2
IV. WBC Differential
A) I and II only
B) I, II, and IV only
C) II and IV only
D) I, II, III, and IV
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39
Where are eosinophils primarily located?
A) above the vocal cords
B) alveoli
C) lining of the digestive and respiratory tracts
D) kidneys, liver, and lining of the respiratory tract
A) above the vocal cords
B) alveoli
C) lining of the digestive and respiratory tracts
D) kidneys, liver, and lining of the respiratory tract
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40
What is the name of the outer wall of the pericardium?
A) parietal pericardium
B) fibrous pericardium
C) visceral pleura
D) epicardium
A) parietal pericardium
B) fibrous pericardium
C) visceral pleura
D) epicardium
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41
What portion of the total blood volume is contained in the venous system?
A) 80%
B) 60%
C) 60%.
D) 40%
A) 80%
B) 60%
C) 60%.
D) 40%
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42
Which valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle?
A) tricuspid
B) pulmonary semilunar
C) aortic semilunar
D) bicuspid
A) tricuspid
B) pulmonary semilunar
C) aortic semilunar
D) bicuspid
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43
Which artery supplies blood to the left atrium and posterior wall of the left ventricle?
A) marginal branch of right coronary artery
B) posterior interventricular branch of right coronary artery
C) circumflex branch of left coronary artery
D) anterior interventricular branch of left coronary artery
A) marginal branch of right coronary artery
B) posterior interventricular branch of right coronary artery
C) circumflex branch of left coronary artery
D) anterior interventricular branch of left coronary artery
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44
Which vessels collect the venous blood from the posterior portion of the heart?
A) thebesian veins
B) coronary sinus
C) great cardiac vein
D) middle cardiac vein
A) thebesian veins
B) coronary sinus
C) great cardiac vein
D) middle cardiac vein
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45
Where is the vasomotor center located?
A) hypothalamus
B) medulla oblongata
C) pons
D) cerebral cortex
A) hypothalamus
B) medulla oblongata
C) pons
D) cerebral cortex
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46
What is the middle layer of the heart called?
A) myocardium
B) endocardium
C) pericardium
D) epicardium
A) myocardium
B) endocardium
C) pericardium
D) epicardium
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47
Which artery supplies blood to the posterior walls of the ventricles?
A) Which artery supplies blood to the posterior walls of the ventricles?
B) anterior interventricular branch of left coronary artery
C) circumflex branch of left coronary artery
D) posterior interventricular branch of right coronary artery
A) Which artery supplies blood to the posterior walls of the ventricles?
B) anterior interventricular branch of left coronary artery
C) circumflex branch of left coronary artery
D) posterior interventricular branch of right coronary artery
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48
Into what structures does the pulmonary trunk divide?
A) superior and inferior vena cava
B) right and left pulmonary veins
C) right and left pulmonary veins
D) right and left coronary arteries
A) superior and inferior vena cava
B) right and left pulmonary veins
C) right and left pulmonary veins
D) right and left coronary arteries
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49
Which vessels carry blood away from the heart?
A) veins
B) arteries
C) arterioles.
D) capillaries
A) veins
B) arteries
C) arterioles.
D) capillaries
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50
Which artery supplies blood to the interventricular septum?
A) marginal branch of right coronary artery
B) posterior interventricular branch of right coronary artery
C) circumflex branch of left coronary artery
D) circumflex branch of left coronary artery
A) marginal branch of right coronary artery
B) posterior interventricular branch of right coronary artery
C) circumflex branch of left coronary artery
D) circumflex branch of left coronary artery
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51
What is the term for a large collection of fluid in the pericardial sac that compresses the underlying structures?
A) hemathorax
B) pulmonary edema
C) pleural effusion
D) cardiac tamponade
A) hemathorax
B) pulmonary edema
C) pleural effusion
D) cardiac tamponade
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52
What is the name for the tube placed in arteries to structurally help prevent future blockage?
A) catheterization
B) stent
C) angioplasty
D) CABG
A) catheterization
B) stent
C) angioplasty
D) CABG
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53
Which vessels collect the venous blood from the anterior side of the heart?
A) thebesian veins
B) great cardiac veins
C) coronary sinus
D) middle cardiac vein
A) thebesian veins
B) great cardiac veins
C) coronary sinus
D) middle cardiac vein
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54
What is the inner layer of the heart called?
A) pericardium
B) myocardium
C) endocardium
D) epicardium
A) pericardium
B) myocardium
C) endocardium
D) epicardium
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55
Where does blood collected by the thebesian veins empty?
A) pulmonary artery
B) left ventricle
C) right and left atria
D) right ventricle
A) pulmonary artery
B) left ventricle
C) right and left atria
D) right ventricle
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56
Which structures connect the tricuspid valve leaflets to papillary muscles?
A) choanae
B) coronary ligaments
C) conchae
D) chordae tendinae
A) choanae
B) coronary ligaments
C) conchae
D) chordae tendinae
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57
From which layer of the heart wall is the electrical conduction system formed?
A) epicardium
B) myocardium
C) endocardium
D) pericardium
A) epicardium
B) myocardium
C) endocardium
D) pericardium
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58
What are the boundaries of the pulmonary vascular system?
A) aorta to right atrium
B) aorta to left ventricle
C) right atrium to left atrium
D) pulmonary trunk to left atrium
A) aorta to right atrium
B) aorta to left ventricle
C) right atrium to left atrium
D) pulmonary trunk to left atrium
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59
What is the term for the procedure in which a radiopaque dye is injected to outline the coronary arteries?
A) catheterization
B) coronary angiography
C) coronary bypass
D) angioplasty
A) catheterization
B) coronary angiography
C) coronary bypass
D) angioplasty
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60
Which valve lies at the base of the ascending aorta?
A) tricuspid
B) aortic semilunar
C) pulmonary semilunar
D) mitral
A) tricuspid
B) aortic semilunar
C) pulmonary semilunar
D) mitral
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61
What portion of the normal adult blood volume is contained in the pulmonary circulation?
A) 10%
B) 75%
C) 25%
D) 60%
A) 10%
B) 75%
C) 25%
D) 60%
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62
What would MAP equal if a patient had a blood pressure of 140/95?
A) 100
B) 95
C) 110
D) 80
A) 100
B) 95
C) 110
D) 80
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63
Which nerve innervates the carotid sinuses? IX cranial
A)
B) phrenic
C) X cranial
D) XI cranial
A)
B) phrenic
C) X cranial
D) XI cranial
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64
What is the term for ventilation of alveoli without perfusion?
A) silent units
B) shunt
C) anatomical dead space
D) alveolar dead space
A) silent units
B) shunt
C) anatomical dead space
D) alveolar dead space
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65
What is the relationship between VEDP and CO called?
A) Frank Starling curve
B) Doppler curve
C) Bachmann's curve
D) Fick's curve
A) Frank Starling curve
B) Doppler curve
C) Bachmann's curve
D) Fick's curve
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66
What is the normal systolic and diastolic pressure in the pulmonary system?
A) 25/8 mm Hg
B) 40/20 mm Hg
C) 120/80 mm Hg
D) 90/60 mm Hg
A) 25/8 mm Hg
B) 40/20 mm Hg
C) 120/80 mm Hg
D) 90/60 mm Hg
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67
What is the term for the moderate state of vascular contraction from continuous sympathetic stimulation?
A) vasomotor tone
B) hypercontraction
C) sensory overload
D) perpetual sympathesis
A) vasomotor tone
B) hypercontraction
C) sensory overload
D) perpetual sympathesis
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68
What does the cardiac output equal when stroke volume is 75 mL and heart rate is 80 beats/min?
A) 4800 mL
B) 6000 mL/min
C) 5600 mL
D) 7500 mL
A) 4800 mL
B) 6000 mL/min
C) 5600 mL
D) 7500 mL
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69
In the prone position, what is the gravity dependent area of the lungs?
A) apices only of both lungs
B) anterior portion of both lungs
C) bases only of both lungs
D) posterior portion of both lungs
A) apices only of both lungs
B) anterior portion of both lungs
C) bases only of both lungs
D) posterior portion of both lungs
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70
What is another name for baroreceptors?
A) chemoreceptors
B) juxtacapillary receptors
C) proprioceptors
D) pressoreceptors
A) chemoreceptors
B) juxtacapillary receptors
C) proprioceptors
D) pressoreceptors
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71
In a normal adult, what is the normal range for MAP?
A) 80-100
B) 100-120
C) 40-60
D) 60-80
A) 80-100
B) 100-120
C) 40-60
D) 60-80
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72
What portion of the normal adult blood volume is contained in the heart?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 35%
D) 25%
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 35%
D) 25%
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73
Which nerve innervates the baroreceptors in the aortic arch?
A) vagus
B) hypoglossal
C) glossopharyngeal
D) phrenic
A) vagus
B) hypoglossal
C) glossopharyngeal
D) phrenic
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74
What effect does hypovolemia have on ventricular preload?
A) What effect does hypovolemia have on ventricular preload?
B) As preload decreases, cardiac output decreases so BP would drop.
C) Ventricular preload is not affected by hypovolemia.
D) Ventricular preload is not affected by hypovolemia
A) What effect does hypovolemia have on ventricular preload?
B) As preload decreases, cardiac output decreases so BP would drop.
C) Ventricular preload is not affected by hypovolemia.
D) Ventricular preload is not affected by hypovolemia
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75
In the upright lung of a normal adult, which zone is considered to be gravity dependent?
A) Zone 3
B) Bottom of Zone 1
C) Top of Zone 1
D) Top of Zone 2
A) Zone 3
B) Bottom of Zone 1
C) Top of Zone 1
D) Top of Zone 2
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76
What is the actual blood pressure in the lumen of any vessel at any point, relative to barometric pressure?
A) intravascular pressure
B) transmural pressure
C) driving pressure
D) back pressure
A) intravascular pressure
B) transmural pressure
C) driving pressure
D) back pressure
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77
What is one of the primary goals of carotid sinus massage?
A) relieve neck tension
B) increase blood pressure
C) increase heart rate
D) slow patient's heart rate
A) relieve neck tension
B) increase blood pressure
C) increase heart rate
D) slow patient's heart rate
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78
What is the average volume of blood contained in the pulmonary capillary bed of a healthy adult?
A) 250 mL
B) 75 mL
C) 150 mL
D) 500 mL
A) 250 mL
B) 75 mL
C) 150 mL
D) 500 mL
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79
In the normal adult, what is the driving pressure of the systemic circulatory system?
A) 78 mm Hg
B) 40 mm Hg
C) 98 mm Hg
D) 10 mm Hg
A) 78 mm Hg
B) 40 mm Hg
C) 98 mm Hg
D) 10 mm Hg
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80
In Case Study 1, the patient's blood pressure was 78/42 mm Hg. What would her MAP equal?
A) 62 mm Hg
B) 36 mm Hg
C) 68 mm Hg
D) 54 mm Hg
A) 62 mm Hg
B) 36 mm Hg
C) 68 mm Hg
D) 54 mm Hg
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