Deck 15: Digestive System: Salivary Glands, alimentary Canal, and Biliary System

Question 1

Radiographic examination of the salivary glands using contrast medium is called:

A) parotitis.
B) angiography.
C) sialography.
D) sialostenosis.

Answer 1

sialography.

Question 2

The area identified in the figure below is the:

A) fundus.
B) body.
C) cardiac antrum.
D) greater curvature.

Answer 2

fundus.

Question 3

Where does the submandibular duct open into the oral cavity?

A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar

Answer 3

In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum

Question 4

How long is the entire alimentary canal?

A) 5 feet
B) 10 feet
C) 20 feet
D) 30 feet

Question 5

How many pairs of salivary glands are in the mouth?

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

Question 6

The area identified in the figure below is the:

A) fundus.
B) angular notch.
C) cardiac antrum.
D) lesser curvature.

Question 7

The part of the stomach identified in the figure below is the:

A) greater curvature.
B) pyloric antrum.
C) pyloric canal.
D) pyloric sphincter.

Question 8

The muscle controlling the opening between the stomach and the duodenum is termed the:

A) pylorus.
B) pyloric sphincter.
C) pyloric antrum.
D) ileocecal valve.

Question 9

The stomach wall is composed of how many layers?

A) One
B) Two
C) Four
D) Five

Question 10

How many natural constrictions are in the esophagus?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Question 11

For which type of body habitus is the stomach almost horizontal?

A) Sthenic
B) Asthenic
C) Hyposthenic
D) Hypersthenic

Question 12

The salivary glands produce how much saliva each day?

A) 0.25 L
B) 0.50 L
C) 1 L
D) 1.5 L

Question 13

The expanded portion of the terminal esophagus is called the:

A) cardiac notch.
B) abdominal esophagus.
C) cardiac antrum.
D) esophagogastric junction.

Question 14

Which salivary gland is located on the floor of the mouth?

A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular and sublingual

Question 15

Which gland is identified in the figure below?

A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Thymus

Question 16

The hard palate is formed by the:

A) ethmoid and vomer.
B) ethmoid and palatine bone.
C) maxillae and vomer.
D) maxillae and palatine bone.

Question 17

For which type of body habitus is the stomach nearly vertical?

A) Sthenic
B) Asthenic
C) Hyposthenic
D) Hypersthenic

Question 18

Which salivary glands are the largest?

A) Parotid
B) Submandibular
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular and sublingual are equal in size

Question 19

Where does the parotid duct open into the oral cavity?

A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar

Question 20

Which of the following is not one of the salivary glands?

A) Tonsil
B) Parotid
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular

Question 21

Which two regions of the abdomen are almost entirely occupied by the liver?

A) Epigastrium and left hypochondrium
B) Right hypochondrium and epigastrium
C) Right lateral and umbilical
D) Umbilical and left lateral

Question 22

What is the length of the average adult small intestine?

A) 10 feet
B) 12 feet
C) 20 feet
D) 22 feet

Question 23

The anatomy labeled with the arrow in this figure is the:

A) cystic duct.
B) common hepatic duct.
C) common bile duct.
D) pancreatic duct.

Question 24

The gallbladder functions to:

A) produce and secrete bile.
B) store and concentrate bile.
C) regulate digestion of fatty acids.
D) break down toxins in the bloodstream.

Question 25

The small intestine is divided into how many distinct portions?

A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Eight

Question 26

The area of the colon identified in the figure below is the:

A) left colic flexure.
B) right colic flexure.
C) ascending colon.
D) descending colon.

Question 27

The opening between the small intestine and the large intestine is called the:

A) ileocecal valve.
B) ampulla of Vater.
C) pyloric valve.
D) greater duodenal papilla.

Question 28

The contraction waves by which the digestive tube moves its contents toward the rectum are called:

A) respiration.
B) peristalsis.
C) mastication.
D) deglutition.

Question 29

The wall of the colon is composed of how many layers?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four

Question 30

The exocrine cells of the pancreas function to produce and secrete:

A) bile.
B) insulin.
C) glucagon.
D) digestive juice.

Question 31

The area of the colon identified in the figure below is the:

A) cecum.
B) ileum.
C) sigmoid.
D) rectum.

Question 32

The jejunum and ileum are attached to the posterior wall of the abdomen by the:

A) haustra.
B) iliacus muscle.
C) psoas muscle.
D) mesentery.

Question 33

The area of the colon identified in the figure below is the:

A) cecum.
B) ileum.
C) rectum.
D) sigmoid.

Question 34

The two vessels that supply blood to the liver are the:

A) portal vein and hepatic artery.
B) portal artery and hepatic vein.
C) portal vein and cystic artery.
D) cystic vein and portal artery.

Question 35

The widest portion of the small bowel is the:

A) ileum.
B) duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) sigmoid.

Question 36

What is the length of the large intestine?

A) 3 feet
B) 5 feet
C) 7 feet
D) 8 feet

Question 37

The vermiform appendix of the colon is attached to the:

A) cecum.
B) ileum.
C) sigmoid.
D) ascending colon.

Question 38

The wall of the small intestine is composed of how many coats?

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

Question 39

The largest gland in the body is the:

A) liver.
B) spleen.
C) pancreas.
D) duodenum.

Question 40

The most distal portion of the small intestine is the:

A) ileum.
B) pylorus.
C) jejunum.
D) duodenum.

Question 41

At which level is the IR centered for a PA projection of the stomach and duodenum?

A) T12/L1
B) L1/L2
C) L2/L3
D) Iliac crests

Question 42

The most common contrast medium used for radiologic examinations of the gastrointestinal tract is:

A) air.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) barium sulfate.
D) water-soluble iodine.

Question 43

Which drug may be given to the patient before a double-contrast examination of the stomach to relax the gastrointestinal tract?

A) Heparin
B) Glucagon
C) Demerol
D) Oral chlorhydrate

Question 44

All of the following are the essential projections for an esophagus series,except:

A) AP axial oblique.
B) AP.
C) lateral.
D) PA oblique.

Question 45

One of the most important technical considerations in gastrointestinal radiography is:

A) elimination of motion.
B) speed of the examination.
C) production of a high-contrast image.
D) production of a high-resolution image.

Question 46

What is the recommended general body position for a radiographic series of the esophagus?

A) Upright
B) Recumbent
C) Seated
D) Trendelenburg

Question 47

Food and fluid should be withheld for how many hours before a stomach examination?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 12

Question 48

What is the degree of body rotation for the PA oblique projection of the esophagus?

A) 20 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) 20 to 30 degrees
D) 35 to 40 degrees

Question 49

What is the absolute maximum exposure time for images of the GI tract to avoid imaging peristaltic motion?

A) 0.01 second
B) 0.05 second
C) 0.1 second
D) 0.5 second

Question 50

Which position is used for the PA oblique projection of the esophagus?

A) 25 to 30 degree LAO
B) 25 to 30 degree RAO
C) 35 to 40 degree LAO
D) 35 to 40 degree RAO

Question 51

A PA projection of the stomach and duodenum is often performed using a 14 * 17-inch (35 * 43 cm) exposure field.Which of the following describes the plane that is centered to the grid for this projection?

A) The midsagittal plane
B) A sagittal plane passing 4 inches to the right of the vertebral column
C) A sagittal plane passing 4 inches to the left of the vertebral column
D) A sagittal plane passing halfway between the midline and the lateral border of the abdomen

Question 52

Which structure is air-filled on double-contrast images of the stomach obtained in the PA oblique projection,RAO position?

A) Pylorus
B) Body
C) Fundus
D) Duodenal loop

Question 53

What is the recommended oblique projection and position for the best demonstration of the esophagus?

A) AP,LAO
B) AP,LPO
C) PA,RAO
D) PA,LAO

Question 54

Which of the following best describes the administration of barium for an esophagram being performed for esophageal varices?

A) Swallow the barium,inhale.
B) Swallow the barium,exhale.
C) Exhale,swallow the barium,hold breath out.
D) Inhale,swallow the barium,hold breath out.

Question 55

In which abdominal quadrant is the spleen located?

A) LUQ
B) RUQ
C) LLQ
D) RLQ

Question 56

The patient "prep" for a morning stomach examination is food and fluid are withheld:

A) after midnight.
B) after the evening meal.
C) for 12 hours.
D) for 24 hours.

Question 57

How much lower should the IR be positioned when the upright position is used for projections of the stomach?

A) to 1 inch
B) 2 to 2inches
C) 4 to 5 inches
D) 3 to 6 inches

Question 58

How long does it take barium to go through the alimentary canal and reach the rectum?

A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 36 hours
D) 48 hours

Question 59

A PA projection of the stomach and duodenum can be performed using a 10 * 12-inch (24 * 30 cm)exposure field.Which of the following describes the plane that is centered to the grid for this projection?

A) The midsagittal plane
B) A sagittal plane passing 4 inches to the right of the vertebral column
C) A sagittal plane passing 4 inches to the left of the vertebral column
D) A sagittal plane passing halfway between the midline and the lateral border of the abdomen

Question 60

What is the respiration phase for all radiographic exposures of the stomach and intestines?

A) Inspiration
B) Expiration
C) Suspended respiration
D) Slow,shallow breathing

Question 61

Which examination requires the use of time markers on the images?

A) Stomach
B) Small intestine
C) Large intestine
D) ERCP

Question 62

Which of the following will demonstrate the duodenal bulb and loop in profile?

A) PA
B) PA oblique,RAO
C) AP oblique,LPO
D) AP oblique,RPO

Question 63

What is the average degree of body rotation for an AP oblique projection of the stomach and duodenum?

A) 45 degrees
B) 50 degrees
C) 55 degrees
D) 60 degrees

Question 64

The primary importance of preparation of the intestinal tract for examination of the colon is that:

A) it improves retention of contrast.
B) it decreases risk of adverse reactions.
C) it eliminates the need for a scout image.
D) retained fecal matter can simulate pathology.

Question 65

Which projection of the stomach is demonstrated in this figure?

A) PA
B) PA oblique
C) AP oblique
D) Lateral

Question 66

Where is the IR centered for delayed images of the small intestine?

A) Level of the iliac crests
B) 1 inch above the iliac crests
C) 2 inches above the iliac crests
D) At the costal margin/L3

Question 67

The degree of body rotation for the PA oblique projection of the stomach will depend on the body habitus.The greatest degree of rotation would be used for which body habitus?

A) Sthenic
B) Asthenic
C) Hypersthenic
D) Hyposthenic

Question 68

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the fundus of the stomach?

A) PA
B) AP oblique,LPO
C) PA oblique,LAO
D) PA oblique,RAO

Question 69

The patient preparation for a small intestine examination is food and fluid withheld:

A) after the evening meal.
B) after the evening meal and no breakfast.
C) for 12 hours.
D) for 24 hours.

Question 70

For which radiographic exams of the GI tract is "high-density" barium sulfate used?

A) enteroclysis
B) single-contrast
C) double-contrast
D) modified barium swallow

Question 71

How much is the body rotated for the PA oblique projection of the stomach and duodenum?

A) 10 to 20 degrees
B) 15 to 45 degrees
C) 30 to 60 degrees
D) 40 to 70 degrees

Question 72

Which projection of the stomach would best demonstrate a diaphragmatic herniation?

A) PA
B) AP
C) AP,Trendelenburg position
D) AP,R lateral decubitus

Question 73

In which position should the patient be placed to insert the enema tip for a barium enema?

A) Sims
B) Trendelenburg
C) Lithotomy
D) Right lateral

Question 74

Which of the following planes is centered to the grid for the PA oblique projection of the stomach and duodenum?

A) Midsagittal plane
B) A longitudinal plane passing 4 inches to the right of the vertebral column
C) A longitudinal plane passing 4 inches to the left of the vertebral column
D) A longitudinal plane midway between the vertebrae and the lateral border of the elevated side

Question 75

Which of the following planes is positioned to the center of the grid for the lateral projection of the stomach and duodenum?

A) Midcoronal plane
B) A coronal plane passing 2 inches posterior to the median coronal plane
C) A coronal plane passing 2 inches anterior to the median coronal plane
D) A plane passing midway between the midcoronal plane and the anterior surface of the abdomen

Question 76

Where is the IR centered for images of the small intestine that are taken within 30 minutes of drinking the barium?

A) Level of the iliac crests
B) 1 inch above the iliac crests
C) 2 inches above the iliac crests
D) At the costal margin/L3

Question 77

The degree of body rotation for an AP oblique stomach radiographic images ranges from _____ degrees.

A) 20 to 30
B) 30 to 40
C) 40 to 50
D) 30 to 60

Question 78

At which level is the IR centered for an AP or PA oblique stomach and duodenum?

A) L1/L2
B) L2/L3
C) L3/L4
D) Iliac crests

Question 79

Inflation of the retention balloon for a barium enema should be inflated by the:

A) radiographer without fluoroscopy.
B) radiologist using fluoroscopy.
C) radiographer using fluoroscopy.
D) radiologists without fluoroscopy.

Question 80

Which projection of the stomach demonstrates its anterior and posterior surfaces?

A) PA
B) Lateral
C) AP oblique,LPO
D) PA oblique,RAO