Deck 14: Transfusion-Transmitted Diseases

Question 1

What is the causative agent for Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

A) Rickettsia rickettsii
B) Borrelia burgdorferi
C) Dolichos biflorus
D) Ehrlichia

Answer 1

A

Question 2

How is the hepatitis A virus usually spread?

A) Oral-fecal route
B) Blood transfusion
C) Sexual transmission
D) None of the above

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Which test for HIV infection depends on amplification of HIV integrated in the DNA of infected cells?

A) Western blot
B) Polymerase chain reaction
C) Immunofluorescence
D) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

Answer 3

B

Question 4

The hepatitis B virus belongs to which family?

A) Picornaviridae
B) Hepadnaviridae
C) Flaviviridae
D) Retroviridae

Question 5

Which of the following parasites has not been associated with transmission via blood transfusion?

A) Trypanosoma cruzi
B) Plasmodium spp.
C) Leishmania
D) None of the above

Question 6

The cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus belong to which family of viruses?

A) Flaviviridae
B) Retroviridae
C) Herpesviridae
D) Picornaviridae

Question 7

HIV belongs to which family?

A) Flaviviridae
B) Retroviridae
C) Hepadnaviridae
D) Picornaviridae

Question 8

What treatment is recommended for chronic liver disease due to hepatitis C virus infection?

A) Gamma globulin
B) Prednisone
C) Alpha interferon
D) Gamma interferon

Question 9

According to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), an HIV-positive person is considered to have AIDS according to what criterion?

A) Presence of anti-p24
B) Presence of anti-gp41
C) Fewer than 200 CD8+ T cells per µL
D) Fewer than 200 CD4+ T cells per µL

Question 10

A person infected with HIV-1 is diagnosed with AIDS-related condition (ARC). What antibodies will be present in the patient's serum at this stage?

A) Anti-p24
B) Anti-gp41
C) Anti-p26
D) Anti-p24 and anti-gp41

Question 11

Why is transmission of cytomegalovirus (CMV) through blood components not a significant risk to most recipients?

A) Most recipients are CMV-positive.
B) Most recipients are CMV-negative.
C) The CMV cannot tolerate cold storage temperatures.
D) None of the above

Question 12

Which test can reveal an asymptomatic patient with TAH?

A) BUN
B) AST
C) ALT
D) Amylase

Question 13

This disease can be transmitted through blood transfusion and is characterized by sponge-like lesions of the brain.

A) Cytomegalovirus
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
D) Chagas' disease

Question 14

American Association of Blood Banks (AABB) Standards mandate the donor of blood or a component given to a recipient who develops clinical or laboratory evidence of transfusion-associated hepatitis (TAH), HIV infection, or HTLV-I/II infection must be permanently deferred if the unit was:

A) a directed donation.
B) the only unit transfused.
C) one of four transfused to the recipient.
D) positive for cytomegalovirus.

Question 15

HBsAg is what part of the hepatitis B virus?

A) Core protein
B) Coat protein
C) Dane particle
D) Capsid protein

Question 16

What is the incubation period of hepatitis A virus in transfusion-associated hepatitis?

A) 40 to 60 days
B) 90 to 180 days
C) 20 to 40 days
D) 1 to 20 days

Question 17

Which two infectious agents share the same vector?

A) Rickettsia and Leishmania
B) Babesia and Borrelia
C) Borrelia and Plasmodium
D) Babesia and Trypanosoma

Question 18

In the HIV-1 virus is a core protein.

A) gp41
B) p24
C) p55
D) p16

Question 19

The hepatitis C virus is thought to be included in which family?

A) Hepadnaviridae
B) Retroviridae
C) Flaviviridae
D) Picornaviridae

Question 20

A blood donor's serologic tests were reactive for HIV-1/2 antibodies. The test was repeated, and both were reactive. A Western blot confirmatory test was done and was negative. What is the protocol for this donor?

A) Unit is discarded.
B) Health department is notified.
C) Unit is OK to use.
D) Donor is permanently deferred.

Question 21

Which statement regarding HDV is true?

A) The HDV is a DNA virus.
B) A carrier of hepatitis B virus cannot contract HDV infection.
C) Most HDV infections occur via blood transfusion.
D) HDV can occur simultaneously with hepatitis B virus.

Question 22

What marker usually is not detected when the hepatitis B-infected patient enters the convalescent phase?

A) Anti-HBc
B) HBsAg
C) HBeAg
D) Anti-HBe

Question 23

Which of the following findings is not part of the typical pattern of hepatitis A infection?

A) Anti-HAV IgM antibodies
B) Anti-HAV IgG antibodies
C) Virus in stool
D) Elevated ALT

Question 24

Which of the following statements regarding the Western blot confirmation test for HIV infection is false?

A) Viral components are distributed according to molecular weights.
B) Most persons with AIDS show bands to p24 and gp41.
C) Interpretation of test depends upon degree of immunofluorescence.
D) A purified viral lysate is dissolved in SDS and separated by PAGE electrophoresis.

Question 25

Which cell is invaded by the HIV viruses?

A) Monocyte
B) Neutrophil
C) Lymphocyte
D) Basophil

Question 26

Why are donors deferred for 6 months following receipt of blood products?

A) To permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections
B) Because donation may cause recurrence of the condition that required transfusion
C) To allow clearance of all transfused cells in the donor
D) To allow donor recovery from the condition that required transfusion

Question 27

Persons infected with the hepatitis C virus may develop what disease?

A) Chronic liver disease
B) Cirrhosis
C) Hepatocellular carcinoma
D) All of the above

Question 28

How can hepatitis A infection be prevented?

A) Plasma protein fraction (PPF)
B) Normal serum albumin (NSA)
C) Immune serum globulin (ISG)
D) Fresh frozen plasma (FPP)

Question 29

Which test is now used in the processing of all source plasmas for pathogen inactivation verification?

A) DAT
B) ELISA
C) HPLC
D) NAT

Question 30

Pathogen inactivation intervention includes all of these EXCEPT:

A) albumin's pasteurization.
B) anion-exchange chromatography.
C) cold-ethanol fractionation.
D) millipore filtration.

Question 31

Which of the following is indicated when a recipient of blood or blood components develops a viral disease?

A) Transfusion-reaction investigation
B) Donor look-back
C) Incident report
D) Type and screen

Question 32

The most sensitive test for the detection of HIV infection is the:

A) polymerase chain reaction.
B) Western blot.
C) immunofluorescence.
D) Southern blot.

Question 33

The "look-back" process includes notifying donors of abnormality with:

A) predonation evaluation.
B) laboratory testing.
C) recipient follow-up.
D) all of these.

Question 34

Which of the following is not included in the signs and symptoms of TAH?

A) Jaundice
B) Splenomegaly
C) Dark urine
D) Acholic stools

Question 35

A single donor tested positive for HIV-1 via enzyme immunoassay screening techniques. The blood was retested and found to be nonreactive. What is the status of the donor whole blood unit?

A) A confirmatory test should be performed.
B) Blood and components are okay for use.
C) The unit should be discarded.
D) The donor should be placed on the re-entry list.

Question 36

Which of the following patients would be at a greater risk for CMV infection?

A) An autologous transplant recipient
B) A low-birth-weight infant transfused with CMV-negative blood
C) An allogenic bone marrow transplant recipient
D) None of the above

Question 37

The hepatitis A virus belongs to which family of viruses?

A) Retroviridae
B) Flaviviridae
C) Hepadnaviridae
D) Picornaviridae

Question 38

Which of the following viral infections poses a severe threat to chronically transfused individuals who carry the hepatitis B virus (HBV)?

A) Superinfection by hepatitis C virus (HCV)
B) Infection with hepatitis G virus (HGV)
C) Superinfection by hepatitis D virus (HDV)
D) Non-A, non-B, non-C virus (NANBNC virus)

Question 39

In an individual infected with hepatitis B virus, which of the following is detected first?

A) HBsAg
B) HBeAg
C) anti-HBc
D) anti-HBs

Question 40

What is the source of hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG)?

A) Persons with a high titer of anti-HBc(IgG)
B) Persons with a high titer of anti-HBe
C) Persons with a high titer of anti-HBs
D) Persons with a high titer of anti-HBc(IgM)

Question 41

Pathogen inactivation using psoralen activated by ultraviolet light is most effective in:

A) whole blood.
B) plasma.
C) RBC concentrates.
D) platelet concentrates.

Question 42

Lipid-enveloped viruses are inactivated by use of:

A) alcohol.
B) cold.
C) detergents.
D) heat.

Question 43

The current risk of enveloped virus transmission is very low because of:

A) heat treatment.
B) detergent treatment.
C) nanofiltration methods.
D) a combination of all of these.

Question 44

Pathogen reduction systems may not be effective against which agents?

A) Prions
B) Low-titer viruses
C) Enveloped viruses
D) Bacteria without spores

Question 45

A person with acute hepatitis B infection is immune to infection from other hepatitis viruses.