Deck 7: The Skeletal System

Question 1

Which of the following is an unpaired facial bone?

A) palatine bone
B) lacrimal bone
C) zygomatic bone
D) mandible

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Damage to the cribriform plate would most likely affect the sense of:

A) vision.
B) smell.
C) hearing.
D) balance.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT a type of depression in a bone?

A) foramen
B) fovea
C) fossa
D) facet

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT a cranial bone?

A) frontal bone
B) zygomatic bone
C) parietal bone
D) occipital bone

Question 5

What bone meets each parietal bone at the squamous suture?

A) temporal bone
B) occipital bone
C) zygomatic bone
D) frontal bone

Question 6

Which pair of bones meets along the sagittal suture?

A) lacrimal bones
B) parietal bones
C) nasal bones
D) temporal bones

Question 7

Which of the following does NOT belong to the axial skeleton?

A) skull
B) thoracic cage
C) vertebral column
D) pectoral girdle

Question 8

Which bone marking provides a site where bones articulate or to which ligaments and tendons attach?

A) projection
B) depression
C) foramen
D) opening

Question 9

Where would you expect to find fibrocartilage in the skeletal system?

A) between the bones of the upper limbs
B) between the ribs and sternum
C) between the vertebrae
D) forming the epiphyseal plates of long bones

Question 10

What is the main function of the bones of the appendicular skeleton?

A) form the longitudinal axis of the body
B) encase body cavities
C) protect underlying organs
D) aid in motion

Question 11

Through what hole in the occipital bone does the spinal cord travel?

A) jugular foramen
B) foramen lacerum
C) foramen magnum
D) carotid canal

Question 12

What bones meet at the lambdoid suture?

A) each temporal bone and each zygomatic bone
B) the occipital bone and parietal bones
C) each temporal bone and each parietal bone
D) the frontal bone and parietal bones

Question 13

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?

A) aid in motion
B) protection of underlying organs
C) encase body cavities
D) generate heat

Question 14

Which of the following is an opening in a bone?

A) canal (meatus)
B) groove (sulcus)
C) condyle
D) trochanter

Question 15

Which letter represents the sphenoid bone on this figure?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

Question 16

Which cranial bone articulates with every other cranial bone?

A) sphenoid bone
B) ethmoid bone
C) parietal bone
D) temporal bone

Question 17

Which bones house teeth?

A) temporal bone and palatine bone
B) vomer bone and ethmoid bone
C) zygomatic bone and palatine bone
D) mandible and maxillary bones

Question 18

The only movable bone of the adult skull is the:

A) temporal bone.
B) vomer bone.
C) mandible.
D) lacrimal bone.

Question 19

The palatine bone contributes to the structure of the:

A) soft palate.
B) hard palate.
C) paranasal sinus.
D) cheekbone.

Question 20

Geri has pain behind her ear lobe and was diagnosed with mastoiditis. Which bone is affected?

A) occipital bone
B) frontal bone
C) temporal bone
D) mandible

Question 21

Which letter represents the zygomatic bone on this figure?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

Question 22

From proximal to distal, what bones form the upper limb? 1. carpals
2) humerus
3) metacarpals
4) phalanges
5) ulna and radius

A) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
B) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
C) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
D) 2, 5, 1, 3, 4

Question 23

What unique feature is present only on the thoracic vertebrae?

A) vertebral foramina
B) transverse foramina
C) superior and inferior costal facets
D) dens (odontoid process)

Question 24

What bone does NOT articulate with any other bones?

A) mandible
B) maxilla
C) hyoid bone
D) sternum

Question 25

What are the two primary curvatures seen in the vertebral column of a fetus?

A) thoracic and sacral
B) cervical and sacral
C) cervical and thoracic
D) thoracic and lumbar

Question 26

The three portions of the sternum, from superior to inferior, are:

A) manubrium, body, xiphoid process.
B) manubrium, sternal angle, xiphoid process.
C) manubrium, xiphoid process, body.
D) clavicular notch, body, sternal angle.

Question 27

Which of the following bones does NOT house a paranasal sinus?

A) ethmoid bone
B) nasal bone
C) sphenoid bone
D) maxilla

Question 28

How many lumbar vertebrae exist in the vertebral column?

A) 5
B) 7
C) 33
D) 12

Question 29

What does the first cervical vertebra (C1 or atlas) lack?

A) inferior articular facet
B) vertebral body and spinous process
C) superior articular facet
D) vertebral foramen

Question 30

What outer ring of fibrocartilage protects the inner substance of an intervertebral disc and joins the vertebrae together?

A) transverse costal facet
B) anulus fibrosis
C) nucleus pulposus
D) lateral mass

Question 31

Place the classes of vertebrae in order as they are situated in the vertebral column from superior to inferior. 1. cervical vertebrae
2) coccygeal vertebrae
3) lumbar vertebrae
4) sacral vertebrae
5) thoracic vertebrae

A) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
B) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4
C) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
D) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2

Question 32

What part of the scapula articulates with the humerus?

A) coracoid process
B) supraspinous fossa
C) glenoid cavity
D) acromion

Question 33

The weight ^-bearing structure of a vertebra is the:

A) transverse process.
B) body.
C) superior articular process.
D) pedicle.

Question 34

A heavily ^-pregnant woman who walks with a swayback exhibits:

A) scoliosis.
B) lordosis (or hyperlordosis).
C) kyphosis.
D) either scoliosis or kyphosis.

Question 35

What structure is present on the second cervical vertebra (C2 or axis) that allows you to rotate your neck to say "no?"

A) posterior tubercle
B) dens (odontoid process)
C) body
D) transverse ligament

Question 36

Which rib articulates with the fourth thoracic vertebra (T4)?

A) fourth rib
B) fifth rib
C) eighth rib
D) second rib

Question 37

Vertebrae in which region are fused in adults?

A) lumbar vertebrae
B) cervical vertebrae
C) sacral vertebrae
D) thoracic vertebrae

Question 38

The thoracic and sacral curvatures of the vertebral column are ________ while the cervical and lumbar curvatures are _.

A) convex; concave
B) secondary; primary
C) concave; convex
D) S ^-shaped; C ^-shaped

Question 39

Membranous areas, or "soft spots," seen in the skull of an infant are called:

A) sutures.
B) fontanels.
C) sinuses.
D) cavities.

Question 40

What bone does NOT contribute to the formation of the orbit?

A) temporal bone
B) frontal bone
C) ethmoid bone
D) sphenoid bone

Question 41

The indentation on the posterior surface of the distal epiphysis of the humerus is the:

A) olecranon fossa.
B) coronoid fossa.
C) radial groove.
D) trochlear notch.

Question 42

The largest and strongest bone in the body is the:

A) femur.
B) tibia.
C) fibula.
D) humerus.

Question 43

Which part of the coxal bone articulates with the sacrum?

A) ilium
B) pubis
C) ischium
D) both ischium and pubis

Question 44

A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to a female's pelvic outlet.

A) wider
B) smaller
C) larger
D) longer

Question 45

In anatomical position, the ulna is ________ to the radius.

A) proximal
B) medial
C) lateral
D) distal

Question 46

Wrist bones are known as:

A) metacarpals.
B) tarsals.
C) carpals.
D) phalanges.

Question 47

What part of scapula articulates with the clavicle?

A) infraspinous fossa
B) glenoid cavity
C) coracoid process
D) acromion

Question 48

Kelly fell while ice skating and injured her scaphoid bone. What region of her body was injured?

A) ankle
B) shoulder
C) wrist
D) finger

Question 49

The linea aspera is located on the:

A) tibia.
B) talus.
C) femur.
D) fibula.

Question 50

The large hole in the coxal bone is the:

A) ischial tuberosity.
B) acetabulum.
C) greater sciatic notch.
D) obturator foramen.

Question 51

What bones form the forearm (antebrachium)?

A) carpals and metacarpals
B) tibia and fibula
C) ulna and radius
D) scapula and humerus

Question 52

What part of the radius articulates with the humerus?

A) olecranon
B) radial head
C) radial styloid process
D) radial tuberosity

Question 53

What part of each metacarpal forms the "knuckle" of your hand?

A) body
B) base
C) tail
D) head

Question 54

A female's pelvis typically has:

A) a heart ^-shaped pelvic inlet.
B) a narrow pubic arch.
C) a narrow greater pelvis.
D) laterally ^-pointing ischial tuberosities.

Question 55

What part of the ischium bears our weight when we sit?

A) ischial body
B) ischial tuberosity
C) ischial ramus
D) ischial spine

Question 56

Which letter represents the deltoid tuberosity on this image?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

Question 57

What is NOT located on the distal epiphysis of the humerus?

A) medial epicondyle
B) trochlea
C) capitulum
D) greater tubercle

Question 58

How many phalangeal bones are in each hand?

A) 7
B) 14
C) 19
D) 12

Question 59

What socket of the coxal bone articulates with the femur?

A) iliac spine
B) obturator foramen
C) pubic symphysis
D) acetabulum

Question 60

What three bones fuse during childhood to form the coxal bone?

A) ilium, ischium, pubis
B) sacrum, ilium, coccyx
C) pubis, sacrum, ischium
D) ischium, coccyx, ilium

Question 61

Ribs 8 ^-12 are considered false ribs because they do not directly attach to the sternum by their own cartilage. Instead, the costal cartilage of ribs 8 ^-10 attach to the cartilage of the seventh rib.

Question 62

The thumb is the ________ while the great toe is the _.

A) hallux; talus
B) carpal; tarsal
C) scaphoid; cuboid
D) pollex; hallux

Question 63

Maury fell from a ladder and broke his calcaneus. What body region sustained damage?

A) heel
B) ankle
C) wrist
D) palm

Question 64

The pelvic girdle consists of two bones, the clavicle and scapula, which support the upper limb and anchor it to the trunk.

Question 65

Which prominent arch runs along the medial side of the foot from the calcaneus to metatarsals I ^-III?

A) transverse arch
B) lateral longitudinal arch
C) medial longitudinal arch
D) frontal arch

Question 66

To what part of the tibia does the patellar ligament attach?

A) lateral condyle
B) medial condyle
C) tibial tuberosity
D) medial malleolus

Question 67

In an adult, each coxal bone is made of three fused bones: ilium, ischium, and pubis bones.

Question 68

The two groups of bones in the skull are the cranial bones, which encase the brain, and the facial bones, which form the framework of the face.

Question 69

At its two distinct ends, the clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum and the acromion of the scapula.

Question 70

Fourteen cranial bones and 8 facial bones form the skull.

Question 71

Which letter represents the head of the metatarsal bone in this figure?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

Question 72

The main two types of cartilage associated with the skeleton are fibrocartilage and hyaline cartilage.

Question 73

The radial tuberosity is the site of the attachment for the deltoid muscle.

Question 74

The distal end of the fibula articulates with the:

A) cuboid.
B) calcaneus.
C) talus.
D) navicular.

Question 75

Fontanels and unfused sutures give the fetal skull a significant amount of flexibility.

Question 76

Thoracic vertebrae have holes in their transverse processes known as transverse foramina for the passage of blood vessels.

Question 77

In the vertebral column, there are 7 cervical vertebrae, 12 thoracic vertebrae, 5 lumbar
vertebrae, 5 fused sacral vertebrae, and 3 ^-5 fused coccygeal vertebra to make an average total of 33 vertebrae in an older adult.

Question 78

Which tarsal bones of the foot are proximally situated?

A) scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform
B) cuboid and scaphoid
C) medial, intermediate, and lateral cuneiform
D) talus, calcaneus, navicular

Question 79

What part of the femur articulates with the tibia to form the knee joint?

A) medial malleolus and lateral malleolus
B) greater trochanter and lesser trochanter
C) medial condyle and lateral condyle
D) medial epicondyle and lateral epicondyle

Question 80

Which letter represents the intercondylar fossa on this image?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D