Deck 4: Infectious Diseases
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Deck 4: Infectious Diseases
1
Pericoronitis is most often associated with the:
A) maxillary canines.
B) mandibular third molars.
C) maxillary second molars.
D) mandibular first molars.
A) maxillary canines.
B) mandibular third molars.
C) maxillary second molars.
D) mandibular first molars.
mandibular third molars.
2
Which of the following statements is true concerning a positive reaction to the PPD skin test?
A) The patient has active tuberculosis.
B) The patient is contagious.
C) The patient has been infected previously with Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D) The patient is in need of hospitalization.
A) The patient has active tuberculosis.
B) The patient is contagious.
C) The patient has been infected previously with Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D) The patient is in need of hospitalization.
The patient has been infected previously with Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
3

A) acute marginal gingivitis.
B) primary herpes infection.
C) necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
D) pseudomembranous candidiasis.
necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
4
Which one of the following does not occur in impetigo?
A) Itching
B) Pruritus
C) Regional lymphadenopathy
D) Fever
A) Itching
B) Pruritus
C) Regional lymphadenopathy
D) Fever
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5
Candidiasis is an overgrowth of a:
A) yeastlike fungus.
B) spirochete.
C) filamentous bacterium.
D) fusiform bacillus.
A) yeastlike fungus.
B) spirochete.
C) filamentous bacterium.
D) fusiform bacillus.
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6
Which of the following statements is not true about syphilis?
A) Dark-field examination may be used to diagnose syphilitic lesions on the skin.
B) Syphilis is generally treated with penicillin.
C) The VDRL and FTA-ABS tests are commonly used to confirm the diagnosis of syphilis.
D) The antibody titer increases if treatment has been successful.
A) Dark-field examination may be used to diagnose syphilitic lesions on the skin.
B) Syphilis is generally treated with penicillin.
C) The VDRL and FTA-ABS tests are commonly used to confirm the diagnosis of syphilis.
D) The antibody titer increases if treatment has been successful.
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7
Which of the following conditions does not contribute to the overgrowth of Candida albicans?
A) Antibiotic therapy
B) Dentures
C) Cancer chemotherapy
D) Angioedema
A) Antibiotic therapy
B) Dentures
C) Cancer chemotherapy
D) Angioedema
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8
Tonsillitis and pharyngitis are caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci. These conditions are significant because of their relationship to scarlet fever and rheumatic fever. Which one of the following may be related to heart valve damage?
A) Rheumatic fever
B) Strawberry tongue
C) Scarlet fever
D) Geographic tongue
A) Rheumatic fever
B) Strawberry tongue
C) Scarlet fever
D) Geographic tongue
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9
The most characteristic form of this disease is the formation of abscesses that tend to drain from the mandible to the skin by the formation of sinus tracts, with sulfur granules in the pus draining from the sinus tracts.
A) Actinomycosis
B) Tuberculosis
C) Syphilis
D) Impetigo
A) Actinomycosis
B) Tuberculosis
C) Syphilis
D) Impetigo
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10
Which of the following is used to treat impetigo?
A) Antiviral medications
B) Topical or systemic antibiotics
C) Corticosteroids
D) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents
A) Antiviral medications
B) Topical or systemic antibiotics
C) Corticosteroids
D) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents
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11
Which one of the following is associated with scarlet fever?
A) Black hairy tongue
B) Median rhomboid glossitis
C) Scrofula
D) Strawberry tongue
A) Black hairy tongue
B) Median rhomboid glossitis
C) Scrofula
D) Strawberry tongue
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12
Acute osteomyelitis of the jaws may commonly result from which of the following conditions?
A) Extension of a periapical abscess
B) Surgery
C) Fracture of the jaw
D) Paget disease
A) Extension of a periapical abscess
B) Surgery
C) Fracture of the jaw
D) Paget disease
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13
Involvement and enlargement of the submandibular and cervical lymph nodes in tuberculosis is called:
A) miliary tuberculosis.
B) lymphadenopathy.
C) scrofula.
D) angioedema.
A) miliary tuberculosis.
B) lymphadenopathy.
C) scrofula.
D) angioedema.
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14
In primary syphilis the oral lesion is called:
A) a mucous patch.
B) a chancre.
C) a gumma.
D) an ulcer.
A) a mucous patch.
B) a chancre.
C) a gumma.
D) an ulcer.
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15
Which of the following is the name of the the soft tissue flap that covers the distal-occlusal part of an incompletely erupted third molar?
A) Operculum
B) Gingival flap
C) Pericoronitis
D) Partial eruption flap
A) Operculum
B) Gingival flap
C) Pericoronitis
D) Partial eruption flap
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16
Which disease is caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Actinomycosis
C) Syphilis
D) Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
A) Tuberculosis
B) Actinomycosis
C) Syphilis
D) Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
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17
Parenteral means :
A) administered by mouth.
B) administered by injection.
C) an abnormal sensation such as tingling or prickling.
D) malaise.
A) administered by mouth.
B) administered by injection.
C) an abnormal sensation such as tingling or prickling.
D) malaise.
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18
Congenital syphilis may cause a specific form of enamel hypoplasia called:
A) mottling.
B) mulberry molars.
C) Turner tooth.
D) pitting of teeth.
A) mottling.
B) mulberry molars.
C) Turner tooth.
D) pitting of teeth.
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19
Which antigen is injected into the skin to determine exposure and infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A) HLA-B27
B) PPD
C) VDRL
D) IgE
A) HLA-B27
B) PPD
C) VDRL
D) IgE
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20
The most common sites for oral lesions in tuberculosis is/are the:
A) tongue and palate.
B) gingiva.
C) floor of the mouth and mucobuccal folds.
D) uvula and fauces.
A) tongue and palate.
B) gingiva.
C) floor of the mouth and mucobuccal folds.
D) uvula and fauces.
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21
The varicella-zoster virus causes a highly contagious disease in children called:
A) shingles.
B) chickenpox.
C) mumps.
D) measles.
A) shingles.
B) chickenpox.
C) mumps.
D) measles.
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22
Verruca vulgaris closely resembles a papillary benign tumor of squamous epithelium called:
A) fibroma.
B) papilloma.
C) lipoma.
D) Heck disease.
A) fibroma.
B) papilloma.
C) lipoma.
D) Heck disease.
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23
Which of the following viruses is associated with infectious mononucleosis?
A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Human papilloma virus
C) Epstein-barr virus
D) Varicella-zoster virus
A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Human papilloma virus
C) Epstein-barr virus
D) Varicella-zoster virus
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24
Which of the following types of medication is used for the treatment of herpes zoster?
A) Antibiotic
B) Antiviral
C) Supportive therapy only, no drug therapy
D) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug
A) Antibiotic
B) Antiviral
C) Supportive therapy only, no drug therapy
D) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug
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25

A) hypersensitivity.
B) genetic predisposition.
C) sexual abuse.
D) autoimmune disease.
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26
Deep fungal infections include all of the following except:
A) histoplasmosis.
B) coccidioidomycosis.
C) blastomycosis.
D) actinomycosis.
A) histoplasmosis.
B) coccidioidomycosis.
C) blastomycosis.
D) actinomycosis.
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27
Which one of the following does not occur as a manifestation of the immune deficiency caused by HIV infection?
A) Candidiasis
B) Hairy leukoplakia
C) Kaposi sarcoma
D) Bilateral parotid atrophy
A) Candidiasis
B) Hairy leukoplakia
C) Kaposi sarcoma
D) Bilateral parotid atrophy
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28

A) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
B) Kaposi sarcoma
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Hemangioma
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29

A) Pseudomembranous candidiasis
B) Angular cheilitis
C) Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
D) Chronic atrophic candidiasis
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30
In HIV which of the following tests identifies the viral titer rather than circulating antibody?
A) VDRL
B) ELISA
C) Western Blot
D) PCR
A) VDRL
B) ELISA
C) Western Blot
D) PCR
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31
In herpes labialis the amount of virus present is highest in the:
A) crusted stage.
B) prodromal stage.
C) vesicle stage.
D) healing stage.
A) crusted stage.
B) prodromal stage.
C) vesicle stage.
D) healing stage.
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32
The intraoral lesion seen in patients with measles is:
A) minor salivary gland swelling.
B) generalized painful gingivitis.
C) Koplik spots.
D) candidiasis.
A) minor salivary gland swelling.
B) generalized painful gingivitis.
C) Koplik spots.
D) candidiasis.
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33
The initial infection and signs and symptoms of deep fungal infections, including histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, and blastomycosis, are usually related to disease in which of the following locations?
A) Lung
B) Kidney
C) Lymph nodes
D) Nasal cavity
A) Lung
B) Kidney
C) Lymph nodes
D) Nasal cavity
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34

A) White hairy tongue
B) Hairy leukoplakia
C) Mononucleosis
D) Kaposi sarcoma
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35
In testing for HIV infection, which of the following antibody tests is performed initially before the confirmatory Western Blot test?
A) VDRL
B) ELISA (EIA)
C) FTA-ABS
D) CBC
A) VDRL
B) ELISA (EIA)
C) FTA-ABS
D) CBC
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36
Herpangina is caused by which virus:
A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Epstein-barr virus
C) Varicella-zoster virus
D) Coxsackievirus
A) Herpes simplex virus
B) Epstein-barr virus
C) Varicella-zoster virus
D) Coxsackievirus
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37

A) Candidiasis
B) Hairy leukoplakia
C) Herpes simplex
D) Heck disease
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38
The most common form of recurrent herpes simplex infection is called:
A) herpes zoster.
B) herpetic whitlow.
C) herpes labialis.
D) type 2 herpes.
A) herpes zoster.
B) herpetic whitlow.
C) herpes labialis.
D) type 2 herpes.
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39
The most common type of candidiasis affecting the oral mucosa is:
A) pseudomembranous type.
B) erythematous type.
C) chronic atrophic type.
D) chronic hyperplastic type.
A) pseudomembranous type.
B) erythematous type.
C) chronic atrophic type.
D) chronic hyperplastic type.
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40
Another name for verruca vulgaris is:
A) condyloma acuminatum.
B) common wart.
C) Heck disease.
D) focal epithelial hyperplasia.
A) condyloma acuminatum.
B) common wart.
C) Heck disease.
D) focal epithelial hyperplasia.
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