Deck 15: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology

Question 1

It has been demonstrated that

A) lasting reductions in drug use occur when social resistance skills are taught and booster sessions are provided.
B) there is no way of counteracting the positive representation of drugs in the media.
C) parental involvement is the key ingredient in most drug prevention efforts.
D) the development of peer pressure resistance skills can decrease drug use by 44%.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Efforts at reducing racism as a means of preventing mental illness would be an) intervention.

A) indicated
B) selective
C) tertiary
D) universal

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Having skills for effective problem solving, possessing an accurate set of assumptions about oneself, and being prepared for problems one is likely to encounter at various life stages are all requirements for

A) cultural adjustment.
B) being a candidate for deinstitutionalization.
C) psychosocial health.
D) biological health.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Why has the attempt to reduce the drug supply from other countries not reduced the rate of adolescent substance abuse?

A) Drug abusers are traveling to other countries to obtain their supply.
B) The drugs most abused by adolescents are alcohol and tobacco, which are easily available.
C) Most smugglers are still able to find a way to bring drugs in.
D) Local residents account for most of the illegal drug traffic.

Question 5

Dr. Jones says, "These projects have clearly shown an effective path toward reducing the extent of substance abuse in young people." What projects is Dr. Jones talking about?

A) ones that involve the interdiction or reduction in supply of drugs
B) ones that contradict the movies and TV commercials that glamorize drugs
C) ones that combine different intervention strategies
D) ones that use teachers to tell students why drugs are bad for their health

Question 6

Which of the following strategies has been found to be of particular benefit to high-risk, unsupervised teens in reducing problem behaviors?

A) Extracurricular strategies.
B) Antidepressant medication and other biological strategies.
C) Punitive strategies
D) Interpersonal therapy.

Question 7

Family-oriented alcohol prevention problems have been developed because

A) teen drinking frequently starts when problems in the home have become unmanageable.
B) parents need to help their children resist peer pressure.
C) teen views of alcohol typically reflect those of their parents.
D) most underage alcohol use occurs at home.

Question 8

Universal interventions are concerned with two key tasks:

A) strengthening individuals' psychological coping skills and improving their biological health.
B) altering conditions that cause disorders and establishing conditions that foster positive mental health.
C) identifying people with a particular disorder and referring them for help.
D) providing timely therapy and evaluating its usefulness.

Question 9

"Efforts that are aimed at influencing the general population" best describes

A) crisis interventions.
B) selective interventions.
C) universal interventions.
D) indicated interventions.

Question 10

Alcohol and marijuana use has decreased,

A) but adolescents use of pain killers has increased.
B) particularly binge drinking.
C) especially among adolescents from minority groups.
D) but adult use has increased.

Question 11

Which of the following might be a component of a biologically based universal strategy for preventing mental illness?

A) determining whether or not there is a family history of mental illness
B) encouraging regular physical activity
C) offering tuberculosis testing
D) identifying people with a particular disorder and referring them for help

Question 12

Efforts to counterbalance the social factors that entice adolescent binge drinking are examples of

A) indicated interventions.
B) crisis interventions.
C) selective interventions.
D) social-learning programs.

Question 13

Which of the following is a sociocultural effort towards universal prevention?

A) deinstitutionalization of the mentally ill
B) public education
C) hospitalizing the mentally ill
D) teaching adolescents to not use drugs

Question 14

In order to prevent long-term consequences, interventions are provided immediately after a disaster such as a plane crash.

A) selective
B) indicated
C) universal
D) education

Question 15

What is the goal of school-based drug and alcohol education programs?

A) to scare children away from using drugs
B) to teach children how to recognize the drugs that they might be exposed to
C) to ensure that children are educated consumers
D) to teach children about drugs so that they can make informed choices

Question 16

Why is it important to prevent teen alcohol use?

A) Teens are more prone to violence while drinking than adults.
B) Teens are more susceptible to alcoholism than adults.
C) Most teens who drink go on to do "harder drugs."
D) Early alcohol use is associated with later alcohol abuse and dependence.

Question 17

Combined prevention programs that educate about drugs and teach skills needed to refuse alcohol and drug use demands

A) are rarely as successful as family-based programs.
B) have proven to be powerful interventions.
C) have failed to show any significant impact when evaluated with control groups.
D) are most effective when targeted at college students.

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for psychosocial health?

A) having sound moral judgment
B) having a realistic view of one's self
C) having effective problem solving skills
D) being prepared to to deal with the problems one is likely to encounter

Question 19

All of the following are sociocultural efforts toward universal prevention of mental disorders EXCEPT

A) penal systems.
B) economic planning.
C) social security.
D) public education.

Question 20

All of the following are social forces that affect teen drug use EXCEPT

A) peer pressure.
B) increased potency of street drugs.
C) parental drug use.
D) depiction of drugs in television and film.

Question 21

Which of the following is a barrier to effective deinstitutionalization?

A) deinstitutionalized patients do not fair better than those who remain hospitalized
B) society's desire to free previously confined persons
C) the lack of sufficient mental health services in the community
D) the use of antipsychotic medications

Question 22

Residential treatment

A) has been found to be the best treatment for children, adolescents and adults.
B) has been found to be the most useful treatment for depression at any age.
C) is often ineffective and may even be harmful for children.
D) only is effective for children if they are on medication.

Question 23

Indicated prevention emphasizes

A) teaching social skills and problem-solving as a way of improving self-esteem.
B) genetic screening.
C) education efforts to an entire population regardless of the individual's social situation.
D) the early detection and prompt treatment of maladaptive behavior in a person's community setting.

Question 24

In order for community-based aftercare for psychiatric patients to be successful

A) the facilities must be run by mental health professionals.
B) milieu methods must be used rather than social-learning methods.
C) there must be a crisis intervention component.
D) the community must be educated so it will be tolerant of troubled people.

Question 25

Once a person has been involuntarily committed to a mental institution, he or she

A) may refuse treatment.
B) may refuse medication but not therapy.
C) may not refuse treatment.
D) may refuse therapy but not medication.

Question 26

Which of the following can be committed against their will to a psychiatric hospital?

A) Kathie, who has schizophrenia and has been threatening to hurt people on the street.
B) Carole, who has schizophrenia and won't take her medications because they make her feel ill.
C) Tina, who has schizophrenia and is homeless.
D) Any of these three-schizophrenia is a serious enough disorder for the person to be forced into the hospital.

Question 27

The most recent research on deinstitutionalization has found inpatient hospitalization

A) has been increasing due to increasing numbers of mentally ill.
B) has continued to decrease and communities have stepped up their response to improve outpatient care.
C) has been increasing due to the failures to provide adequate care in the community.
D) has continued to decrease, despite an increase in problems as a result.

Question 28

One difference between voluntary hospitalization and involuntary commitment is that people who are in the hospital voluntarily

A) need to be assessed as dangerous to themselves or others.
B) must be treated in the least restrictive environment.
C) can, with sufficient notice, leave the hospital when they want to.
D) are eligible for aftercare services following.

Question 29

Which of the following is a characteristic of a therapeutic community?

A) extensive use of medications
B) many restrictions
C) minimal interaction amongst the patients
D) individual responsibility

Question 30

At Rush General, the inpatient mental ward employs a program that focuses on modifying the behavior of the patients by giving them gold stars for good behavior and ignoring undesirable behavior. What type of treatment program does this appear to be?

A) psychotherapy alone
B) milieu therapy
C) traditional mental hospital treatments
D) social learning

Question 31

In a study by Paul and Lentz designed to assess the effectiveness of different approaches to the treatment of chronically hospitalized patients, what treatment approach was found to yield the best results?

A) traditional mental hospital treatments
B) social learning
C) psychotherapy alone
D) milieu therapy

Question 32

All of the following are elements of "milieu therapy" EXCEPT

A) staff expectations are clearly communicated.
B) patients are encouraged to participate in making decisions.
C) group cohesiveness.
D) teaching social skills and problem-solving.

Question 33

Once a person is committed to a mental hospital

A) they must establish their sanity before they can be released.
B) the court establishes the minimum treatment necessary as indicated by testimony from two examiners.
C) the hospital must report to the court as to whether or not continued confinement is necessary.
D) they must participate in whatever treatment they are prescribed.

Question 34

Community-based treatment programs are now referred to as

A) aftercare programs.
B) crisis intervention.
C) deinstitutionalization.
D) managed care initiatives.

Question 35

Suppose a family is quite alarmed about the threatening behavior of a relative. They want to petition the court for commitment but there is no time to get a court order. What option does the family have?

A) They can ask the police to declare the person "insane."
B) None. They must wait until there is a court evaluation of the person's dangerousness.
C) After getting a police officer to examine the person, they can require the person's attendance in a crisis intervention program.
D) After getting a physician to state that the person is dangerous, they can have the police pick up and detain the person for up to 72 hours.

Question 36

Which of the following was an unforeseen consequence of deinstitutionalization?

A) a rise in homelessness
B) the need for mental health services in the community
C) an increased demand on the welfare system
D) abuses of antipsychotic and anxiolytic medications

Question 37

Emergency hospitalization without a commitment hearing is permitted when

A) a judge declares that imminent danger exists.
B) the person to be hospitalized has a criminal history.
C) a physician signs a formal statement saying that imminent danger exists.
D) the person to be hospitalized is found to be insane.

Question 38

Community-based facilities that provide aftercare are typically run by

A) trained paraprofessionals.
B) mental health professionals.
C) community activists.
D) the residents themselves.

Question 39

Dr. McDougal's specialty is forensic psychology. We can imagine that she

A) provides preventive services to prevent criminal behavior.
B) is concerned with the legal status of the mentally ill.
C) works for a managed care organization.
D) does research on the impact of deinstitutionalization.

Question 40

A major difference between social-learning programs and milieu therapy is that social-learning programs

A) require each patient to be involved in groups that "govern" the ward.
B) are never provided in mental hospitals.
C) target specific behaviors for reinforcement.
D) expect patients to care for one another.

Question 41

Although the majority of currently disordered persons show no tendency toward violence, an increased risk of violence is likely among those who

A) currently experience psychotic symptoms.
B) have just experienced a natural or man-made form of disaster.
C) have been extremely emotionally rigid in the past.
D) are religiously preoccupied.

Question 42

Homicidal behavior amongst former patients is greatest with a diagnosis of

A) schizophrenia.
B) bipolar depression.
C) major depression.
D) alcoholism.

Question 43

What was unusual about the Hinckley case?

A) He used the insanity defense.
B) He was successful in pleading the insanity defense.
C) His petitions for release have been consistently denied.
D) The public believed that he did not need to pay for his crime.

Question 44

Predicting dangerousness is most comparable to

A) figuring your taxes at the end of the year.
B) preparing a team for a sports competition.
C) preparing a weather forecast.
D) reviewing for a comprehensive examination.

Question 45

The underlying basis of the insanity defense is

A) some people who have a mental illness are not able to fully comprehend their behavior, so are not able to form the needed intent for a crime, and thus shouldn't be punished.
B) people who have a mental illness cannot ever form the intent needed to commit a crime, so shouldn't be punished.
C) even if they had the required intent for a crime, the mentally ill still shouldn't be punished.
D) people who have a mental illness should not be punished.

Question 46

Under what circumstances can a therapist violate a client's confidence?

A) never
B) when someone is in danger
C) only when the client gives permission
D) when a crime has been committed

Question 47

Why should defense lawyers be cautious about using the insanity defense?

A) Most defendants feign mental illness in order to escape punishment.
B) Hospitalization is not an appropriate consequence for those who have committed violent crimes.
C) No reason-#it is frequently successful.
D) It rarely works.

Question 48

According to the M'Naghten Rule, insanity is defined as

A) not knowing right from wrong.
B) acting on an irresistible impulse.
C) lacking the capacity to understand that an action violates the law.
D) failing to understand the consequences of one's actions.

Question 49

Darryl has schizophrenia, disorganized type. He has visual hallucinations, and one day he saw a giant bug standing in from of him. He picked up a large knife and stabbed it. In reality, Darryl stabbed his mother who had come to tell him dinner was ready. His lawyer argues that Darryl cannot be found guilty because he had no idea what he was doing or that it was wrong. His lawyer is arguing the

A) American Law Institute standard.
B) irresistible impulse rule.
C) Durham rule.
D) M'Naughten rule.

Question 50

Tarasoff-style laws

A) are no longer law in most states.
B) are in a majority of states but vary quite a bit.
C) are in every state.
D) are in a minority of states.

Question 51

In most states that have a Tarasoff-type rule, when a client threatens someone, a therapist must

A) make a reasonable effort to warn potential victims.
B) not break confidentiality.
C) continue trying to warn potential victims until they reach them.
D) warn as many people who know the client as possible.

Question 52

An attorney says, "My client has a mental disorder that made it impossible, at the time of the crime, to have intended to do harm. Because of this, he is not legally responsible for his actions." The attorney is arguing for

A) the Tarasoff principle.
B) deinstitutionalization of his client.
C) an insanity defense.
D) involuntary commitment.

Question 53

Which phrase best captures how well mental health professionals do in predicting the occurrence of dangerous acts?

A) poorly, especially with people who are actively schizophrenic or delusional
B) rather well, as long as the patient provides honest information
C) exceedingly well, especially if the person has a diagnosed mental condition
D) not as well as we would like

Question 54

One of the main reasons it is so hard to predict future dangerousness is

A) there are no psychological tests to help measure dangerousness.
B) there is very little research into who becomes violent and who doesn't, and why.
C) most potentially violent people refuse to talk to therapists.
D) situational circumstances play as large a role as an individual's personality traits.

Question 55

The insanity defense is employed in percent of capital cases in the United States.

A) 33
B) less than two
C) 20
D) roughly 10-15

Question 56

A typical defense strategy, to try to counteract public anger about the insanity defense, is to

A) portray the defendant as someone who was themselves a victim.
B) portray the victim as negatively as possible.
C) portray the defendant as tremendously likeable.
D) portray the defendant as suffering terribly from their mental illness.

Question 57

The Tarasoff rule usually applies

A) anytime a client threatens to do a violent act.
B) only if the client has given an informed consent.
C) only to violent acts against people.
D) only if the target of violence is clearly identifiable.

Question 58

What kind of mistake do most mental health professionals make when assessing dangerousness?

A) They over-predict violence.
B) They underestimate the likelihood of violence in psychotic patients.
C) They overemphasize the importance of situational factors.
D) They make many "false negatives."

Question 59

What is one of the best predictors of future violence?

A) compliance with treatment
B) past history of violence
C) employment history
D) family support

Question 60

What doctrine came out of the original Tarasoff v. Regents of the University of California et al. case?

A) the duty to protect
B) the right-versus-wrong principle in insanity cases
C) treatment in the least restrictive environment
D) the duty to warn

Question 61

The Durham Rule

A) established that one was sane unless they did not know right from wrong.
B) focused on the cause of an unlawful act.
C) made the criteria for establishing insanity more objective.
D) is often referred to as the "substantial capacity test."

Question 62

Which of the following was a result of the Americans with Disabilities Act?

A) Employers cannot discriminate against people with psychiatric problems.
B) Employers are now supposed to provide treatment through employee assistance programs.
C) Employers now must pay for mental health benefits for all of their employees.
D) Employers are encouraged to support universal and selective prevention interventions in the workplace.

Question 63

In understanding and treating mental disorders, the World Health Organization at the present time has

A) almost completely ignored the impact of physical disease on mental health.
B) focused exclusively on physical diseases, not on mental health.
C) been very much aware of the interrelationship between physical, psychosocial, and sociocultural factors.
D) almost completely ignored ethnic and cultural differences.

Question 64

The verdict of Guilty but Mentally Ill

A) means people with mental illness that are found guilty of a crime go to the hospital until they are better, then return to jail to serve out their sentence.
B) means people with mental illness that are found guilty of a crime go to jail but get mental health treatment while in jail.
C) means people with mental illness that are found guilty of a crime are put in jail but in a special section.
D) means people with mental illness that are found guilty of a crime get shorter sentences.

Question 65

Selective interventions are aimed at decreasing the incidence of a particular disease or disorder.

Question 66

Which of the following is a volunteer mental health agency?

A) the National Association for Mental Health NAMH)
B) the National Institute on Mental Health NIMH)
C) the American Psychological Association APA)
D) a health maintenance organization HMO)

Question 67

Which of the following changed with the Federal Insanity Defense Reform Act of 1984?

A) It became much easier for defendants to quality for the insanity defense.
B) It put the burden of proof on the defense.
C) It abolished the "knowing right from wrong" principle.
D) It narrowed the definition of insanity to the "product test" Durham Rule).

Question 68

Most of NIMH's programs are

A) actually planned and run by state and local organizations.
B) much larger and better funded than they were in the 1960s and 1970s.
C) designed, controlled, and implemented by the federal government.
D) actually focused on the prevention of crime rather than mental disorder.

Question 69

Knowing right from wrong is to as "unlawful act was the product of mental disease" is to ________.

A) Durham Rule; M'Naughten Rule
B) M'Naughten Rule; Durham Rule
C) irresistible impulse; Durham Rule
D) M'Naughten Rule; irresistible impulse

Question 70

Which of the following activities does NIMH perform?

A) pay for the hospital care of the chronically mentally ill
B) support professional training and provide the public with information on mental health
C) do nationwide universal and selective preventive interventions
D) provide communities with psychologists and psychiatrists who do individual and group therapy

Question 71

What treatment approach is most likely to be employed by an HMO to treat an anxiety disorder?

A) pharmacotherapy
B) aversion therapy
C) systematic desensitization
D) flooding

Question 72

What is an important function of organizations such as the American Psychological Association, the American Psychological Society, and the American Medical Association?

A) They fund most of the treatment and prevention research done in the United States.
B) They set and maintain professional and ethical standards.
C) They draw up the policies that determine which clients get treatment and of what duration.
D) They control forensic issues such as the insanity defense and the policies for committing patients against their will.

Question 73

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the use of mental health resources in private industry?

A) Many companies have recently begun providing psychological services through employee assistance programs.
B) Psychological services are provided on an extremely limited basis, even at the most elite private corporations.
C) Primary prevention programs have been routinely used in private industry for many decades.
D) Private industry typically does not acknowledge the importance of mental health-promoting factors in the work place and therefore dramatically underutilizes mental health resources.

Question 74

What impact have HMOs had on mental health care?

A) Mental health treatment is more readily available.
B) The cost of mental health services has risen.
C) Greater emphasis has been placed on finding treatment approaches that are time and cost efficient.
D) The reliance on medical therapies has decreased.

Question 75

The history of abnormal psychology makes it clear that

A) international efforts in dealing with mental disorders are doomed to failure because there is no agreement on the definition of "disorder."
B) we are no further today in understanding mental disorders than we were in the time of Pinel, Dix, and Beers.
C) the field can be profoundly changed and improved through individual effort.
D) more domestic and fewer international efforts are needed.

Question 76

Which of the following funds research on mental disorders and assists communities in establishing effective mental health services?

A) the American Psychological Association APA)
B) the National Institute on Mental Health NIMH)
C) the National Association for Mental Health NAMH)
D) health maintenance organization HMO)

Question 77

What do the National Association for Mental Health, the National Association for Retarded Citizens, and the National Alliance for the Mentally Ill NAMI) have in common?

A) They all try to improve services and educate the government and public about various problems.
B) They are all government-funded organizations that do research on mental disorders and related problems.
C) They are all working to increase the awareness of work-related stress and its impact on mental health.
D) They all provide training for psychologists and psychiatrists.

Question 78

Why did World War II lead to a greater recognition of the pervasiveness of mental illness?

A) Many women developed psychiatric conditions when left to raise families and make a living on their own.
B) Over 70% of veterans suffered from either PTSD or substance abuse after the war.
C) Two out of seven potential military recruits were rejected for psychiatric reasons.
D) The military was unable to provide adequate mental health services to men in the field.

Question 79

Which of the following has the best chance of successfully pleading not guilty by reason of insanity?

A) Susie, who has schizophrenia, has been in and out of hospitals all her life, who tried to break the arm of a romantic rival.
B) Tim, who is depressed, has never been hospitalized and murdered his wife.
C) Ernie, who has schizophrenia, was in the hospital once a long time ago and murdered three former co-workers.
D) Lori, who has bipolar disorder, has never been hospitalized and tried to murder a stranger.

Question 80

The broadest of the insanity rules is the

A) Federal Insanity Defense Reform Act.
B) M'Naughten Rule.
C) irresistible impulse rule.
D) Durham Rule.