Deck 24: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems

Question 1

The presence of Gram-negative diplococci in pus from an inflamed penis is diagnostic for infection by

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) Treponema pallidum.
C) Mycoplasma hominis.
D) Chlamydia trachomatis.
E) human herpesvirus 2.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Neisseria gonorrhoeae most commonly infects which of the following in females?

A) the ovaries
B) the cervix
C) the fallopian tubes
D) the vagina
E) the uterus

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding gonorrhea?

A) Gonorrhea produces good long-term specific immunity.
B) The causative agent can grow on most mucous membranes of the body.
C) Asymptomatic infections have no long-term consequences.
D) It is easily confused with chancroid.
E) Women usually experience severe symptoms early in infection.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial vaginosis frequently used to confirm diagnosis?

A) the presence of buboes
B) an acidic vaginal pH
C) the presence of clue cells
D) an abnormal vaginal discharge
E) fever and rash

Question 5

Which of the following transmits leptospirosis?

A) humans infected with leptospirosis
B) infected animal urine
C) infected animal feces
D) infected human urine
E) infected animal bites

Question 6

Which of the following structures allows the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the fetal blood and the motherʹs blood?

A) the cervix
B) the clitoris
C) the uterine tubes
D) the uterus
E) the placenta

Question 7

Which of the following contributes to the invasiveness of Treponema pallidum?

A) TSST
B) fimbriae
C) hyaluronidase
D) lipooligosaccharide in the cell wall
E) IgA protease

Question 8

When bacteria invade the kidney, the result can be

A) bacteriosis.
B) cystitis.
C) ectopic.
D) prostatitis.
E) pyelonephritis.

Question 9

The process of producing urine begins in the of the kidney.

A) collecting duct
B) renal pyramids
C) nephron
D) efferent arterioles
E) renal capsule

Question 10

The presence of the specimen shown in the figure in a vaginal discharge is evidence of infection with

A) Trichomonas vaginalis.
B) Treponema palladium.
C) Chlamydia trachomatis.
D) Candida albicans.
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Question 11

Neisseria gonorrhoeae of the reproductive tract in women

A) results in the production of a yellow-greenish frothy discharge.
B) produces painful ulcerations.
C) produces severe inflammation of the vagina and cervix.
D) results in the formation of curd-like discharge.
E) is usually initially asymptomatic.

Question 12

During the spring calving season, a ranch hand begins to run a fever and feel nauseous and achy. After he develops a headache and vomiting, he goes to a clinic. A microscopic exam of a urine sample reveals long thin microbes which move very rapidly in a corkscrewing pattern. The man may have contracted

A) leptospirosis.
B) chancroid.
C) trichomoniasis.
D) staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome.
E) glomerulonephritis.

Question 13

The disorder is a complication of systemic infections with Streptococcus in which antigen-antibody complexes form in the blood and get trapped in the kidneys.

A) leptospirosis
B) pyelonephritis
C) cystitis
D) glomerulonephritis
E) urethritis

Question 14

Untreated infection of males with Neisseria gonorrhoeae may result in

A) sterility.
B) penile cancer.
C) gummas.
D) glomerulonephritis.
E) orchitis.

Question 15

The typical sign of primary syphilis is

A) lymphadenopathy.
B) a chancre at the site of infection.
C) a widespread rash.
D) gummas in various organs.
E) paralysis.

Question 16

Mature sperm cells are stored in a maleʹs

A) vas deferens.
B) epididymis.
C) testes.
D) prostate gland.
E) prepuce.

Question 17

Diagnosis of syphilis is usually made by

A) a Pap smear.
B) DNA probes.
C) microscopic evaluation of stained specimens.
D) culturing specimens on laboratory media.
E) the MHA-TP test.

Question 18

The majority of cases of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome occur in

A) anyone with a Staphylococcus aureus infection.
B) newly delivered mothers.
C) menstruating women.
D) uncircumcised males.
E) nasal surgery patients.

Question 19

Why does taking antibacterial medications put women at risk for candidiasis?

A) Antibacterials serve as growth stimulants for Candida albicans.
B) Antibacterials can alter metabolism, creating conditions that favor the growth of Candida albicans.
C) Antibacterials deplete the normal bacterial microbiota, resulting in a change of pH.
D) Bacteria killed by antibacterials provide nutrients for Candida albicans.
E) Depletion of the bacterial microbiota results in higher carbon dioxide levels, (which favor the growth of Candida albicans).

Question 20

A distinctive feature of secondary syphilis is

A) blister-like lesions which ulcerate.
B) a widespread rash that can include the palms and soles.
C) rubbery, painful lesions.
D) soft, painful ulcers.
E) hard, red, painless bumps.

Question 21

A woman goes to her gynecologist and reports that she is experiencing pain during intercourse and frequently has an unusual vaginal discharge that is increased in quantity and sort of foamy. A vaginal smear shows normal appearing epithelial cells along with small leaf-shaped cells with prominent oval nuclei. What disease is the woman experiencing?

A) herpes
B) trichomoniasis
C) cervical cancer
D) chancroid
E) syphilis

Question 22

Some strains of the virus responsible for genital warts can cause the development of

A) genital herpes.
B) cervical cancer.
C) tertiary syphilis.
D) trichomoniasis.
E) chancroid.

Question 23

Condylomata acuminata are associated with infections of which of the following?

A) papillomaviruses
B) human herpesvirus 1
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) human herpesvirus 2
E) Trichomonas vaginalis

Question 24

Trichomonas vaginalis is usually transmitted during sexual intercourse because it

A) participates with HIV in coinfections.
B) cannot live long outside the body.
C) requires a growth factor found only in the vagina.
D) penetrates cells lining the genitourinary tract.
E) produces cysts that germinate in the vagina.

Question 25

The urethra is the only part of the urinary system in which one would expect to find normal microbiota.

Question 26

Observation of the microbes shown in the figure from a vaginal discharge specimen is diagnostic for

A) syphilis.
B) gonorrhea.
C) trachoma.
D) trichomoniasis.
E) Chlamydia infection.

Question 27

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the incidence of STDs?

A) The incidence of STDs is known with a high degree of accuracy.
B) Bacterial STDs are declining worldwide as a result of the ready availability of antibiotics.
C) The incidence of most STDs could be reduced by vaccination.
D) Viruses transmitted by sexual contact are not widespread.
E) Viral STDs in the U.S. are considered epidemic.

Question 28

Gonorrhea in women is not a risk factor for sterility.

Question 29

The noninfective, obligately intracellular forms of chlamydia are called

A) trachomas.
B) elementary bodies.
C) phagosomes.
D) pseudohyphae.
E) initial bodies.

Question 30

In addition to the genital tract, various strains of Chlamydia trachomatis can infect which of the following?

A) the conjunctiva
B) the lungs
C) lymph nodes
D) lymph nodes and conjunctiva
E) lymph nodes, lungs, and conjunctiva

Question 31

Which of the following can mimic gonorrhea infections?

A) syphilis
B) chancroid
C) chlamydia
D) candidiasis
E) trichomoniasis

Question 32

The risk of developing toxic shock syndrome is increased by the use of super-absorbent tampons.

Question 33

A young adult shows up at a free clinic complaining of painful swellings in the groin. The young woman has a history of occasional casual sex, but denies noticing any genital sores or experiencing painful urination. The young woman is most likely infected with

A) Haemophilus ducreyi.
B) Trichomonas vaginalis.
C) Treponema pallidum.
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
E) Chlamydia trachomatis.

Question 34

Syphilis can be transmitted

A) by sexual contact.
B) by fomites.
C) from mother to fetus.
D) both by sexual contact and from mother to fetus.
E) by sexual contact, by fomites, and from mother to fetus.

Question 35

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding genital herpes?

A) It can only be transmitted when lesions are evident.
B) Acyclovir is effective in reducing the occurrence of lesions, but is not a cure.
C) Herpes can be prevented using vaginal spermicidal creams.
D) There is an effective vaccine to prevent infection.
E) Re-appearance of lesions is the result of new infections.

Question 36

The normal microbiota of the vagina help maintain a vaginal pH of around 7.5.

Question 37

Chancroid is caused by

A) Mycoplasma hominis.
B) Trichomonas vaginalis.
C) Treponema pallidum.
D) human herpesvirus 2.
E) Haemophilus ducreyi.

Question 38

A diagnosis of genital herpes is confirmed by the

A) binding of fluorescent antibodies.
B) appearance of stained tissue specimens.
C) location of herpetic lesions.
D) appearance and size of herpetic lesions.
E) detection of herpesvirus DNA by PCR.

Question 39

Genital herpes and genital warts are both caused by human herpesviruses.

Question 40

The major sign of Haemophilus ducreyi infection is similar to the initial sign of infection by

A) Staphylococcus aureus.
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
C) Candida albicans.
D) Treponema pallidum.
E) Chlamydia trachomatis.

Question 41

The yeast infection (candidiasis/trichomoniasis/vaginosis) can become systemic in AIDS patients.

Question 42

Trichomoniasis increases patientsʹ susceptibility to infection by HIV.

Question 43

The frequent, urgent, and painful urination that often results from urinary tract infections is called (dysuria/cystitis/glomerulonephritis).

Question 44

Clinical manifestations of Chlamydia infections arise primarily from an inflammatory response to the destruction of infected cells.

Question 45

The drug of choice for treating primary and secondary syphilis is (amoxicillin/penicillin/streptomycin) G.

Question 46

A whitlow is the result of human papillomavirus infection of the skin of the hand.

Question 47

Babies exposed to an intracellular parasite normally transmitted by sexual contact are at risk for (conjunctivitis/trachoma/warts).

Question 48

The presence of (bacillus/clue/streptococcal) cells is an important aspect of the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis.

Question 49

A vaccine is available to prevent infection with (herpes/HIV/HPV).

Question 50

Buboes are a major sign that appears in half of all patients with (chancroid/chancre/chlamydia), a disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi.

Question 51

Infection with virulent strains of human (herpes/HIV/papilloma) virus may result in large painful condylomata acuminata on the genitalia.

Question 52

Mental confusion is often the only sign of a urinary tract infection in elderly patients.)

Question 53

Glycogen is converted to acid in the vagina by (Lactobacilli/Streptococci/yeast), thereby contributing to an acidic pH in that area.

Question 54

The bacterial infection (leptospirosis/trichomoniasis/vaginosis) is a zoonosis.

Question 55

When bacteria infect the bladder, the condition is known as (cystitis/pyelonephritis/urethritis).

Question 56

Because the (ductus/urethra/ureter) is shorter in females than in males, it can be a portal of entry for pathogens.

Question 57

A patient with systemic bacterial infection develops high blood pressure, and the urine output declines, but what urine is passed contains blood. The patient does not experience pain with urination. These signs are consistent with (cystitis/glomerulonephritis/urethritis).

Question 58

The most common symptom of chancroid in women is a vaginal discharge.

Question 59

A small, red, hard but painless lesion is a sign of infection with (chancroid/herpes/syphilis).

Question 60

When chlamydias spread from the genitalia to the rectum, they can cause an inflammatory process called (PID/proctitis/pyelonephritis).

Question 61

Explain why a female who has a history of gonorrhea infections is more likely to have an ectopic pregnancy.

Question 62

Some sexually transmitted diseases mimic other STDs with regard to their symptoms. Give an example of two of these types of diseases, describing how the symptoms of each disease resemble those of another STD.

Question 63

Some areas of the genitourinary tract are normally sterile, whereas other areas have a variety of microbiota. Describe the defense mechanisms of the genitourinary tract that contribute to this dichotomy.

Question 64

Explain why some syphilis patients may only experience the symptoms of primary syphilis, while other patients may progress all the way to tertiary syphilis.

Question 65

A patient complains of fever, pain on one side of the body, and fatigue. The clinician notes the patientʹs blood pressure is somewhat elevated. The patient reports experiencing some painful urination for a few days during the previous week. Tests on a urine sample reveal the presence of motile Gram-negative bacilli. What is the patient most likely suffering from?