Deck 11: Pre-Transfusion Testing

Question 1

Where can an identification band be placed on a double arm amputee?

A) Ankle
B) Head
C) Torso
D) All of these

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Which patient information is NOT acceptable as one of the two identifiers?

A) Assigned fictitious name
B) Date of birth
C) Hair and skin color
D) Medical record number

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Electronic crossmatching

A) does not eliminate the need for a serologic crossmatch.
B) must confirm current with historical recipient's ABO group.
C) disregards discrepancies between recipient and donor unit.
D) allows the antibody screening to be eliminated.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Why are monoclonal anti-D reagents preferred over the slide test reagents?

A) They contain a low protein concentration and are not prone to false-positive reactions.
B) They contain a high protein concentration and are not prone to false-negative reactions.
C) They contain albumin, which acts as a potentiator.
D) None of the above

Question 5

The label on the recipient's pretransfusion specimen

A) cannot be a barcode.
B) need not include phlebotomist ID.
C) must duplicate patient wristband information.
D) must be affixed prior to collection.

Question 6

Blood is collected Saturday in the emergency room for possible transfusion. The patient is admitted to the hospital and on Wednesday it is determined that the transfusion is truly needed.

A) The specimen can be used for a crossmatch because the patient did not yet receive blood.
B) The specimen must be recollected because the patient's location at the facility has changed.
C) The specimen must be recollected because more than 3 days have passed.
D) The specimen must be recollected because it must be collected the same day as the crossmatch.

Question 7

All of the following procedures might be done in an investigation of an ABO discrepancy except:

A) increasing incubation time for reverse grouping.
B) secretor studies.
C) neutralization studies with urine.
D) testing with anti-A₁ lectin.

Question 8

What test(s) are involved when a physician orders a 4-unit crossmatch on a patient?

A) IS crossmatch
B) AHG crossmatch
C) ABO, Rh, antibody screen, IS crossmatch
D) ABO, Rh, DAT, IS crossmatch

Question 9

Immediate spin resulting in agglutination may be caused by

A) matching ABO groups between donor and recipient.
B) cold reacting allo- or autoantibodies.
C) too much saline in the reagents used.
D) prewarming the specimens.

Question 10

If an intrauterine transfusion is indicated, which of the following is acceptable?

A) Red blood cells typing the same the mother
B) Nonirradiated units of blood are preferred.
C) Only type O red blood cells
D) Units with concentrated white blood cells

Question 11

Which of the following would prolong labeling of the packed red blood cell unit?

A) Nonreactive STS
B) Anti-K in donor plasma
C) ALT = 31 U/L
D) None of the above

Question 12

Which cells are used for a donor's antibody screen?

A) Screening cells (2 vials)
B) Pooled screening cells (2 donors)
C) Screening cells (3 vials)
D) Autologous cells

Question 13

How are 8 units of cryoprecipitate usually issued?

A) As eight individual units
B) As one pooled unit
C) As four multiple units of two
D) None of the above

Question 14

Which of the following might be used to investigate a cold autoantibody?

A) Titration
B) Rabbit erythrocyte stroma
C) Elution
D) A2 cells

Question 15

A 40-year-old male presented in the ER with acute bleeding. The technologist received a specimen but was unable to resolve a typing discrepancy between the forward and reverse typings. What blood type should the patient receive for emergency transfusion?

A) Type-specific uncrossmatched packed RBCs
B) O-negative crossmatched packed RBCs
C) O-negative uncrossmatched packed RBCs
D) Electronic crossmatched blood

Question 16

What one forward-typing reagent can be used to confirm O units collected from another facility?

A) Anti-A
B) Anti-B
C) Anti-A,B
D) Anti-H

Question 17

A positive DAT may be seen in:

A) warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
B) cold agglutinin syndrome.
C) hemolytic transfusion reaction.
D) all of the above.

Question 18

A three-cell antibody screening set provides antigen expression in all major blood group systems except Kell.

A) homozygous
B) heterozygous
C) homogenous
D) heterogenous

Question 19

In which section of the blood bank laboratory would blood be issued for transfusion?

A) Component preparation and storage
B) Donor processing
C) Main laboratory
D) Reference laboratory

Question 20

Why is reviewing a potential recipient's historical data important?

A) Antibodies from previous transfusions can decrease to undetectable levels.
B) Current medications may produce unusual results.
C) Donor units must be negative antigens to previous antibodies even if none are currently present.
D) All of these are reasons to review patient historical data.

Question 21

Which of the following options are suitability requirements for product labeling?

A) Absence of detectable antibodies
B) No discrepancies in ABO and Rh testing
C) Nonreactive viral marker tests
D) All of the above

Question 22

Possible reasons for incompatibilities after initial spin during a crossmatch include:

A) new alloantibody in recipient's plasma.
B) alloantibody to a low-incidence present is on the donor unit red blood cells.
C) warm-reactive autoantibody is present in the recipient's plasma.
D) all of these reasons.

Question 23

Which patient is most likely to require irradiated products?

A) Patient undergoing a bone marrow transplant
B) Patient undergoing open heart surgery
C) Newborn
D) Geriatric patient

Question 24

A proper blood bank specimen is good for how many days after it is drawn from a patient that has had a prior transfusion within 90 days?

A) 24 hours
B) 3 days
C) 7 days
D) 14 days

Question 25

All of the following viral tests are required for donor processing except:

A) HBsAg
B) CMV
C) anti-HIV
D) anti-HTLV-I

Question 26

It is December 1, 2017, and you irradiate an O-negative packed RBC that you have in inventory, which outdates January 5, 2018. What will the new outdate be for that unit?

A) December 2, 2017
B) December 3, 2017
C) December 29, 20172
D) January 5, 2018

Question 27

Why would an Rh type be ordered on a cord blood sample?

A) To determine mother's candidacy for RhIG if she is Rh-negative
B) To determine mother's candidacy for RhIG if she is Rh-positive
C) Because the mother had a spontaneous abortion
D) None of the above

Question 28

Why can the Rh-hr control be eliminated from donor processing?

A) An Rh-positive unit of blood typed as an Rh-negative would only be transfused to an Rh-positive patient.
B) An Rh-negative unit of blood typed as an Rh-positive would only be transfused to an Rh-negative patient.
C) An Rh-negative unit of blood typed as an Rh-positive would only be transfused to an Rh-positive patient.
D) None of the above

Question 29

The advantages of electronic crossmatching as compared to serologic crossmatch include

A) less specimen is required.
B) less time is required.
C) automatic alters of discrepancy.
D) all of these.

Question 30

Personalized medicine involves:

A) individualized treatment for patients.
B) prevention of alloimmunization.
C) the use of a national database.
D) all of these. .

Question 31

A STAT type and screen comes from surgery. Your institution uses a blood bank band ID bracelet system. The nurse who obtained specimens did not label them with the blood bank number before she handed them to transport to take to the laboratory. What would be the most appropriate action to take?

A) Call surgery and have the nurse come down and properly label the specimens.
B) Accept the specimen as is.
C) Reject the specimen and have it recollected.
D) Label the specimen yourself and continue with testing.

Question 32

In which department of the blood bank laboratory would an ABO discrepancy be resolved?

A) Component preparation and storage
B) Donor processing
C) Main laboratory
D) Reference laboratory

Question 33

Patient blood management programs:

A) are based on patient evidence.
B) ensure an increasing demand for blood components.
C) prevent the detection and treatment of anemia.
D) restrict the use of transfusion triggers.

Question 34

What is the main concern for obstetric patients in prenatal testing?

A) Antibody that causes hemolytic transfusion reaction
B) Drug-induced antibody
C) Antibody that causes hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)
D) Autoantibodies

Question 35

Which of the following would lead to nonacceptance of a blood bank specimen?

A) Initials of phlebotomist not on specimen
B) A patient name spelled incorrectly
C) An erroneous Social Security number
D) All of the above