Deck 3: The Cell

Question 1

Aquaporins may be employed during:

A) osmosis.
B) endocytosis.
C) simple diffusion.
D) active transport.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The main component of the cytosol is:

A) water.
B) sugars.
C) organelles.
D) the nucleus.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Cytosol is also known as:

A) extracellular fluid (ECF).
B) intracellular fluid (ICF).
C) blood plasma.
D) the cytoskeleton.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein?

A) oxygen transport
B) form a lipid bilayer
C) promote fluidity of the membrane
D) molecular transport through the membrane

Question 5

Carbon dioxide is a small molecule that moves through the phospholipid bilayer with its concentration gradient by:

A) facilitated diffusion.
B) primary active transport.
C) osmosis.
D) simple diffusion.

Question 6

During osmosis, water moves toward:

A) the highest solute concentration.
B) the lowest osmotic pressure.
C) the solution with more water molecules.
D) the lowest solute concentration.

Question 7

What is NOT a function of the plasma membrane?

A) catalyze macromolecules into subunits
B) communication with other cells
C) structural support
D) isolate the cell from its surroundings

Question 8

What is transported across a membrane during osmosis?

A) water
B) sugars
C) solutes
D) salts

Question 9

Simple diffusion requires:

A) the use of energy.
B) a concentration gradient.
C) protein channels.
D) carrier proteins.

Question 10

A substance moves by facilitated diffusion into a cell. What is required for its transport?

A) ATP
B) ATP and a protein channel
C) protein channel
D) neither ATP nor a protein channel

Question 11

What is NOT one of the three main parts of a cell?

A) nucleus
B) plasma membrane
C) extracellular fluid
D) cytoplasm

Question 12

Which of the following would NOT be a component of the plasma membrane?

A) cytoskeleton
B) phospholipids
C) glycoproteins
D) cholesterol

Question 13

Cellular swelling is likely to occur when blood cells are immersed in:

A) hypotonic solutions.
B) isotonic solutions.
C) more concentrated solutions.
D) hypertonic solutions.

Question 14

Sodium ions are moving with their concentration gradient with the use of a protein channel across a plasma membrane. Determine the type of membrane transport used to transport these sodium ions.

A) facilitated diffusion
B) simple diffusion
C) primary active transport
D) osmosis

Question 15

A cell is placed into a 3% dextrose solution. At that concentration, the solution is isotonic to the cell. If the concentration of dextrose in the solution is increased to 5%, the cell is now in a(n):

A) hypertonic solution.
B) isotonic solution.
C) hypotonic solution.
D) less concentrated solution.

Question 16

Why is cholesterol a critical component of the plasma membrane?

A) Cholesterol serves a role in cell recognition.
B) Cholesterol stabilizes the structure of the plasma membrane when the temperature changes.
C) Cholesterol catalyzes metabolic reactions from its position within the plasma membrane.
D) Cholesterol transports certain molecules into the cell.

Question 17

Which of the following describes the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane structure?

A) Phospholipids consist of a polar head and a nonpolar tail made of three fatty acid chains.
B) The phospholipid bilayer is embedded with associated proteins, cholesterol and sugars and has a dynamic arrangement.
C) The plasma membrane is composed of two layers of proteins embedded with lipids.
D) The lipid bilayer is solid at body temperature, thus protecting the cell.

Question 18

Molecular machines that perform specific functions for the cell are:

A) cytosol.
B) organelles.
C) the cytoskeleton.
D) the plasma membrane.

Question 19

Which of the following best describes the structure of the plasma membrane?

A) The plasma membrane is a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma.
B) The plasma membrane is composed of cristae.
C) The plasma membrane is a single ^-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell.
D) The plasma membrane is a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell.

Question 20

Which of the following best describes a cell's response to being placed into an extracellular solution that is hypertonic to the cytosol?

A) swelling
B) crenation
C) lysis
D) no net gain or loss of water

Question 21

Resting membrane potential is due to unequal concentrations of:

A) ions.
B) water molecules.
C) acids and bases.
D) phosopholipids and proteins.

Question 22

A process that requires energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called:

A) facilitated transport.
B) osmosis.
C) active transport.
D) passive transport.

Question 23

Place the following steps of endomembrane system function in the correct order. 1. Golgi apparatus receives transport vesicles from the RER.
2) Ribosomes on the RER synthesize proteins.
3) Proteins are packaged into transport vesicles
4) Modified proteins may be secreted from the cell by exocytosis.
5) Proteins are modified by the Golgi apparatus.

A) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
B) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
C) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
D) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

Question 24

Which of the following processes are functionally opposite to one another?

A) osmosis and simple diffusion
B) endocytosis and exocytosis
C) phagocytosis and pinocytosis
D) simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion

Question 25

Where does protein synthesis occur?

A) mitochondria
B) peroxisomes
C) ribosomes
D) lysosomes

Question 26

The total solute concentration of a red blood cell is about 2%. Sucrose cannot pass through a red blood cell's plasma membrane, but water and urea can. Which of the following solutions will cause a red blood cell to shrink?

A) a hypertonic urea solution
B) a hypotonic urea solution
C) a hypertonic sucrose solution
D) a hypotonic sucrose solution

Question 27

What is NOT a function of the peroxisome?

A) oxidize toxic substances
B) protein synthesis
C) synthesize certain phospholipids
D) break down fatty acids

Question 28

Which of the following best describes secondary active transport?

A) Secondary active transport involves the movement of water by osmosis into a cell.
B) Secondary active transport involves the movement of a substance into a cell with its concentration gradient.
C) Secondary active transport occurs when one substance is coupled with the passive transport of a second substance.
D) Secondary active transport involves the movement of a substance into a cell through a protein channel with its concentration gradient.

Question 29

Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is FALSE?

A) The cytoskeleton provides the characteristic shape and size to a cell.
B) The cytoskeleton supports the plasma and nuclear membranes.
C) The cytoskeleton functions in movement.
D) The cytoskeleton synthesizes proteins.

Question 30

What is NOT part of the endomembrane system?

A) lysosome
B) peroxisome
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) Golgi apparatus

Question 31

Active transport processes:

A) move solutes through the phospholipid bilayer without the use of integral proteins.
B) require cells to expend energy (ATP).
C) move solutes with or along their concentration gradients.
D) move solutes from a higher concentration to a lower concentration.

Question 32

Two types of active transport via vesicles are:

A) diffusion and osmosis.
B) endocytosis and exocytosis.
C) simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion.
D) primary active transport and secondary active transport.

Question 33

Which organelle modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids for export from the cell?

A) cytoskeleton
B) Golgi apparatus
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) mitochondrion

Question 34

The Na⁺/K⁺ pump transports three sodium ions out of the cell for every two potassium ions moved into the cell. This is an example of:

A) facilitated diffusion.
B) a uniport pump.
C) an antiport pump.
D) a symport pump.

Question 35

What organelle degrades old, worn ^-out organelles and cell components?

A) peroxisome
B) rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
C) lysosome
D) Golgi apparatus

Question 36

Identify the type of solution into which this cell has been placed.

A) isotonic
B) hypertonic
C) hypotonic
D) a solution with equal solute concentration as the cell

Question 37

The reactions of oxidative catabolism, or aerobic respiration, can occur in the mitochondrion only in the presence of:

A) oxygen.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) alkaline pH.
D) hydrogen ions.

Question 38

A white blood cell engulfs a bacterium through a process called:

A) primary active transport.
B) facilitated diffusion.
C) exocytosis.
D) endocytosis.

Question 39

Which statement regarding the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is FALSE?

A) The SER synthesizes the majority of the lipid components of the plasma membrane.
B) The SER manufactures proteins for export from the cell.
C) The SER stores calcium ions.
D) The SER detoxifies drugs and harmful substances ingested by and produced in the body.

Question 40

Muscle cells require an abundant amount of ATP to function. Therefore, muscle cells have numerous:

A) peroxisomes.
B) mitochondria.
C) lysosomes.
D) ribosomes.

Question 41

A mutation has changed the sequence in a codon from UGG to UGA. Using the codon chart provided in this figure, determine the change in the amino acid sequence.

A) from start to stop
B) from threonine to threonine
C) from tryptophan to stop
D) from glycine to glutamine

Question 42

The unit of DNA that specifies a certain amino acid is called a ________, the same unit of mRNA is called a(n) ________ which, during protein synthesis, is matched by the of
TRNA.

A) gene, triplet, amino acid
B) triplet, anticodon, codon
C) triplet, codon, anticodon
D) nucleotide, triplet, gene

Question 43

Through the microscope, you see cells swimming. Each cell has a long tail that moves in a whip ^-like manner. What type of cellular extension have you observed?

A) centriole
B) flagellum
C) cilium
D) microvillus

Question 44

Within the nucleus, where does ribosome assembly occur?

A) nucleoplasm
B) nuclear pore
C) nucleolus
D) centromere

Question 45

How many homologous chromosome pairs are present in most human cells?

A) 4
B) 46
C) 18
D) 23

Question 46

Tetracycline is an antibiotic used to treat infections. It binds with bacterial ribosomes and inhibits the tRNA molecule from binding to the ribosome. What process is interrupted?

A) replication
B) transcription
C) mitosis
D) translation

Question 47

The triplet codes in DNA needed to specify a specific polypeptide chain are found in the:

A) codon of mRNA.
B) cytoplasm.
C) gene.
D) anticodon of tRNA.

Question 48

Place the following steps of protein synthesis in the correct order as they occur. 1. mRNA is produced in the nucleus.
2) Ribosome moves along mRNA.
3) DNA uncoils for transcription.
4) Polypeptide is produced.
5) tRNA brings amino acids to the ribosome.
6) mRNA moves to the ribosome.

A) 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5
B) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 6
C) 3, 5, 1, 6, 2, 4
D) 3, 1, 6, 2, 5, 4

Question 49

What is the role of RNA polymerase in transcription?

A) RNA polymerase binds the DNA promoter and builds an mRNA molecule.
B) RNA polymerase carries the code for the amino acid in a sequence of nucleotides.
C) RNA polymerase catalyzes the unwinding of the DNA double helix.
D) RNA polymerase signals the end of the mRNA molecule.

Question 50

The structure that governs the components of the cell is the:

A) mitochondrion.
B) nucleus.
C) Golgi apparatus.
D) rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Question 51

Provide the tRNA anticodon that is complementary to this mRNA codon: UAC.

A) ATG
B) TAG
C) TUG
D) AUG

Question 52

Most of a cell's DNA is located in its:

A) Golgi apparatus.
B) lysosomes.
C) ribosomes.
D) nucleus.

Question 53

Before the mRNA transcribed from a gene can be used for translation into a protein, it must be:

A) modified to remove exons, introns spliced together, and transported to a tRNA molecule.
B) modified to remove introns, exons spliced together, and transported into the cytosol.
C) folded into its proper three ^-dimensional configuration.
D) coated with phospholipids for transport out of the nucleus.

Question 54

How many codons are present in the following strand of mRNA? $$\text { T A C GG T A G T A TG }$$

A) 6
B) 3
C) 12
D) 4

Question 55

Transcribe mRNA from this strand of DNA. $$\text { T A CGGG T A G T }$$

A) A T G C C A T C A
B) U A G C C U A C U
C) A U G C C A U C A
D) U T G C C U T G U

Question 56

Human cells that lack centrioles cannot:

A) metabolize sugars.
B) synthesize proteins.
C) move.
D) divide.

Question 57

What are the two steps of protein synthesis that produce a protein from a gene?

A) mitosis and cytokinesis
B) replication and transcripton
C) transcription and translation
D) replication and translation

Question 58

Where does transcription of DNA into RNA occur?

A) mitochondrion
B) Golgi apparatus
C) nucleus
D) peroxisome

Question 59

Tightly coiled DNA molecules present during cell division are known as:

A) chromosomes.
B) the nuclear envelope.
C) the nucleoplasm.
D) the nucleosome.

Question 60

Microtubules are composed of protein subunits known as:

A) actin.
B) keratin.
C) myosin.
D) tubulin.

Question 61

During which phase of mitosis are sister chromatids separated when the mitotic spindle fibers shorten?

A) metaphase
B) telophase
C) anaphase
D) prophase

Question 62

Cell division occurs during:

A) M phase.
B) G₁ phase.
C) G₂ phase.
D) S phase.

Question 63

Describe three functions of proteins found in the plasma membrane.

Question 64

What process divides the cytosol, organelles, and proteins?

A) cytokinesis
B) synthesis
C) prophase
D) mitosis

Question 65

Discuss the components of the cytoplasm.

Question 66

Elongation of the polypeptide continues as long as a new tRNA molecule situates in the:

A) M site of the ribosome.
B) E site of the ribosome.
C) P site of the ribosome.
D) A site of the ribosome.

Question 67

During which phase of the M phase of the cell cycle does the mitotic spindle form?

A) prophase
B) anaphase
C) telophase
D) metaphase

Question 68

Cells that stall in a state of the cell cycle known as G₀ are said to be:

A) cancerous cells.
B) rapidly dividing cells.
C) dead cells.
D) nondividing cells.

Question 69

Describe the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane.

Question 70

Explain why humans should avoid drinking salt water.

Question 71

If a cell has 18 chromosomes and undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes would each daughter cell have?

A) 9
B) 72
C) 36
D) 18

Question 72

The completion of cytokinesis accompanies:

A) metaphase.
B) prophase.
C) anaphase.
D) telophase.

Question 73

Programmed cell death is called:

A) hydrolysis.
B) apoptosis.
C) metastasis.
D) neoplasia.

Question 74

What occurs during the period of interphase known as the S phase?

A) DNA replication (synthesis) takes place
B) proteins, organelles, and cytosol are divided between the daughter cells
C) the cell is rapidly synthesizing proteins
D) genetic material is divided between the daughter cells

Question 75

The tRNA molecule binds a start codon of the mRNA molecule during:

A) initiation.
B) transcription.
C) elongation.
D) termination.

Question 76

What is the correct order of the phases in the M phase of the cell cycle?

A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
B) metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase
C) prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
D) anaphase, telophase, prophase, metaphase

Question 77

What is the role of DNA helicase during the S phase of interphase?

A) DNA helicase removes the RNA primer and replaces it with DNA.
B) DNA helicase catalyzes the addition of nucleotides to the new DNA strands.
C) DNA helicase unwinds the two strands of DNA.
D) DNA helicase builds RNA primers on the existing DNA strands.

Question 78

Cancer cells:

A) have a slower mitotic rate than normal body cells.
B) do not spread into other body tissues.
C) are indistinguishable from normal body cells.
D) may exhibit metastasis.

Question 79

Predict water movement across a membrane by osmosis when a concentration gradient is present.

Question 80

The stage of the cell cycle in which the cell performs its normal functions and prepares for cell division is called:

A) interphase.
B) metaphase.
C) telophase.
D) anaphase.