Deck 13: Donor Selection

Question 1

Which of the following is the only pheresis procedure that requires administration of a growth factor to the donor?

A) Plasmapheresis
B) Plateletpheresis
C) Leukopheresis
D) Erythrocytapheresis

Answer 1

C

Question 2

A woman received a transfusion of packed RBCs while delivering her baby. Six months later she wanted to donate a unit of blood back to the American Red Cross. If the woman meets all other criteria for donation, is she allowed to donate at this time?

A) Yes, she can donate at this time.
B) No, she needs to wait 3 more months.
C) No, she needs to wait 6 more months.
D) No, she should be on permanent deferral.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

A whole blood donor who has taken Tegison should be:

A) accepted.
B) deferred for 3 months.
C) permanently deferred.
D) deferred for 6 months.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Who is NOT included in the documentation process in the decision to use preoperative autologous blood?

A) Blood Bank medical director
B) Blood Bank staff
C) Patient
D) Patient's physician

Question 5

What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential allogeneic donor?

A) 11 g/dL
B) 12 g/dL
C) 12.5 g/dL
D) 14 g/dL

Question 6

For which of the following cases would intraoperative autologous collection NOT be contraindicated?

A) Abdominal surgery where there is potential for contamination of the surgical site by bowel contents.
B) Surgery on a pregnant mother where there is potential for contamination of the surgical site by amniotic fluid.
C) Orthopedic surgery where there is a risk of bacterial contamination.
D) Cardiac surgery where there is no risk of contamination with clotting agents.

Question 7

How many times can a person meeting all the optimal criteria donate an apheresis unit of platelets per year?

A) 56 times
B) 112 times
C) 24 times
D) 48 times

Question 8

A world traveler came in to do a directed donation for his sister when he found out she needed surgery for her hip. After spending 5 weeks in Europe, he traveled extensively throughout Africa. How should his case be handled?

A) Because he is donating to his sister, and she signed consent, he may donate for her.
B) He meets all the criteria for being a directed donor, so he would be able to donate without any problem.
C) He would not be able to donate, because all directed donors must meet the same criteria as allogeneic donors.
D) He could donate, but only with the consent of the medical director and physician.

Question 9

A blood donor with a history of hepatitis B should be excluded:

A) only if he or she is jaundiced.
B) only if the disease has been active for the last 5 years.
C) permanently.
D) only if liver function tests are abnormal.

Question 10

Which of the following tests is not optional for the transfusing facility for an autologous donation?

A) Group & type
B) Antibody screen
C) Crossmatch
D) Viral studies

Question 11

The following blood donors regularly give blood. Which donor may donate on September 11th?

A) A 40-year-old woman who last donated on July 25th
B) A 28-year-old man who had plateletpheresis on August 24th
C) A 52-year-old man who made an autologous donation on September 9th
D) A 23-year-old woman who made a direct donation for her aunt on August 14th

Question 12

Which of the following tests is optional for the collecting facility for an autologous donation?

A) ABO group
B) Rh type
C) Antibody screen
D) Viral studies

Question 13

A patient who recently stopped taking clopidogrel (Plavix) needs to donate platelets. How long must the patient defer donation after completing the medication?

A) 24 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 7 days
D) 14 days

Question 14

What is the deferral period for a donor who has received a live attenuated vaccine for rubella?

A) 2 weeks
B) 4 weeks
C) no deferral period
D) 8 weeks

Question 15

There is a decreased risk of each of these when using autologous donations EXCEPT:

A) alloimmunization.
B) bacterial contamination.
C) disease transmission.
D) transfusion reactions.

Question 16

If a prospective blood donor has participated in a pheresis donation (platelets, plasma, granulocytes), at least how much time must pass before he or she can donate whole blood?

A) 56 days
B) 48 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 4 weeks

Question 17

Autologous blood donations may occur as:

A) preoperative collection
B) intraoperative collection
C) postoperative collection.
D) all of these

Question 18

What is the last time a patient can donate for an autologous unit before surgery?

A) 1 day before the scheduled surgery
B) 3 days before the scheduled surgery
C) 1 week before the scheduled surgery
D) 3 weeks before the scheduled surgery

Question 19

What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential autologous donor?

A) 11 g/dL
B) 12 g/dL
C) 12.5 g/dL
D) 14 g/dL

Question 20

An autologous unit should be donated what time period prior to the patients surgery/need?

A) 72 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 1 week
D) 24 hours

Question 21

A donor has fainted during blood collection. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action?

A) Remove the tourniquet and withdraw needle.
B) Place warm compresses on the donor's forehead.
C) Raise the donor's legs above the level of the head.
D) Loosen tight clothing and secure airway.

Question 22

Which of the following serologic tests is required for directed donations?

A) HepB
B) HIV
C) FTA
D) All of these

Question 23

When should mixing of the blood bag be performed?

A) After the bag is fully collected
B) Periodically during collection
C) Constantly
D) Never

Question 24

Blood product collections and component manufacturing, but not donor selection, is regulated by the:

A) AABB.
B) CBER.
C) CLIA.
D) FDA.

Question 25

Nausea, twitching, and muscle spasm during blood donations are categorized as:

A) severe reactions.
B) moderate reactions.
C) mild reactions.
D) normal reactions.

Question 26

In addition to signs experienced during a mild reaction to blood donation, a moderate reaction includes which of the following?

A) Loss of consciousness
B) Increased pulse rate
C) Hypoventilation
D) Rise in blood pressure

Question 27

Which of the following accredits blood banks?

A) CAP
B) CBER
C) CLIA
D) CMS

Question 28

How are pilot tubes for donor serologic testing collected?

A) A separate blood collection is performed prior to donation.
B) A separate blood collection is performed after donation.
C) Blood is collected from tubing connected to a needle in the donor's arm.
D) Blood is collected from the tubing coming out of the blood bag.

Question 29

A 4-week deferral is required of donors exposed to which of these organisms?

A) Babesia
B) Ebola
C) Zika
D) All of these

Question 30

Treating an occurrence of hematoma development during blood donation involves:

A) removing the tourniquet and needle from donor's arm.
B) keeping the donor's arm lowered.
C) ensuring no pressure is placed on the site.
D) applying a warm compress to the site.

Question 31

A donor exposed to which of these organisms may be able to donate in as soon as 2 weeks?

A) Babesia
B) Ebola
C) Zika
D) All of these

Question 32

Donor arm preparation must be repeated if which of the following occurs?

A) The donor bends the arm.
B) The prepared site is touched with the fingers.
C) A nonsterile object comes in contact with the prepared site.
D) All of these occurrences

Question 33

An 8-week deferral is required of donors exposed to which of these organisms?

A) Babesia
B) Ebola
C) Zika
D) All of these

Question 34

Which of the following may be a sign of a potential fainting event?

A) Sweating
B) Dizziness
C) Pallor
D) All of these

Question 35

In order for a donor to be infected with West Nile Virus he/she must be bitten by a mosquito that has first bitten which reservoir host?

A) Birds
B) Humans
C) Small mammals
D) Any of these

Question 36

Ensuring the presence of an adequate airway is most important in which type of blood donation reaction?

A) Severe reactions
B) Moderate reactions
C) Mild reactions
D) All of these

Question 37

Which of the following statement is true regarding directed donations?

A) Only a family member can donate as a directed donor.
B) The usual viral studies can be skipped in directed donation.
C) Directed donations may need irradiation to prevent GVHD.
D) None of these statements is true.

Question 38

Which statement concerning a hematoma is true?

A) A hematoma is a localized collection of blood under the skin.
B) A hematoma is reddish in color because of all the blood pooling.
C) A hematoma is caused by not inserting the needle deep enough to go through the vein.
D) If a hematoma develops, stop blood collection only if the bag is full.

Question 39

Convulsions may occur during blood donation as a result of:

A) cerebral ischemia.
B) epilepsy.
C) marked hyperventilation.
D) any of these

Question 40

A blood transfusion service is scheduled for an inspection. Which of the following agencies may be conducting the inspection?

A) AABB
B) CAP
C) FDA
D) Any of these

Question 41

How long is the donation deferral for persons who visit malaria-endemic countries?

A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) Indefinitely

Question 42

A U.S. military officer was deployed to Belgium from 1982 to 1985. How long is his deferment from blood donations once returning to the United States?

A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) Indefinitely

Question 43

Donors must be screened for which virus that causes a neurological disorder of myelopathy?

A) HTLV
B) HIV
C) HCV
D) HBV

Question 44

Which is the most economical way to test for West Nile Virus?

A) ID-NAT with follow-up by MP-NAT on positives
B) MP-NAT with follow-up by ID-NAT on positives
C) Either method
D) Neither method

Question 45

Donors must be screened for which virus that causes a neurological disorder of myelopathy?

A) HTLV
B) HIV
C) HCV
D) HBV

Question 46

Which of these countries is NOT a malaria-endemic country?

A) Afghanistan
B) Angola
C) Argentina
D) Austria

Question 47

A 25-year-old patient who had travelled to Ireland in the last year has been experiencing neurological abnormalities since returning to the United States several months ago. Which of the following is most likely?

A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease with no accumulation of prion proteins
B) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease with an accumulation of prion proteins
C) Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease with no accumulation of prion proteins
D) Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease with an accumulation of prion proteins

Question 48

A donor who was repeatedly reactive with anti-HBc may be considered for reentry if after 8 weeks if which of these tests are negative?

A) HBsAg
B) anti-HBc
C) HBV NAT
D) All of these must be negative.

Question 49

Prions are:

A) bacteria that are deactivated by heat.
B) protozoan parasites that hide in brain tissue.
C) spongiform organisms that resist deactivation.
D) viruses that are deactivated by ultraviolet light.

Question 50

A 75-year-old patient who had recently undergone a cornea transplant 6 months ago is suddenly experiencing neurological abnormalities. Which of the following is most likely?

A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease with no accumulation of prion proteins
B) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease with an accumulation of prion proteins
C) Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease with no accumulation of prion proteins
D) Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease with an accumulation of prion proteins