Deck 11: The Nervous System: Autonomic and Motor Systems

Question 1

Preganglionic and postganglionic sympathetic neurons are anatomically arranged in what three patterns?

A) visceral, systemic, and cardiovascular
B) sympathetic chains, those that innervate the adrenal medulla, and collateral ganglia
C) sympathetic, parasympathetic, and involuntary nervous systems
D) alpha, gamma, and beta cells
E) nicotinic ganglia, adrenergic ganglia, and cholinergic ganglia

Answer 1

B

Question 2

At rest, what is the relative contribution of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems to the regulation of homeostasis?

A) Only the parasympathetic system is active.
B) Only the sympathetic system is active.
C) Both systems are active but the parasympathetic predominates.
D) Both systems are active but the sympathetic predominates.
E) Neither system is active.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which of the following is indicative of the relative release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla?

A) 80% epinephrine : 20% dopamine
B) 100% acetylcholine
C) 80% norepinephrine : 20% dopamine
D) 80% norepinephrine : 20% epinephrine
E) 80% epinephrine : 20% norepinephrine

Answer 3

E

Question 4

Located entirely within the autonomic ganglia, cells that modulate the flow of information to the target organ are called

A) intraganglionic
B) postganglionic
C) ganglionic
D) intrinsic
E) preganglionic

Question 5

Which of the following contributes to the ability of the sympathetic nervous system to produce widespread responses within the body?

A) Several preganglionic neurons activate a single postganglionic neuron.
B) One preganglionic neuron sends collaterals to multiple ganglia, affecting multiple postganglionic neurons.
C) Multiple preganglionic neurons innervate each ganglion, sending out individual postganglionic neurons.
D) One preganglionic neuron can activate only one postganglionic neuron.
E) One postganglionic neuron branches into many collaterals that affect multiple organs.

Question 6

Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter ; sympathetic preganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter .

A) epinephrine : norepinephrine
B) norepinephrine : norepinephrine
C) norepinephrine : acetylcholine
D) acetylcholine : acetylcholine
E) acetylcholine : norepinephrine

Question 7

Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter ; sympathetic postganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter .

A) acetylcholine : acetylcholine
B) norepinephrine : norepinephrine
C) epinephrine : norepinephrine
D) norepinephrine : acetylcholine
E) acetylcholine : norepinephrine

Question 8

The autonomic nervous system innervates all the following effector organs and tissues EXCEPT

A) cardiac muscles.
B) adipose tissues.
C) exocrine glands.
D) skeletal muscles.
E) endocrine glands.

Question 9

Which of the following best describes the general arrangement of the efferent limb of the autonomic nervous system?

A) one neuron
B) two neurons in parallel
C) two neurons in series
D) three neurons in series
E) three neurons in parallel

Question 10

Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons travel in what nerves?

A) spinal nerves only
B) pelvic nerves only
C) cranial nerves only
D) cranial and spinal nerves
E) cranial and pelvic nerves

Question 11

Which of the following descriptions of collateral ganglia is TRUE?

A) Collateral ganglia are part of the somatic nervous system, located where the motor neuron leaves the ventral horn.
B) Collateral ganglia are part of the somatosensory system, located off of the afferent neuron just prior to entering the spinal cord dorsal horn.
C) Collateral ganglia are located within a chain just outside the spinal cord and are the sites of communication between sympathetic preganglionic neurons and postganglionic neurons.
D) Collateral ganglia are located within the effector organs and are the sites of communication between parasympathetic preganglionic neurons and postganglionic neurons.
E) Collateral ganglia are in the sympathetic nervous system but distinct from the sympathetic chain, and they function as a site of communication between sympathetic preganglionic neurons and postganglionic neurons.

Question 12

Where do the preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system emerge from the spinal cord?

A) lumbar region only
B) thoracic and lumbar regions
C) sacral region only
D) thoracic region only
E) lumbar and sacral regions

Question 13

Where in the central nervous system do the preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system originate?

A) sacral region of the spinal cord only
B) lumbar region of the spinal cord only
C) thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord
D) brainstem and sacral region of the spinal cord
E) thoracic region of the spinal cord only

Question 14

Sympathetic ganglia that are linked together and run in parallel on either side of the spinal column are called

A) sympathetic chains or trunks.
B) white ramus.
C) gray ramus.
D) lateral horns.
E) collateral ganglia.

Question 15

Which of the following physiological responses is associated with elevated sympathetic nervous system activity?

A) increased contractile force of the heart
B) enhanced digestion
C) decreased heart rate
D) inhibition of cardiovascular function
E) enhanced absorption of nutrients

Question 16

Parasympathetic neurons from which cranial nerve innervate most of the viscera in the thoracic and abdominal cavities?

A) I
B) III
C) VII
D) IX
E) X

Question 17

Dual innervation of organs by the autonomic nervous system refers to the observation that

A) two postganglionic sympathetic neurons innervate each target organ.
B) both sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons innervate most organs.
C) autonomic and somatic neurons innervate all organs.
D) autonomic neurons that innervate each target organ originate from two ganglia.
E) autonomic innervation involves preganglionic and postganglionic neurons.

Question 18

When the body is stressed, what is the relative contribution of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems to the regulation of homeostasis?

A) Only the sympathetic system is active.
B) Only the parasympathetic system is active.
C) Both systems are active but the parasympathetic predominates.
D) Both systems are active but the sympathetic predominates.
E) Neither system is active.

Question 19

Which of the following physiological responses is associated with an elevation in parasympathetic nervous system activity?

A) shifting blood flow away from the gastrointestinal tract
B) enhanced absorption of nutrients
C) enhanced mobilization of energy stores
D) increased heart rate
E) increased contractile force of the heart

Question 20

Which of the following endocrine glands is innervated by sympathetic preganglionic neurons?

A) anterior pituitary
B) adrenal medulla
C) thyroid gland
D) adrenal cortex
E) pancreas

Question 21

The somatic nervous system is often referred to as the

A) voluntary
B) neuromuscular
C) craniosacral
D) unconscious
E) involuntary

Question 22

fi₂ adrenergic receptor agonists are used to treat acute asthma symptoms by eliciting a response similar to
, which has a greater affinity for fi₂ receptors and leads to dilation of the
Respiratory pathways.

A) acetylcholine
B) epinephrine
C) atropine
D) cyclic AMP
E) norepinephrine

Question 23

Compared to norepinephrine, epinephrine has a greater affinity for what type of receptor?

A) a₁
B) fi₂
C) fi₁
D) muscarinic
E) nicotinic

Question 24

Where are most of the autonomic nervous system control centers located?

A) frontal lobe
B) thalamus
C) limbic system
D) spinal cord
E) brainstem

Question 25

What enzyme degrades the neurotransmitter released from varicosities of parasympathetic postganglionic neurons?

A) choline acetyl transferase
B) catechol -O -methyltransferase only
C) monoamine oxidase only
D) catechol -O -methyltransferase and monoamine oxidase
E) acetylcholinesterase

Question 26

Propranolol is a non -selective fi adrenergic receptor antagonist. It would be appropriate for a doctor to prescribe propranolol to treat

A) asthma.
B) myasthenia gravis.
C) hypertension.
D) low blood pressure.
E) peptic ulcers.

Question 27

Binding of acetylcholine to receptors causes
By opening channels that primarily
Permit sodium to permeate the membrane.

A) nicotinic : no change in membrane potential
B) muscarinic : a depolarization
C) nicotinic : a hyperpolarization
D) nicotinic : a depolarization
E) muscarinic : a hyperpolarization

Question 28

People who have done a lot of endurance training can have a resting heart rate of 50 beats per minute compared to the normal resting heart rate of 70 -80 beats per minute. This decreased heart rate in trained individuals is the partly result of

A) endorphins released from the brain which have an inhibitory effect on heart rate.
B) sympathetic activity becoming more active and parasympathetic activity becoming less active at rest.
C) decreases in both sympathetic and parasympathetic activity.
D) increases in both sympathetic and parasympathetic activity.
E) parasympathetic activity becoming more active and sympathetic activity becoming less active at rest.

Question 29

Students who suffer from test anxiety often have some of the following symptoms: the need for frequent urination, dilated pupils, and a dry mouth. What branch of the autonomic nervous system would cause these symptoms?

A) somatic
B) enteric
C) voluntary
D) parasympathetic
E) sympathetic

Question 30

Binding of norepinephrine or epinephrine to a(n) receptor will activate an inhibitory G protein which decreases the activity of adenylate cyclase and therefore cAMP synthesis while the
Binding of these two neurotransmitters to a receptor will do the exact opposite.

A) a_{2 :} fi₁ B) a_{1 :} a₂ C) fi_{1 :} fi₂ D) fi_{2 :} fi₁ E) a_{2 :} a₁

Question 31

The somatic nervous system regulates the activity of

A) the cardiovascular system.
B) skeletal muscle.
C) endocrine organs.
D) many organs.
E) the kidneys.

Question 32

What are swellings of postganglionic autonomic axons from which neurotransmitters are released called?

A) parasympathetic chains
B) sympathetic trunks
C) neuromuscular junctions
D) ganglia
E) varicosities

Question 33

Scopolamine is a muscarinic antagonist that acts by blocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors. Although it is not clear how scopolamine prevents nausea and vomiting due to motion sickness, which statement below best describes the mechanism of action for this drug?

A) Scopolamine prevents communication between the nerves of the vestibule and the vomiting center in the brain by blocking the action of acetylcholine.
B) Scopolamine breaks down acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft, therefore blocking the drug from entering the neuron.
C) Scopolamine causes chloride channels to open causing a subthreshold graded potential in the soma of the cell and, therefore, no action potential is ever generated that may cause motion sickness.
D) Scopolamine works by preventing calcium influx at the axon terminal, therefore preventing the release of neurotransmitter.
E) Scopolamine works on the optic nerve blocking sodium channels so that the sight of motion does not make an individual sick.

Question 34

Actions at which class of adrenergic receptor generally have inhibitory effects?

A) a₁ and fi₁ B) nicotinic
C) fi₁ D) a₁ E) fi₂

Question 35

In what class of autonomic neuron and within what organelle is the enzyme monoamine oxidase located?

A) lysosomes of sympathetic preganglionic neurons
B) smooth ER of parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
C) Golgi apparatus of parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
D) mitochondria of sympathetic postganglionic neurons
E) synaptic vesicles of sympathetic postganglionic neurons

Question 36

One of the adaptations that occur to muscles due to exercise is that contractions become stronger and steadier over time even with no change in muscle mass. Which statement below best explains why muscle contractions may become stronger?

A) Muscle fibers reflexively start generating force even before the motor neurons send action potentials.
B) The skeletal muscle contraction is enhanced by an increased input from the sympathetic nervous system.
C) The action potentials sent by the motor neurons get larger and last longer to produce more force in the muscles.
D) More motor neurons are made so that more action potentials can be sent down to the muscles.
E) Motor neurons are activated more rapidly to generate a stronger muscle contraction.

Question 37

What is the neurotransmitter released from motor neurons?

A) epinephrine
B) dopamine
C) acetylcholine
D) GABA
E) norepinephrine

Question 38

The presence of within varicosities initiates the release of neurotransmitter.

A) voltage -gated K⁺ channels
B) mechanically -gated Na⁺ channels
C) voltage -gated Na⁺ channels
D) voltage -gated Ca²⁺ channels
E) mechanically -gated Ca²⁺ channels

Question 39

With respect to their innervation, individual skeletal muscle fibers (cells) are innervated by

A) a single motor neuron.
B) multiple motor neurons.
C) a single motor neuron and autonomic neuron.
D) multiple motor neurons and autonomic neurons.
E) a single motor neuron and multiple autonomic neurons.

Question 40

What area of the brain initiates the fight -or -flight response by producing widespread activation of the sympathetic nervous system?

A) cerebellum
B) hypothalamus
C) brainstem
D) amygdala
E) limbic system

Question 41

What is the correct order for the steps of synaptic transmission at the motor end plate? 1. Acetylcholine binds to postsynaptic receptors.
2) Acetylcholine is released by exocytosis.
3) A graded depolarization is produced.
4) An action potential is produced on the muscle cell membrane.
5) Channels that primarily allow diffusion of sodium are opened.
6) Voltage -dependent calcium channels on the plasma membrane open.
7) An action potential arrives at the axon terminal.

A) 5, 7, 6, 2, 1, 4, 3
B) 7, 6, 2, 1, 3, 4, 6
C) 6, 7, 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
D) 7, 5, 2, 1, 3, 4, 6
E) 7, 6, 2, 1, 5, 3, 4

Question 42

The autonomic nervous system consists of efferent pathways with two peripheral neurons that travel in series from the central nervous system to the effector organ.

Question 43

Myasthenia gravis primarily affects women and its defining characteristic is fatigue of unusually rapid onset and severity following the use of certain muscle groups. What symptoms below best allude to the set of muscles affected by this disease?

A) difficulty speaking, difficulty swallowing, and drooping eyelids
B) difficulty in fine motor control of the fingers, especially the thumb
C) relaxed bladder causing frequent urination
D) difficulty moving the joints of the fingers and toes
E) difficulty walking due to fatigue in the major muscles of the legs

Question 44

The change in membrane potential that occurs in skeletal muscle cells in response to acetylcholine binding to its receptors is called a(n)

A) repolarizing potential.
B) inhibitory post synaptic potential.
C) end -plate potential.
D) hyperpolarizing potential.
E) refractory period.

Question 45

Adrenergic receptors with the greatest affinity for epinephrine are receptors.

A) beta 3
B) beta 1
C) alpha 1
D) alpha 2
E) beta 2

Question 46

Binding of acetylcholine to

A) adrenergic
B) muscarinic
C) cholinergic
D) somatostatic
E) nicotinic

Question 47

What is the primary mode of action of curare?

A) It decreases the number of functional receptors on the muscle cell by the process of phagocytosis, which impairs the ability of neurons to respond to acetylcholine.
B) It blocks the sodium channels in the axon of the presynaptic axon.
C) It blocks communication at the neuromuscular junction by preventing acetylcholine from binding to nicotinic cholinergic receptors.
D) It decreases the amount of acetylcholine released from the synaptic terminal.
E) It causes the degradation of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.

Question 48

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons exit the spinal cord via the spinal nerve. They leave the spinal nerve and enter the ganglion via the
Root, and then join the
Ramus. Most of
The postganglionic fibers return to the spinal nerve via the

A) ventral : white : gray
B) dorsal : white : gray
C) dorsal : gray: gray
D) dorsal : gray : white
E) ventral : gray : white

Question 49

The opening of a cation channel that allows both Na⁺ and K⁺ to move through will cause the membrane to because of the _.

A) depolarize : greater K⁺ electrochemical gradient as compared with Na⁺
B) hyperpolarize : greater K⁺ electrochemical gradient as compared with Na⁺
C) depolarize : greater Na⁺ electrochemical gradient as compared with K⁺
D) not change : same electrochemical gradient for K⁺ and Na⁺
E) hyperpolarize : greater Na⁺ electrochemical gradient as compared with K⁺

Question 50

How does latroxin, the venom of the black widow spider, cause muscle spasms and rigidity?

A) It stimulates acetylcholine release from autonomic preganglionic neurons.
B) It inhibits acetylcholine release from motor neurons.
C) It stimulates acetylcholine release from motor neurons.
D) It inhibits the degradation of acetylcholine at all synapses.
E) It blocks nicotinic cholinergic receptors.

Question 51

Postganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system release neurotransmitter from

A) dendrites.
B) varicosities.
C) axon hillock.
D) somas.
E) neuromuscular junction.

Question 52

Which of the following is located between the invaginations of the motor end plate of a neuromuscular junction?

A) fi₂ receptors
B) acetylcholinesterase
C) nicotinic receptors
D) fi₃ receptors
E) muscarinic receptors

Question 53

Which statement best describes the results of the autoimmune disease myasthenia gravis?

A) Communication at the neuromuscular junction is blocked by preventing acetylcholine from binding to nicotinic cholinergic receptors.
B) There is blocking of sodium channels in the axon of the presynaptic axon.
C) There is degradation of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
D) A decrease in the number of functional receptors on the muscle cell surface impairs its ability to respond to acetylcholine.
E) There is a decrease in the amount of acetylcholine released from the synaptic terminal.

Question 54

What is the graded change in membrane potential that occurs at the motor end plate of skeletal muscle called?

A) action potential
B) adrenergic potential
C) end -plate potential
D) muscarinic potential
E) inhibitory postsynaptic potential

Question 55

Which of the following statements is TRUE of communication across the neuromuscular junction?

A) Synaptic communication to the muscle cell can be excitatory or inhibitory.
B) Acetylcholine released from a motor neuron binds to muscarinic cholinergic receptors.
C) Acetylcholinesterase located in mitochondria of the motor neuron degrades acetylcholine to acetate and choline.
D) The end -plate potential is always of sufficient magnitude to depolarize the muscle cell to threshold to initiate an action potential.
E) Acetylcholinesterase located in the cytosol of the motor neuron degrades acetylcholine to acetate and choline.

Question 56

Physiological stressors will cause parasympathetic nervous system activity to increase.

Question 57

Where on skeletal muscle is the highest density of nicotinic receptors?

A) motor unit
B) axon hillock
C) motor end plate
D) dendrites
E) terminal bouton

Question 58

The sympathetic nervous system is sometimes called the thoracolumbar division of the autonomic nervous system.

Question 59

The cranial nerve that innervates most of the viscera in the thoracic and abdominal cavities is the

A) VII, or facial nerve.
B) III, or oculomotor nerve.
C) X, or vagus nerve.
D) IX, or glossopharyngeal nerve.
E) VIII, or vestibulocochlear nerve.

Question 60

The autonomic nervous system is also known as the involuntary nervous system.

Question 61

Test anxiety involves worry and dread about test performance and often interferes with normal learning and lowers test performance. 20 -30% of American students have experienced test anxiety. Some causes of test anxiety include fear of failure, waiting until the last minute to study, and/or those who have had trouble taking tests in the past. List at least five symptoms of test anxiety. Explain what autonomic division are the cause of the symptoms and its effect on target organs. Finally, what drug might be prescribed to alleviate the symptoms of text anxiety and explain its mode of action?

Question 62

The preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system originate in the spinal cord from a region of gray matter called the intermediolateral cell column.

Question 63

Neurons that release norepinephrine are referred to as adrenergic.

Question 64

The most abundant neurotransmitter in the peripheral nervous system is acetylcholine.

Question 65

Atropine, first derived from the Atropa belladonna plant, is a nicotinic receptor antagonist.

Question 66

Norepinephrine is one of the more important neurotransmitters of the peripheral nervous system. Identify the branches of the peripheral nervous system for which norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter and describe the receptors responsible for responding to norepinephrine. Include the mechanisms whereby these receptors transduce the response to norepinephrine.

Question 67

According to the concept of dual innervation, in most cases, the two branches of the autonomic nervous system innervate the same effector organs, but tend to have opposite effects on those organs.

Question 68

Alpha adrenergic receptors have a greater affinity for norepinephrine than for epinephrine.

Question 69

The responses triggered by the binding of acetylcholine can be either excitatory or inhibitory, depending on the target cell in question.

Question 70

Acetylcholine is one of the most common neurotransmitters in the peripheral nervous system. Identify the branches of the peripheral nervous system for which acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter and describe the receptors responsible for responding to acetylcholine. Include the mechanisms whereby these receptors transduce the response to acetylcholine.

Question 71

For skeletal muscle to relax, the neural stimulation must decrease.

Question 72

The somatic nervous system provides both excitatory and inhibitory signals to skeletal muscle.

Question 73

The primary hormone released from the adrenal medulla is norepinephrine.

Question 74

The parasympathetic nervous system exerts more discrete effects on effector organs than the sympathetic nervous system due to the independence of parasympathetic ganglia.

Question 75

Describe the synaptic junctions between the neurons of the autonomic and somatic nervous systems and their effector organs.

Question 76

A motor unit consists of a skeletal muscle fiber (cell) and all of the motor neurons that innervate that skeletal muscle fiber.

Question 77

The nature of a response from the sympathetic nervous system is determined by the anatomy of this system. Describe the general structure of the sympathetic nervous system, including the three anatomical configurations and how they contribute to the overall sympathetic response.

Question 78

The nature of a response from the parasympathetic nervous system is determined by the anatomy of this system. Describe the anatomy of the parasympathetic nervous system and how that differs from the sympathetic nervous system.

Question 79

Acetylcholine binding to nicotinic cholinergic receptors always excites the postsynaptic cell.