Deck 2: Causal Factors and Viewpoints

Question 1

While having a gene for Parkinson's Disease guarantees that Parkinson's Disease will develop, this is not the only factor that can lead to Parkinson's disease. In other words, the presence of the gene is a , but not a _.

A) contributory cause; sufficient cause.
B) sufficient cause; necessary cause.
C) risk factor; sufficient cause.
D) necessary cause; risk factor.

Answer 1

sufficient cause; necessary cause.

Question 2

Suppose that the presence of a particular gene is a sufficient cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) All people with schizophrenia will have that gene.
B) The gene is also a necessary cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia.
C) There are other things besides this gene that can cause schizophrenia.
D) A person with that gene may or may not become schizophrenic.

Answer 2

There are other things besides this gene that can cause schizophrenia.

Question 3

The loss of a parent may be

A) a diathesis and/or a stressor.
B) a diathesis.
C) a stressor.
D) Neither a diathesis nor a stressor.

Answer 3

a diathesis and/or a stressor.

Question 4

Suppose that the presence of a particular gene is a necessary cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) There are other things besides this gene that can cause schizophrenia.
B) The gene is also a sufficient cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia.
C) A person with that gene may or may not become schizophrenic.
D) Most people with schizophrenia will have that gene.

Question 5

While not all people who develop lung cancer are smokers, the likelihood of developing lung cancer is increased in those who smoke. In other words, with respect to cancer, smoking can be described as a

A) contributory cause.
B) etiological anomaly.
C) sufficient cause.
D) necessary cause.

Question 6

In order to develop chicken pox, one must be exposed to the virus that causes chicken pox. Note, however, that not everyone who is exposed to the virus is affected. In other words, the virus is a

A) risk factor.
B) contributory cause.
C) sufficient cause.
D) necessary cause.

Question 7

Suppose that low self-esteem is a diathesis for developing depression later in life. This means that

A) low self-esteem is a proximal trigger for depression.
B) people with low self-esteem have a predisposition for developing depression.
C) people who currently are depressed will have low self-esteem.
D) the psychological processes associated with low self-esteem are the trigger for depression.

Question 8

A diathesis can best be described as a

A) sufficient cause.
B) proximal causal factor.
C) necessary cause.
D) contributory cause.

Question 9

Understanding the causes of mental disorders is important because

A) classification of disorders can not be done without such information.
B) effective treatment is not possible without such an understanding.
C) disagreements about the the causes of psychopathology have long limited the advancements made in the study of abnormal psychology.
D) such knowledge might make both the prevention and cure of mental disorders possible.

Question 10

One prominent theory of the origin of depression hypothesizes that, if one becomes hopeless about his or her future, then he or she will become depressed. Thus, in this theory, hopelessness may be said to be a ________ cause of depression.

A) distal
B) sufficient
C) necessary
D) contributory

Question 11

Etiology is

A) a condition that makes it less likely a person will experience the negative consequences of stress.
B) the causal pattern of a disorder.
C) a condition that tends to maintain maladaptive behavior.
D) a predisposition towards developing a disorder.

Question 12

A factor that increases the probability of a disorder but neither guarantees that the disorder will develop, nor is necessary for the disorder to occur, is a

A) necessary cause.
B) etiological anomaly.
C) sufficient cause.
D) contributory cause.

Question 13

In the diathesis-stress model, a diathesis is

A) a biological vulnerability that virtually guarantees the development of the disorder.
B) a sufficient cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms.
C) a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms.
D) a distal necessary or contributory cause of a mental disorder.

Question 14

Often a mental illness develops shortly after some traumatic event has happened in one's life. The event that seems to have caused the illness can be described as a

A) sufficient cause.
B) necessary cause.
C) distal causal factor.
D) proximal causal factor.

Question 15

Ryan, age 8, was cut from the school soccer team. After the initial disappointment, he became a boy scout, which he really enjoyed. Now as an adult, when he didn't get into graduate school, rather than become depressed, Ryan found a job in his field that he enjoys, and plans to try again later. This is an example of

A) a necessary and sufficient cause.
B) the steeling or inoculation effect of some stressful experiences.
C) the diathisis - stress theory.
D) the interactive model of the diathesis - stress theory.

Question 16

In the diathesis-stress model, a stressor is

A) a distal, sufficient cause of a mental disorder.
B) a necessary or contributory cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms.
C) a biological vulnerability.
D) a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms.

Question 17

Dr. Fox studies the causes of depression. In other words, she looks at factors that play a role in the ________ of depression.

A) epidemiology
B) resiliency
C) etiology
D) prevalence

Question 18

If having a gene for Parkinson's Disease guarantees that Parkinson's Disease will develop, the presence of the gene can be described as a

A) sufficient cause.
B) necessary cause.
C) contributory cause.
D) risk factor.

Question 19

Causal factors that occur early in life are considered causes.

A) sufficient
B) contributory
C) distal
D) proximal

Question 20

A predisposition towards developing a disorder

A) increases the likelihood of developing any given disorder by 50%.
B) necessarily is biological.
C) necessarily is a psycho-social stressor.
D) is called a diathesis.

Question 21

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Genes do not affect biochemical processes.
B) The genes that will be expressed in an individual are not affected by experience.
C) Genes play a role in most mental disorders.
D) Most behavioral disorders are determined exclusively by genes.

Question 22

What is the focus of the field of developmental psychopathology?

A) To discover and improve the environmental factors that can contribute to a child later developing a mental illness.
B) To understand what is within the range of normal development so as to have a better understanding of what is abnormal.
C) Understanding how critical incidents in childhood affect people as adults.
D) Understanding how disorders develop over time.

Question 23

The disorders first recognized as having biological bases are best characterized as disorders that

A) involved significant damage to brain tissue.
B) did not cause neurological damage.
C) resulted from contact with other animal species.
D) were characterized by neurochemical imbalances.

Question 24

Reuptake of neurotransmitters is

A) the process by which neurotransmitters are repeatedly released into the synapse.
B) the process by which neurotransmitters stimulate the post-synaptic neuron to fire.
C) the process by which neurotransmitters are reabsorbed by the axon.
D) the process by which neurotransmitters are connected to hormones.

Question 25

Norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, and GABA are all

A) forms of neurotransmitters called amino acids that can cause brain damage.
B) hormones that affect behavior.
C) catecholamines that inhibit nerve impulses.
D) neurotransmitters that are involved in psychopathology.

Question 26

Which of the following most accurately describes the notion of different viewpoints of abnormal behavior?

A) Each viewpoint accurately describes the causes and symptoms of 2-3 different disorders.
B) All viewpoints are equally valid.
C) Only the biological viewpoint has been studied experimentally.
D) Each viewpoint offers its own explanation of abnormal behavior.

Question 27

Dr. Simon, a psychiatrist, takes a biopsychosocial viewpoint of psychopathology. Which of the following treatments is he most likely to suggest for Julia's current state of depression?

A) a prolonged vacation
B) family therapy and a change in her work environment
C) intense psychotherapy
D) a combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs

Question 28

Suppose the re-uptake of a specific neurotransmitter were deficient and the deactivation enzymes associated with the neurotransmitter were also deficient. What effect would this have?

A) There would be more of the neurotransmitter in the synapse.
B) There would be less of the neurotransmitter in the synapse.
C) The neurons would become especially sensitive to the neurotransmitter.
D) Since the two deficiencies would balance each other out, there would be no change in the levels of the neurotransmitter.

Question 29

When psychologists say that a person shows resilience it means

A) that regardless of the stresses the person faces, they will feel no emotional distress.
B) the person has not been faced with significant stressors.
C) the person can successfully adapt and survive in threatening circumstances.
D) recovering from traumatic events without the need for psychological protective factors.

Question 30

Cortisol is a hormone that

A) the adrenal gland produces that mobilizes the body to deal with stress.
B) the pituitary gland releases to stimulate the adrenal gland.
C) reduces the reuptake of the monamine neurotransmitters.
D) is released by the hypothalamus and travels to the pituitary gland, causing it to respond.

Question 31

Which of the following is true?

A) Most mental disorders are caused by psychological factors.
B) Most mental disorders are caused by neurological damage.
C) Most mental disorders have a simple biological explanation.
D) Most mental disorders are not caused by neurological damage.

Question 32

The site of communication between two neurons is the

A) synapse.
B) nucleus.
C) neurotransmitter.
D) vesicle.

Question 33

When examining heredity, mental disorders are almost always

A) caused by recessive genes.
B) caused by one particular gene.
C) caused by multiple genes.
D) not caused by genes.

Question 34

Normally, the enzyme monoamine oxidase is involved in the breaking down of some neurotransmitters. This process is called

A) inhibitory transmission.
B) recapture.
C) deactivation.
D) re-uptake.

Question 35

According to the text, which of the following has not been identified as a potential protective factor?

A) high intelligence
B) an outgoing personality
C) a warm and supportive parent
D) exposure to moderate stressors

Question 36

Which statement about neural communication is accurate?

A) All neurotransmitters increase the likelihood that the postsynaptic neuron will transmit a message.
B) The reason neural messages are transmitted from cell to cell is because they physically touch each other.
C) Neurotransmitters released into the synapse determine whether messages are sent from one neuron to another.
D) The part of the neuron that receives messages is called the synapse.

Question 37

What do genes consist of?

A) trisomes
B) proteins
C) DNA
D) chromosomes

Question 38

Damage to the pituitary would most likely lead to

A) depression.
B) death.
C) a hormonal imbalance.
D) a deficiency of catecholamines.

Question 39

A protective factor is

A) a distal causal factor for a mental disorder.
B) a biological make-up that makes people more resistant to stress.
C) an influence that modifies a persons response to genetic problems.
D) an influence that modifies a persons response to environmental stressors.

Question 40

Mental disorders are almost always influenced by multiple genes. This means they are

A) chemical circuits.
B) polygenic.
C) easy to discover.
D) probands.

Question 41

If trait is highly heritable, it would be expected that

A) the concordance rate for dizygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for monozygotic twins.
B) the concordance rate for dizygotic twins would be close to 100%.
C) the concordance rate for dizygotic twins and monozygotic twins would be comparable.
D) the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for dizygotic twins.

Question 42

Tracy and Shahid are both 3 months old. Tracy is highly active, easily irritated, and cries easily. Shahid is quiet, adapts easily to change, and seems fearless. These differences illustrate

A) the fact that personality is more influenced by the environment than by genetics.
B) how physical handicaps can have a genetic origin.
C) the impact of shared environmental influences.
D) differences in temperament.

Question 43

The genetic influences that determine behavior may never be fully understood due to

A) the inability of research to differentiate between the effects of the environment and the effects of genes.
B) our limited understanding of how genes impact brain chemistry.
C) the tendency to rely upon twin studies in genetic research.
D) the likelihood that most behaviors are determined by the interaction of many genes.

Question 44

Which of the following is NOT a common method for studying genetic influences?

A) the study of specific gene defects
B) twin studies
C) family history pedigree) studies
D) adoption studies

Question 45

Andrea and her parents are shy and quiet. Her parents never take Andrea to any activities where there are many people. They buy her books and crafts that she can do by herself. This shows

A) an evocative effect of genotype on environment.
B) an active effect of genotype on environment.
C) a lack of genotype-environment correlation.
D) a passive effect of genotype on environment.

Question 46

If fraternal twins are more likely to be concordant for a trait than other siblings, can it be concluded that the higher concordance rate is due to the greater degree of genetic relatedness?

A) Yes.
B) Yes, but only if the siblings studied are of the same sex and age.
C) No, because fraternal twins are no more genetically alike than other siblings.
D) No, because the greater similarity can be attributed to environmental influence.

Question 47

Children born with a genetic predisposition to be introverted

A) are also predisposed to develop many psychological disorders.
B) developed this genetic predisposition because of genetic mutations occurring after birth.
C) can become truly extraverted if they are encouraged to do so.
D) are likely to be more or less introverted depending on childhood experiences growing up.

Question 48

George and Logan are brothers. They live in a small apartment in the city with some other relatives. Their family is extremely poor. Their father is hardest on George, the eldest, and sometimes physically abuses him. Which environmental factor is likely to be more important in the later adjustment of George and Logan?

A) Their poverty.
B) The physical abuse.
C) The fact that they live with other family members.
D) The overcrowding of their living situation.

Question 49

Which of the following statements about brain dysfunction and psychiatric disorders is FALSE?

A) Identifiable brain damage is often the cause of psychiatric disorders.
B) Changes in brain function appear to play a role in many psychiatric disorders.
C) Brain development can be altered by experience, potentially leading to changes in the brain that increase the risk of developing a psychiatric condition.
D) Brain damage may increase the risk of developing a psychiatric condition.

Question 50

Attractive children and unattractive babies tend to be treated differently. In other words, an infant's physical phenotype may alter how others respond to him or her. What type of genotype-environment correlation is this an example of?

A) evocative
B) persuasive
C) passive
D) active

Question 51

Todd and his siblings have parents who are physically abusive to each other. When they fight, they expect Todd to stay quiet and keep the other children under control. They allow the other children to cry and hide, but Todd must stay in the room with them and referee. This is an example of

A) a genotype-environment correlation.
B) a protective factor.
C) a shared environmental influence.
D) a nonshared environmental influence.

Question 52

Which of the following is NOT a misconception about genetic influence on behavior?

A) If a disorder has a strong genetic influence, environmental factors are unimportant.
B) Many genetic effects on psychological characteristics increase with age.
C) Disorders that run in families are genetically based.
D) Genetic research strategies are of no use for studying environmental influences.

Question 53

Ian was predisposed to being very aggressive with his peers in school, who responded by rejecting him. Later in life Ian began to associate with other aggressive youth and to participate in a variety of delinquent behaviors. This is an example of

A) the way the genotype may shape the phenotype.
B) a phenotypic diathesis.
C) polygenic expression.
D) phenotypic vulnerability to aggression.

Question 54

Genes

A) determine how a person will behave.
B) determine the range of characteristics a person has.
C) cause people to develop mental disorders.
D) determine what characteristics a person will have.

Question 55

Which of the following strives to describe the location of genes responsible for mental disorders?

A) association studies
B) twin studies
C) family histories
D) adoption studies

Question 56

Highly coordinated children are picked out at an early age by coaches and given special opportunities to excel at sports. Extraverted children seek out social situations and become unusually comfortable with strangers. Both of these phenomena illustrate

A) how the environment shapes one's genetic endowment.
B) genotype-environment correlations.
C) the polygenic effect of chromosomes on behavior.
D) the power of the phenotype over the genotype.

Question 57

An child consistently identified as behaviorally inhibited is most likely to

A) be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder in adulthood.
B) be an outgoing adult.
C) have been born prematurely.
D) develop conduct disorder.

Question 58

Suppose that, using linkage analysis, a researcher finds that family members with a high likelihood of developing depression also are very likely to be of below average height. This would mean

A) having depression causes people not to grow as tall as they would if they didn't have depression.
B) the gene for depression is probably located near the gene for height.
C) being short is a contributory factor for depression.
D) height and depression are probably caused by the same gene.

Question 59

Which method for studying genetic influences fails to control for the possible effect of sharing a common environment?

A) association studies
B) linkage analysis
C) pedigree method
D) adoption method

Question 60

Which of the following is an example of a nonshared environmental influence?

A) death of a parent
B) family economic status
C) sibling rivalry
D) divorce

Question 61

Which psychosocial perspective was initially developed through laboratory research?

A) behavioral
B) humanistic
C) psychodynamic
D) biological

Question 62

Neural plasticity is

A) the process by which neurotransmitters are broken down in the brain.
B) strong evidence of brain damage, leading to the development of a mental disorder.
C) the flexibility of the brain existing neural circuits can change or new ones can be made.
D) the best indicator of temperament and its effect on the personality development of a child.

Question 63

After cheating on her husband, Julia accused her husband of cheating on her. Such behavior is explained by which of the following defense mechanism?

A) rationalization
B) projection
C) sublimation
D) displacement

Question 64

Which of the following elements of the personality can be described as impulsive and selfish?

A) id
B) ego
C) ideal self
D) superego

Question 65

Newer psychodynamic perspectives

A) disregard most elements of Freud's theories.
B) emphasize the role of the id.
C) recognize intrapsychic conflicts as a primary determinant of behavior.
D) do not view the libido as a primary determinant of behavior.

Question 66

What do the three psychosocial viewpoints addressed in this chapter all have in common?

A) All focus on changing disordered thinking processes as a means of treating psychological conditions.
B) Each recognizes the role of biological factors in the the development of mental illness, but views the role of such factors differently.
C) All view people as basically good.
D) All emphasize the impact of early experiences.

Question 67

Learning not to do something because you are punished when you do it is an example of

A) generalization.
B) instrumental conditioning.
C) observational learning.
D) classical conditioning.

Question 68

One of Freud's major contribution to current perspectives of mental disorders is

A) the concept of the Oedipal complex.
B) the concept of the Electra complex.
C) the concept of the unconscious and how it can affect behavior.
D) the understanding of the three structures of personality.

Question 69

Freud's view of mental disorders was that they were a result of

A) problematic tendencies we develop while dealing with our early interpersonal environments.
B) genetic abnormalities that influence people's ability to cope with their environment.
C) learned maladaptive behaviors that were rewarded with attention.
D) unresolved conflicts between the id, the ego and the superego.

Question 70

After being bitten by a dog, Jose finds that he feels afraid whenever he sees a dog. He goes for treatment, where he is gradually exposed to dogs, until he can be in the same room with a dog without feeling any fear. Three weeks later, while walking in his neighborhood, Jose hears a dog barking viciously. For a few weeks after this, his fear returns. This shows

A) extinction.
B) stimulus-stimulus expectancy.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) the treatment didn't really work.

Question 71

Which of the following did Freud believed played a causal role in the development of most forms of psychopathology?

A) unresolved conflicts between the ego and the superego
B) anxiety
C) fixation in the oral stage
D) depression

Question 72

Behaviorists suggest maladaptive behavior can be a result of

A) extinction.
B) a poor response-outcome expectancy.
C) failure to learn adaptive behaviors.
D) lack of generalization of behaviors.

Question 73

Due to , we can learn from the experiences of others.

A) generalization
B) classical conditioning
C) instrumental conditioning
D) observational learning

Question 74

Defense mechanisms

A) make a person feel more anxious and have more problems, because they begin to act defensively.
B) are strategies the id uses to try to achieve what it desires.
C) help a person feel less anxious, but because they usually work by distorting reality, they are not always adaptive.
D) are conscious, intentional attempts to cope in an effective way with an anxiety provoking event.

Question 75

Alicia developed a fear of spiders after being bitten by one. However, she has no problems catching fireflies. This is an example of

A) generalization.
B) instrumental conditioning.
C) intrapsychic conflict.
D) discrimination.

Question 76

Biological discoveries

A) have lessened the subjectivity of definitions of abnormal.
B) have lead to a recognition of the role that genetic factors and other biological influences play in the development of many disorders.
C) make it clear that mental disorders are diseases and should be dealt with by the medical profession.
D) demonstrate that the environment plays only a minimal role in the development of psychopathology.

Question 77

If a response has been learned through conditioning, it would be appropriate to treat it using the process of

A) stimulus-stimulus expectancy.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) displacement.
D) extinction.

Question 78

After being bitten by a dog, Jose finds that he feels afraid whenever he sees a dog. In classical conditioning terms, the dog can be described as an)

A) unconditioned response.
B) conditioned stimulus.
C) conditioned response.
D) unconditioned stimulus.

Question 79

Which of the following is a criticism of traditional psychoanalytic theory?

A) underemphasis on the sex drive
B) lack of scientific evidence
C) overly positive view of women
D) too much focus on symptoms and not enough on underlying causes

Question 80

The interpersonal perspective

A) emphasizes social rather than inner determinants of behavior.
B) was introduced by Erik Erikson.
C) is the most influential humanistic perspective today.
D) arose as a reaction against the unscientific methods of psychoanalysis.