Deck 19: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds
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Deck 19: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds
1
Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Rickettsia rickettsii.
E) both Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Rickettsia rickettsii.
E) both Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.
E
2
An infection of a hair follicle at the base of an eyelid is called a
A) macule.
B) pimple.
C) furuncle.
D) carbuncle.
E) sty.
A) macule.
B) pimple.
C) furuncle.
D) carbuncle.
E) sty.
E
3
The skin is an effective barrier against invading microbes because
A) it is well supplied with blood vessels to flush microbes from the surface.
B) no microbes are able to survive on the surface.
C) the outer layers of cells are dead.
D) the surface is covered in salt.
E) the outer layers are dead and covered in salt.
A) it is well supplied with blood vessels to flush microbes from the surface.
B) no microbes are able to survive on the surface.
C) the outer layers of cells are dead.
D) the surface is covered in salt.
E) the outer layers are dead and covered in salt.
E
4
A petechial rash starting on the hands and feet and spreading to the torso is characteristic of
A) smallpox.
B) herpes gladiatorum.
C) RMSF.
D) anthrax.
E) necrotizing fasciitis.
A) smallpox.
B) herpes gladiatorum.
C) RMSF.
D) anthrax.
E) necrotizing fasciitis.
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5
The signs and symptoms of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome are caused by
A) coagulase.
B) beta-lactamase.
C) staphylokinase.
D) exfoliative toxins.
E) lipase.
A) coagulase.
B) beta-lactamase.
C) staphylokinase.
D) exfoliative toxins.
E) lipase.
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6
What is the pathogenic process underlying Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A) stimulation of a strong immune response
B) formation of biofilms in host tissues
C) interference with host cell metabolism
D) cellular damage via potent exotoxins
E) damage to blood vessels
A) stimulation of a strong immune response
B) formation of biofilms in host tissues
C) interference with host cell metabolism
D) cellular damage via potent exotoxins
E) damage to blood vessels
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7
The are Gram-positive pleomorphic bacteria commonly found on the skin.
A) Clostridia
B) diphtheroids
C) Staphylococci
D) Pseudomonads
E) Streptococci
A) Clostridia
B) diphtheroids
C) Staphylococci
D) Pseudomonads
E) Streptococci
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8
Localized swelling of a scratch accompanied by fever, malaise, and swollen lymph nodes may result from infection with
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B) Propionibacterium acnes.
C) Mycrosporum canis.
D) Rickettsia rickettsii.
E) Bartonella henselae.
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B) Propionibacterium acnes.
C) Mycrosporum canis.
D) Rickettsia rickettsii.
E) Bartonella henselae.
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9
Impetigo can be caused by
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.
E) both Staphylococcus epidermidis and Streptococcus pyogenes.
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.
E) both Staphylococcus epidermidis and Streptococcus pyogenes.
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10
Infection known as frequently begins as an injury that rapidly becomes red, swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful.
A) staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
B) gas gangrene
C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D) anthrax
E) necrotizing fasciitis
A) staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
B) gas gangrene
C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D) anthrax
E) necrotizing fasciitis
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11
Spreading black necrosis, swelling, pain and froth or bubbles are characteristic of
A) chromoblastomycosis.
B) Pseudomonas infection.
C) gas gangrene.
D) necrotizing fasciitis.
E) anthrax.
A) chromoblastomycosis.
B) Pseudomonas infection.
C) gas gangrene.
D) necrotizing fasciitis.
E) anthrax.
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12
Smallpox was the first human disease to be
A) globally eradicated.
B) treated with antiviral drugs.
C) identified as a viral disease.
D) analyzed and studied on the genetic level.
E) recreated in an experimental animal.
A) globally eradicated.
B) treated with antiviral drugs.
C) identified as a viral disease.
D) analyzed and studied on the genetic level.
E) recreated in an experimental animal.
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13
The resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide variety of antimicrobial drugs is due, in part, to its
A) ability to pump drugs out of the cell.
B) production of pyocyanin.
C) production of exoenzymes.
D) ability to utilize a wide range of carbon and nitrogen sources.
E) ability to grow in almost any moist environment.
A) ability to pump drugs out of the cell.
B) production of pyocyanin.
C) production of exoenzymes.
D) ability to utilize a wide range of carbon and nitrogen sources.
E) ability to grow in almost any moist environment.
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14
Virulent strains of Staphylococcus aureus can resist penicillin because they produce
A) coagulase.
B) lipase.
C) beta-lactamase.
D) staphylokinase.
E) a slime layer.
A) coagulase.
B) lipase.
C) beta-lactamase.
D) staphylokinase.
E) a slime layer.
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15
Normal skin microbiota are able to grow on the skin because they can thrive in the presence of
A) keratin.
B) sebum.
C) salt.
D) sebum and salt.
E) sebum, salt, and keratin.
A) keratin.
B) sebum.
C) salt.
D) sebum and salt.
E) sebum, salt, and keratin.
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16
Which of the following is a complication that may result from a Streptococcus pyogenes skin infection?
A) a sty
B) shingles
C) a carbuncle
D) erysipelas
E) scalded skin syndrome
A) a sty
B) shingles
C) a carbuncle
D) erysipelas
E) scalded skin syndrome
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17
Rickettsias are obligate intracellular parasites because they
A) cannot metabolize lipids.
B) cannot synthesize amino acids.
C) lack the glycolytic pathway.
D) lack ribosomes.
E) lack a cell wall.
A) cannot metabolize lipids.
B) cannot synthesize amino acids.
C) lack the glycolytic pathway.
D) lack ribosomes.
E) lack a cell wall.
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18
A specific wavelength of UVA can be used to treat
A) cat scratch disease.
B) bacteremia.
C) RMSF.
D) acne.
E) swimmerʹs ear.
A) cat scratch disease.
B) bacteremia.
C) RMSF.
D) acne.
E) swimmerʹs ear.
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19
A(n) is a large mass of inflammation and accumulated pus under the surface of an area of thick skin.
A) mycetoma
B) furuncle
C) carbuncle
D) erysipelas
E) pox
A) mycetoma
B) furuncle
C) carbuncle
D) erysipelas
E) pox
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20
Anthrax derives its name from which of the following aspects of the disease?
A) the shape of B. anthracis colonies on agar
B) the necessity of burning animals killed by the disease
C) the shape of its endospores
D) the microscopic appearance of its cells
E) the appearance of eschars on the skin
A) the shape of B. anthracis colonies on agar
B) the necessity of burning animals killed by the disease
C) the shape of its endospores
D) the microscopic appearance of its cells
E) the appearance of eschars on the skin
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21
A herpetic lesion on the finger or hand is known as a
A) macule.
B) fever blister.
C) whitlow.
D) furuncle.
E) pox.
A) macule.
B) fever blister.
C) whitlow.
D) furuncle.
E) pox.
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22
A man is suffering severe foot pain in the area of what looks like a large wart. He reports he has had the wart for some time, and the pain and swelling have developed slowly. A sample from the lesion shows that the pus contains large cells that stain a golden brown color. The man is likely suffering from
A) mycetoma.
B) chromoblasomycosis.
C) necrotizing fasciitis.
D) sporotrichosis.
E) phaeohyphomycosis.
A) mycetoma.
B) chromoblasomycosis.
C) necrotizing fasciitis.
D) sporotrichosis.
E) phaeohyphomycosis.
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23
A child complains of intensely itchy ʺpimplesʺ on the hands and wrists. The lesions are small inflamed streaks, but do not appear to contain pus. The childʹs condition may be the result of infection with
A) Clostridium perfringens.
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C) Sporothrix schenkii.
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
E) Sarcoptes scabiei.
A) Clostridium perfringens.
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C) Sporothrix schenkii.
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
E) Sarcoptes scabiei.
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24
Which of the following is becoming rarer as a result of childhood vaccinations?
A) neonatal herpes
B) warts
C) roseola
D) impetigo
E) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
A) neonatal herpes
B) warts
C) roseola
D) impetigo
E) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
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25
ʺRingwormʺ is caused by
A) parasitic worms that infect the skin.
B) dermatophytes that have invaded deep layers of the skin.
C) a hypersensitivity reaction caused by superficial contact with dermatophytes.
D) immunosuppression due to HIV infection.
E) dermatophytes growing in the upper dead tissue layers of the skin.
A) parasitic worms that infect the skin.
B) dermatophytes that have invaded deep layers of the skin.
C) a hypersensitivity reaction caused by superficial contact with dermatophytes.
D) immunosuppression due to HIV infection.
E) dermatophytes growing in the upper dead tissue layers of the skin.
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26
Ultraviolet illumination is the quickest way to diagnose infections of which of the following?
A) Pseudallescheria
B) Piedraia hortae
C) Malassezia furfur
D) Leishmania sp.
E) Sarcoptes scabiei
A) Pseudallescheria
B) Piedraia hortae
C) Malassezia furfur
D) Leishmania sp.
E) Sarcoptes scabiei
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27
Common skin warts are the result of infection with
A) herpesviruses.
B) parvoviruses.
C) poxviruses.
D) papillomaviruses.
E) rubeola virus.
A) herpesviruses.
B) parvoviruses.
C) poxviruses.
D) papillomaviruses.
E) rubeola virus.
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28
A small puncture wound on a womanʹs arm has become swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful. There is tissue necrosis but it is not ʺgassy,ʺ and under the microscope Gram -positive cocci in chains are present. Which of the following microbes is likely to be responsible?
A) Clostridium perfringens
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Sporothrix schenckii
E) Staphylococcus aureus
A) Clostridium perfringens
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Sporothrix schenckii
E) Staphylococcus aureus
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29
Shingles, or herpes zoster, is a reactivation of the virus that causes
A) whitlows.
B) chickenpox.
C) smallpox.
D) German measles.
E) measles.
A) whitlows.
B) chickenpox.
C) smallpox.
D) German measles.
E) measles.
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30
Which of the following is/are antiphagocytic?
A) leukocidin
B) protein A
C) M protein
D) both protein A and M protein
E) protein A, M protein, and leukocidin
A) leukocidin
B) protein A
C) M protein
D) both protein A and M protein
E) protein A, M protein, and leukocidin
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31
A reddening of the skin of the face that intensifies when exposed to the sun is characteristic of
A) rubeola.
B) erythema infectiosum.
C) herpes.
D) chickenpox.
E) rubella.
A) rubeola.
B) erythema infectiosum.
C) herpes.
D) chickenpox.
E) rubella.
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32
Which of the following can cause birth defects?
A) smallpox
B) roseola
C) rubella
D) chickenpox
E) measles
A) smallpox
B) roseola
C) rubella
D) chickenpox
E) measles
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33
A child has a rash on the face, arms, upper legs, and torso. It is splotchy and intensifies after being in the sun. The child does not complain of fever or itchiness. The signs and symptoms are consistent with
A) cat scratch disease.
B) fifth disease.
C) roseola.
D) scabies.
E) chickenpox.
A) cat scratch disease.
B) fifth disease.
C) roseola.
D) scabies.
E) chickenpox.
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34
Which of the following forms of leishmaniasis is typically fatal?
A) cutaneous
B) visceral
C) mucocutaneous
D) Both cutaneous and mucocutaneous are frequently fatal.
E) Visceral, mucocutaneous, and cutaneous are all potentially fatal.
A) cutaneous
B) visceral
C) mucocutaneous
D) Both cutaneous and mucocutaneous are frequently fatal.
E) Visceral, mucocutaneous, and cutaneous are all potentially fatal.
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35
Under some circumstances, is beneficial, but under other conditions the bacteria become overabundant leading to inflammation of hair follicles.
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Propionibacterium acnes
D) Bacillus anthracis
E) Microsporum
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Propionibacterium acnes
D) Bacillus anthracis
E) Microsporum
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36
The rash described as ʺteardrops on rose petalsʺ is characteristic of
A) smallpox.
B) anthrax.
C) warts.
D) chickenpox.
E) herpes.
A) smallpox.
B) anthrax.
C) warts.
D) chickenpox.
E) herpes.
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37
A pigment produced by an opportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is
A) lipase.
B) streptokinase.
C) hyaluronidase.
D) pyocyanin.
E) M protein.
A) lipase.
B) streptokinase.
C) hyaluronidase.
D) pyocyanin.
E) M protein.
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38
A rash characterized by macules which swell, fill with fluid and then pus, then rupture and become crusty lesions, is characteristic of
A) chickenpox virus reactivation.
B) human herpes virus 2 primary infection.
C) roseola virus.
D) papillomavirus infection.
E) poxvirus infection.
A) chickenpox virus reactivation.
B) human herpes virus 2 primary infection.
C) roseola virus.
D) papillomavirus infection.
E) poxvirus infection.
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39
Some strains of Papillomavirus are oncogenic due to their ability to
A) lie dormant in cells for years.
B) escape the phagosome before lysosome fusion.
C) cause extensive damage to blood vessels.
D) produce deoxyribonucleases.
E) integrate into the host cell DNA.
A) lie dormant in cells for years.
B) escape the phagosome before lysosome fusion.
C) cause extensive damage to blood vessels.
D) produce deoxyribonucleases.
E) integrate into the host cell DNA.
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40
A series of nodular lesions on an arm that fill with pus and ulcerate through the skin is characteristic of infection with the fungus
A) Micrococcus.
B) Epidermophyton.
C) Sporothrix schenckii.
D) Microsporum.
E) Trichophyton.
A) Micrococcus.
B) Epidermophyton.
C) Sporothrix schenckii.
D) Microsporum.
E) Trichophyton.
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41
Aspirin should never be given to children or adolescents with symptoms of (chickenpox/herpes/smallpox) because of the risk of developing Reyeʹs syndrome.
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42
Chickenpox and (herpes/shingles/warts) are caused by the same virus.
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43
Humans are the only hosts of Rickettsia rickettsii.
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44
In pregnant women, roseola infection can result in teratogenic birth defects.
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45
Clostridium perfringens causes necrotizing fasciitis.
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46
Chromoblastomycosis is rarely a severe disease and can be treated easily with appropriate drugs.
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47
Immunization with (chickenpox/cowpox/HPV) provides protection against smallpox.)
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48
ʺThree-day measlesʺ is caused by the (roseola/rubella/rubeola) virus.
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49
A sample from an abscess is stained and examined under the microscope. A Gram stain appears uniformly pink, but a GMS (Gomori methenamine silver) stain reveals brownish filaments in the sample. These findings suggest
A) dermatophytosis.
B) sporotrichosis.
C) necrotizing fasciitis.
D) phaeohyphomycosis.
E) leishmaniasis.
A) dermatophytosis.
B) sporotrichosis.
C) necrotizing fasciitis.
D) phaeohyphomycosis.
E) leishmaniasis.
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50
Because they are common soil saprobes, dermatophytes are fungi that are not contagious in humans.
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51
Pityriasisʹ characteristic appearance is the result of a fungal infection causing changes in the production of melanin.
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52
Fungus infection of the nail is known as tinea (capitus/pedis/unguium).
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53
An arachnid parasite causes the skin disease known as (leishmaniasis/ringworm/scabies).)
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54
The is a layer of tough fibers and fat cells that anchors the skin to the deeper tissues.
A) fascia
B) hypodermis
C) follicles
D) dermis
E) epidermis
A) fascia
B) hypodermis
C) follicles
D) dermis
E) epidermis
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55
Herpesvirus infections can be controlled with chemotherapeutic agents.
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56
Contact with soil may result in infection with (anthropophilic/geophilic/zoophilic) dermatophytosis.
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57
Smallpox vaccination was originally discontinued in the 1980s because of adverse effects of the vaccine.
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58
The production of (exotoxin/coagulase/hyaluronidase) enzyme breaks down connections between cells, allowing Streptococcus pyogenes to invade tissue and cause necrotizing fasciitis.
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59
Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, also known as kala -azar, is fatal in 100% of untreated cases.)
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60
M protein is a virulence factor associated with group A streptococci.
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61
Explain why Pseudomonas aeruginosa is described as a ʺmedical puzzle.ʺ
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62
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common microbe associated with infections of (burn/immunocompromised/elderly) patients.
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63
Both necrotizing fasciitis and gas gangrene are diseases characterized by rapid, spreading tissue necrosis. Compare and contrast the infectious agents, the pathology and treatment.
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64
Localization of lesions within a band of skin on one side of the body is a characteristic of the disease (measles/shingles/sporotrichosis).
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65
The peeling epidermis characteristic of scalded skin syndrome is due to the production of (exfoliative/pyrogenic/streptolysin) toxins.
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66
Describe the natural defenses of the skin that prevent many infections of this area.
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67
Explain the relationship between chickenpox and shingles, paying special attention to the pathogenic processes and transmission of each of these diseases.
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68
Warts on the sole of the foot are known as (seed/flat/plantar) warts.
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69
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) results when defective (chickenpox/measles/rubella) virus particles trigger the fusion of brain cells.
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70
A (furuncle/pimple/sty) is a type of folliculitis characterized by a large, painful, pus-filled nodule.
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71
The presence of Koplikʹs spots is sufficient for a diagnosis of (chickenpox/measles/rubella).
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72
Explain why smallpox vaccination is still being considered and debated, even though smallpox has been eradicated.
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