Deck 13: Cognitive Disorders

Question 1

Damage to the temporal lobes of the brain is most likely to result in

A) impulsivity.
B) blindness.
C) forgetfulness.
D) passivity.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

A person who has experienced destruction of brain tissue may have widespread or limited behavioral deficits. The outcome depends upon all of the following EXCEPT

A) whether the person is male or female.
B) the person's predisorder personality or intellectual competence.
C) the location of the brain damage.
D) the person's total life situation.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Ruth experienced a stroke which severely damaged her occipital lobe. We can expect that she has an impairment in her ability to

A) understand what she sees.
B) do mathematical and word problems.
C) walk in a coordinated fashion.
D) think and talk using good judgment.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Focal brain damage is most likely to be a consequence of

A) poison ingestion.
B) oxygen deprivation.
C) malnutrition.
D) stroke.

Question 5

Which of the following is a good example of a person with an impairment of orientation?

A) Joe, who once thought he was a homosexual but now thinks he is heterosexual.
B) Lois, who must constantly be reminded of what to do next when she is getting dressed.
C) Karla, who cannot accurately draw objects or copy designs on a piece of paper.
D) Marlon, who is not sure where he is or what month or year it is.

Question 6

Delirium

A) can occur in a person of any age.
B) reflects severe brain damage.
C) develops slowly.
D) affects perception.

Question 7

When Mrs. Thomason experienced a stroke, a small area of her brain was deprived of oxygenated blood. This resulted in a

A) focal lesion.
B) psychopathological dementia.
C) diffuse lesion.
D) diffuse brain injury.

Question 8

Jerry had a stroke several months ago. Among the changes his family has noticed is that he now blows up over little things, cries over minor problems and laughs at anything, no matter how silly. Jerry is showing

A) affective blunting.
B) focal brain damage.
C) impairment of affective modulation.
D) impairment of receptive and expressive communication.

Question 9

Anosognosia is an inability to

A) see, although physically the eyes are fine.
B) move parts of the body.
C) make realistic self-appraisals.
D) understand language.

Question 10

The terms functional and organic are no longer found in the DSM. Functional was previously used to indicate a ________ origin while organic was used to refer to brain damage of with an) cause.

A) psychological; biological
B) acute; chronic
C) genetic; environmental
D) known; unknown

Question 11

An individual with neuropsychological damage

A) will not usually show manifest signs of psychopathology such as panic attacks or delusions.
B) usually manifests symptoms of psychopathology that are the opposite of the person's predisorder personality.
C) will almost always evidence moderate to severe psychopathology, including hallucinations and delusions.
D) will develop psychopathological symptoms only when areas of the frontal cortex have been damaged.

Question 12

Damage to the ________ lobes of the brain is most associated with memory loss; damage to the ________ lobes of the brain is most associated with passivity or impulsiveness.

A) temporal; frontal
B) frontal; temporal
C) parietal; occipital
D) parietal; temporal

Question 13

The extent of the deficits seen after brain damage are determined in part by

A) genetic factors.
B) how one is functioning before the damage occurs.
C) the drugs a person was on.
D) chemical imbalances in the brain.

Question 14

Mild to moderate diffuse brain damage is most likely to result in

A) altered sleep patterns.
B) attention deficits.
C) mood disturbance.
D) visual distortions.

Question 15

All of the following are reasons why cognitive disorders are addressed in an abnormal text EXCEPT

A) brain damage can lead to psychological symptoms.
B) psychological conditions can signal the onset of brain damage.
C) some brain disorders cause symptoms that look like mood and anxiety disorders.
D) these disorders are considered to be psychopathological conditions.

Question 16

Major brain damage

A) sometimes causes minor changes and sometimes major ones.
B) causes minor changes.
C) causes changes to personality only.
D) causes major changes.

Question 17

Someone with focal brain damage in their left hemisphere

A) will have problems with understanding new situations.
B) will have anterograde amnesia.
C) will have problems with processing language.
D) will have problems with nonverbal reasoning.

Question 18

Which of the following psychopathological symptoms is commonly seen in neuropsychological disorders?

A) dissociative episodes
B) delusions
C) cognitive deficits
D) panic attacks

Question 19

Which of the following statements about the brain is true?

A) Brain damage rarely results in cognitive changes.
B) The brain is protected only by the skull.
C) The human brain typically weights about 5 pounds.
D) The skull is designed to support as much as 2 tons of weight.

Question 20

It is important that mental health professionals have an understanding of the effects of brain damage because

A) most of their patients will have brain damage.
B) the effects of most forms of brain damage are reversible.
C) many of the medications used to treat psychopathology cause brain damage.
D) brain damage can result in symptoms that look like psychological conditions.

Question 21

The presence of delirium in a patient after surgery or other health problems

A) is a sign that the patient is getting better.
B) means the patient is going to develop additional health problems and almost certainly is going to die.
C) means that the patient will develop dementia within a year of having delirium.
D) means the patient will probably be in the hospital longer, have more health problems and an increased risk of death.

Question 22

Delirium is to dementia as ________ is to _.

A) biological; psychological
B) diffuse; focal
C) old; young
D) acute; chronic

Question 23

What types of delusions are most commonly seen in Alzheimer's Disease?

A) delusions of persecution
B) delusions of reference
C) delusions of bodily changes
D) delusions of grandeur

Question 24

You are convinced that your grandmother has Alzheimer's. How can you doctor confirm your diagnosis?

A) by looking to see if she has a decrease in frontal lobe function
B) by determining if she has enlarged ventricles that indicate brain atrophy
C) by ruling out all other potential causes of dementia
D) by conducting a blood test

Question 25

Which of the following is the most typical example of the onset of Alzheimer's Disease?

A) When Yula's dementia became obvious, her family looked back on her behavior and realized that she had been exhibiting memory deficits.
B) Christa began showing signs of forgetfulness after her last surgery.
C) Rachel have always suffered from mood disorders. When she descended into a state of dementia after her last manic episode, no one was surprised.
D) After Bill's death, Carol was never the same again.

Question 26

It is suspected that June is in the early stages of Alzheimer's Disease. Which of the following symptoms would suggest this?

A) social withdrawal
B) loss of contact with reality
C) persistent delusions
D) excessive neatness and an intrusive interest in others' affairs

Question 27

The brain begins to decrease in size at age

A) 35.
B) 18.
C) 55.
D) 65.

Question 28

Janice is showing signs of dementia. In addition, she experiences tremors in her hands and head. When she is given a medication that increases her dopamine level, her tremors stop, but they return as soon as the medication wears off. Janice

A) has Alzheimer's dementia
B) has Parkinson's disease
C) has Huntington's disease
D) is malingering.

Question 29

The text presented a case study of a retired man who was hospitalized by his wife and son. He was typical of many patients with Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type DAT) in that

A) he had good memory for remote events but no memory for events that just occurred.
B) he became hypochondriacal and performed repetitive, meaningless rituals.
C) he had become violent toward family members.
D) he never lost his orientation for time and person.

Question 30

Suddenly, Lavinia is unable to remember what she was doing. She screams that bugs are crawling all over the walls. She begins to wildly swing her arms around. She can't fall asleep at night, but finally falls asleep at daylight. Lavinia most likely has

A) schizophrenia.
B) delirium.
C) dementia.
D) focal brain damage.

Question 31

The most common cause of dementia is

A) Parkinson's Disease.
B) Huntington's Disease.
C) alcoholic amnestic disorder.
D) Alzheimer's Disease.

Question 32

Which of the following is most likely to be characteristic of a physically aggressive Alzheimer's Disease patient?

A) delusions of reference
B) history of violent behavior
C) delusions of persecution
D) multiple psychotic breaks

Question 33

Delirium is thought to be more common in the elderly due to

A) their relative lack of physical and mental activity.
B) normal age-related changes in the brain.
C) their weakened immune systems.
D) chemical imbalances.

Question 34

Delirium has a ________ onset and dementia has a onset.

A) interference with complex processing; interference with simple processing
B) slow recovery; rapid recovery
C) rapid onset; gradual onset
D) extensive brain damage; localized brain damage

Question 35

The most common cause of dementia is

A) severe or repeated head injury.
B) intracranial tumors.
C) drug toxicity.
D) degenerative brain disease.

Question 36

The most common cause of delirium is

A) drugs.
B) disease.
C) electrolytic imbalance.
D) stroke.

Question 37

The first sign of dementia is typically

A) memory problems.
B) lack of alertness.
C) motor control problems.
D) lack of attention to the environment.

Question 38

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Alzheimer's Disease?

A) being highly educated
B) being a woman
C) living in a non-Western developed nation
D) having a family history of Parkinson's Disease

Question 39

In order for a diagnosis of Alzheimer's Disease to be definitively made

A) the afflicted individual must exhibit delirium at least 50% of the time.
B) plaques and tangles must be visible on an MRI.
C) brain tissue must be examined.
D) symptoms must be present for over 2 years.

Question 40

Delirium

A) is usually permanent.
B) is usually reversible.
C) is characterized by a decline from a previously attained level of functioning.
D) rarely is a medical emergency.

Question 41

It has been observed that if a women gives birth to a child with Down Syndrome before the age of 35 she has an increased risk of developing Alzheimer's Disease. Which of the following best explains this observation?

A) Women under 35 are not emotionally mature enough to manage a child with mental retardation.
B) The same gene underlies both Down Syndrome and Alzheimer's Disease.
C) A genetic mutation that increases susceptibility to Alzheimer's Disease also increases the likelihood of passing on chromosomal abnormalities.
D) Multiple copies of the APOE-4 allele increase the likelihood of both conditions.

Question 42

The protein called tau

A) is a neurotoxic substance that occurs in the brains of people with Alzheimer's disease.
B) is caused by amyloid in the brain and is a sign that Alzheimer's disease is progressing.
C) is a sticky substance at the core of a placque.
D) is a neurotransmitter important in the mediation of memory.

Question 43

Consistent with its established role in memory, neurons in the suffer much damage in Alzheimer's Disease.

A) thalamus
B) hippocampus
C) hypothalamus
D) amygdala

Question 44

Early-onset Alzheimer's Disease affects people in their

A) 40s.
B) 30s.
C) 20s.
D) teens.

Question 45

Caregivers of patients with Alzheimer's Disease

A) are likely to show signs of cognitive deterioration.
B) experience "social death."
C) are at extraordinarily high risk for depression.
D) show high levels of APOE, even if they do not show any outward anxiety symptoms.

Question 46

The best avenue of research for effective treatment of Alzheimer's disease involves

A) regenerating neurons in the brain to replace those lost or damaged by the disorder.
B) behavioral therapy to help improve memory and living skills.
C) prevention or treatment at the first sign of illness because lost neurons cannot be regained.
D) medications to remove placques, because they cause the symptoms in Alzheimer's disease.

Question 47

Late-onset Alzheimer's disease has been linked to a gene on Chromosome

A) 19.
B) 14.
C) 21.
D) 7.

Question 48

Research suggests that the use of may decrease the risk of developing Alzheimer's Disease.

A) codeine
B) ibuprofen
C) valium
D) aspirin

Question 49

The first neurons to be affected in Alzheimer's Disease are cells that release

A) beta amyloid.
B) dopamine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) serotonin.

Question 50

The neuropathology in AIDS-related dementia

A) involves the formation of plaques and tangles in the brain.
B) preferentially affects the frontal and temporal lobes in the brain.
C) includes generalized atrophy in the brain.
D) tends to result in focal damage in the brain.

Question 51

Which of the following is associated with an increased risk of developing Alzheimer's Disease?

A) giving birth to a child with Down syndrome before age 35
B) excessive use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
C) having a family history of vascular dementia
D) living in a non-Western developed nation

Question 52

A hypothetical drug that might improve the cognitive functioning of Alzheimer's patients would probably

A) increase levels of acetylcholine.
B) increase levels of beta amyloid.
C) decrease levels of acetylcholine.
D) decrease the activity of all genes that produce ApoE.

Question 53

Early-onset Alzheimer's Disease differs from other the late-onset form in that

A) environmental factors have no impact on the onset or the progression of the disorder.
B) genetics play little or no causal role.
C) the progression of the disease is more rapid.
D) symptoms invariably involve delusions and assaultive behavior.

Question 54

Dementia in HIV

A) results from acute damage to temporal lobe structures.
B) is always due to secondary infections that attack the brain.
C) may be due to the HIV virus directly attacking brain cells.
D) is a common side effect of antiviral therapy.

Question 55

Most cases of early-onset Alzheimer's Disease appear to be caused by

A) one of several rare genetic mutations.
B) a combination of psychoactive drug abuse and poor nutrition.
C) environmental exposure to toxins.
D) HIV or some other autoimmune disease.

Question 56

What is the relationship between the HIV-1 virus and brain damage?

A) The virus itself can cause disruptive brain damage.
B) The virus works indirectly: it allows infections to occur which cause brain damage.
C) The virus is more likely to multiple in a brain that has already been damaged by brain trauma or some other cause of tissue loss.
D) The virus does not lead to brain damage, but the disease so affects patients that their psychotic reactions mimic those of brain damage.

Question 57

The only neuropsychological syndrome for which antiviral therapy is likely to be helpful is

A) AIDS-related dementia.
B) amnestic disorder.
C) multi-infarct dementia.
D) vascular dementia.

Question 58

The most promising development in the treatment of Alzheimer's involves

A) increasing the intake of vitamins and minerals known to enhance memory function.
B) vaccines that might clear away any accumulated plaques.
C) preventing the degeneration of dopamine-producing cells.
D) finding drugs that counteract the processes associated with inheriting high-risk Apo-E allele patterns.

Question 59

One of the reasons women may be at higher risk for Alzheimer's disease than men is

A) hormonal differences.
B) a higher likelihood of substance abuse.
C) a higher likelihood of experiencing loneliness.
D) they are more likely to ask for help and be diagnosed.

Question 60

What type of drugs are most likely to be used to inhibit the progression of Alzheimer's Disease?

A) antipsychotics
B) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories
C) antidepressants
D) cholinesterase inhibitors

Question 61

A bullet is most likely to cause

A) amnestic disorder.
B) a penetrating head injury.
C) multi-infarct dementia.
D) a closed-head injury.

Question 62

Which of the following best explains why mood disorders are more characteristic of vascular dementia VAD) than of Alzheimer's Disease?

A) VAD is more prevalent in women.
B) VAD preferentially affects serotonergic cells.
C) Subcortical areas are more affected in VAD.
D) Medical treatments are less effective in the treatment of VAD.

Question 63

Procedural memory often is intact in patients with amnestic disorder. This means

A) they will eventually recover their short term memory.
B) they will eventually recover their memory for the most important personal events in their lives, but will still have problems with short term memory.
C) the memory pathways in the brain are still intact, so patients can be retaught how to remember things.
D) they can still learn routines and skills and may be able to be taught tasks that will enable them to work.

Question 64

The effects of head trauma on memory suggest that

A) rarely are episodic memories affected by head trauma.
B) short-term memory is not affected by physical trauma.
C) the process of memory consolidation can be interrupted.
D) semantic memory is usually affected when an injury is severe enough to produce a loss of consciousness.

Question 65

"Confabulation" is a term for

A) the making up of events that amnestic patients so to fill in gaps in their memories.
B) the abnormal gait that can be an early predictor of vascular dementia.
C) the depression that often develops in caregivers of dementia patients.
D) the development of delusions in dementia.

Question 66

When a closed-head injury occurs

A) post-trauma epilepsy is common.
B) the damage is localized.
C) the skull is bruised.
D) the damage is a result of the brain colliding with the skull.

Question 67

Vascular dementia

A) affects more women than men.
B) is a result of many small strokes.
C) responds to the same treatments as Alzheimer's Disease.
D) is what was once called amnestic infarct dementia.

Question 68

Emotional dyscontrol and personality alterations are expected with

A) amnestic syndrome.
B) prolonged oxygen deprivation.
C) vascular dementia.
D) frontal lobe damage.

Question 69

Korsakoff's Syndrome is

A) a subtype of Alzheimer's dementia.
B) a form of delirium caused by coronary heart disease.
C) the first stage of dementia caused by Parkinson's disease.
D) an amnestic disorder often caused by alcoholism.

Question 70

Vascular dementia less common than Alzheimer's Disease because

A) the patient is vulnerable to sudden death from stroke or cardiovascular disease.
B) it develops later in life.
C) it can be cured.
D) spontaneous remission is common.

Question 71

Which of the following would someone with amnestic syndrome NOT be able to do?

A) repeat an address they were just told
B) describe the house they grew up in
C) demonstrate how to ride a bike
D) tell you who they met 5 minutes ago

Question 72

The occurrence of which of the following after a head injury suggests a poor prognosis?

A) retrograde amnesia
B) contusion
C) anterograde amnesia
D) concussion

Question 73

What is affected in amnestic syndrome?

A) the ability to recall something that happened seconds ago
B) the ability to recall something that happened hours ago
C) the ability to recall something that happened minutes ago
D) the ability to recall something that happened years ago

Question 74

After the car accident, Sherry was unable to remember what happened from the time of the crash until the following morning. Sherry appears to have experienced

A) dissociative fugue.
B) anterograde amnesia.
C) retrograde amnesia.
D) amnestic disorder.

Question 75

Which of the following is not a cause of traumatic brain injury?

A) vitamin deficiency
B) assaults
C) sports
D) car accidents

Question 76

How does vascular dementia differs from Alzheimer's Disease?

A) It is not progressive.
B) The early clinical picture is more homogeneous than that seen in Alzheimer's Disease.
C) Accompanying mood disorders are more common.
D) It occurs at an earlier age.

Question 77

The damage that might be caused to the brain by a violent roller coaster is similar to that seen with

A) a penetrating head injury.
B) vascular dementia.
C) a closed-head injury.
D) a series of circumscribed cerebral infarcts.

Question 78

The most common cause of traumatic brain injury is

A) Alzheimer's Disease.
B) motor vehicle accidents.
C) stroke.
D) drug abuse.

Question 79

After being hit on the head, Bob experienced some retrograde amnesia. Those who were there knew this because he

A) had a concussion.
B) was unconscious.
C) could not remember his name.
D) did not know what happened.

Question 80

The case of Phineas Gage demonstrates

A) the importance of a healthy cerebrovascular system.
B) the role of the temporal lobe in controlling behavioral impulses.
C) the role of the brain in determining personality.
D) that even the most serious brain injuries need not lead to permanent alteration in behavior.