Deck 12: Pregnancy and Childbirth

Question 1

Fraternal twins

A) result from one ovum fertilized by a single sperm.
B) share the same genetic code.
C) are always of the same sex.
D) are no more alike than other siblings.

Answer 1

are no more alike than other siblings.

Question 2

The most common cause of life-threatening infections in newborns is

A) hepatitis B.
B) human immunodeficiency virus.
C) Group B streptococcus.
D) syphilis.

Answer 2

Group B streptococcus.

Question 3

Which of the following statements about low birth weight (LBW) is TRUE?

A) Good prenatal care is the best strategy for preventing LBW.
B) LBW babies are likely to be hyperactive.
C) LBW is another term for prematurity.
D) Among LBW babies, small-for-date babies have as many health-related problems as premature babies.

Answer 3

Good prenatal care is the best strategy for preventing LBW.

Question 4

The greatest degree of physical stress associated with pregnancy occurs

A) during the first trimester.
B) during the second trimester.
C) during the third trimester.
D) at different times depending on the age of the mother.

Question 5

What is fetal programming studying?

A) conditions of the womb
B) viral infections
C) infectious agents
D) chromosomal abnormalities

Question 6

Babies born with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

A) were exposed to low concentrations of nicotine periodically throughout the pregnancy.
B) may exhibit abnormal behaviour patterns.
C) experience chromosomal abnormalities.
D) are destined to develop alcoholism.

Question 7

When the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall it is called:

A) gestational diabetes
B) placenta previa
C) preeclampsia
D) placental abruption

Question 8

Which of the following statements best describes the function of the placenta?

A) The placenta is a barrier that protects the developing baby from all harmful substances.
B) The placenta's only function is to carry nutrients and oxygen to the developing baby.
C) The placenta is a two-way exchange of nutrients and waste materials between the mother and the fetus.
D) The placenta connects the mother's and the baby's blood supplies.

Question 9

For which of the following conditions are persons of African ancestry at greater than average risk?

A) sickle-cell disease and thalassemia
B) sickle-cell disease
C) thalassemia
D) spina bifida

Question 10

Infants of women who smoke have an increased risk of

A) pneumonia.
B) neural tube defect.
C) influenza.
D) stomach cancer.

Question 11

During pregnancy, it would be unusual for the woman to

A) experience emotional changes.
B) not give thought to how the baby will affect her life.
C) fear change in her relationship with her partner.
D) have limited physical abilities.

Question 12

Most types of birth defects occur during the

A) 10th through the 24th week of pregnancy.
B) first trimester.
C) second trimester.
D) third trimester.

Question 13

Pregnant women with HIV infection

A) are not likely to transmit the virus to the fetus.
B) will not infect the fetus if the delivery is by cesarean section.
C) get no benefit from being tested during pregnancy because the fetus will already be infected.
D) can reduce the risk of transmission to the baby by taking antiviral drugs.

Question 14

Bonnie's pregnancy has been confirmed with a home pregnancy test. Bonnie should

A) be patient and retest in two weeks because of the high incidence of false positive results with home pregnancy tests.
B) join a medically supervised weight-loss program because she is beginning her pregnancy 35 pounds overweight.
C) establish a relationship with a health care provider so that she can receive the appropriate prenatal care.
D) immediately begin an exercise program.

Question 15

Identical twins

A) result from two eggs fertilized by two separate sperm.
B) result from one ovum fertilized by two separate sperm.
C) are no more alike than other siblings.
D) share the same genetic code.

Question 16

Amy and Keith, both in their mid-twenties, have decided to have a baby. Both are in good health and are physically active, although Keith is a smoker. Amy maintains her weight at about 125 pounds. While they know that parenting is a big responsibility, they are excited about the idea of becoming parents. The one thing that they are concerned about is the history of genetic illnesses that exists in each of their families. After 6 month of not being successful in conceiving, Amy is concerned that she may be infertile. She wants to see a fertility specialist. Amy is at the end of her ninth month of pregnancy. The fetus has settled head down into Amy's pelvic bones, and she has experienced Braxton Hicks contractions. What will indicate the start of the birth process?

A) Amy will experience transition.
B) Amy's cervix will be fully dilated.
C) The baby's head will move into the birth canal.
D) Amy will feel strong, rhythmic uterine contractions.

Question 17

The average age of first time mothers has increased by how many years from 1961 to 2011?

A) 2 years
B) 3 years
C) 5 years
D) has not risen

Question 18

To reduce the risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), parents should

A) keep the baby's room warmer than the rest of the house.
B) space children at least 2 years apart.
C) put babies to sleep on their backs.
D) put babies to sleep on fluffy bedding.

Question 19

Barbara has just given birth to quadruplets-two boys and two girls. At least how many eggs had to be fertilized?

A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four

Question 20

What percentage of the factors contributing to infertility is caused by the male?

A) 15%
B) 20%
C) 25%
D) 30%

Question 21

A condition in which the placenta completely or partially covers the cervical opening is called:

A) preeclampsia
B) placental abruption
C) placenta previa
D) gestational diabetes

Question 22

Which of the following is the most common treatment for male infertility?

A) GIFT
B) artificial insemination
C) surrogate motherhood
D) ZIFT

Question 23

Kelley's infertility is caused by blocked fallopian tubes. She has no history of pelvic infections or sexually transmitted diseases. What is the most likely cause of the blockage?

A) a tumour
B) scarring from abnormal hormone levels
C) endometriosis
D) a congenital defect in the oviduct

Question 24

Amy and Keith, both in their mid-twenties, have decided to have a baby. Both are in good health and are physically active, although Keith is a smoker. Amy maintains her weight at about 125 pounds. While they know that parenting is a big responsibility, they are excited about the idea of becoming parents. The one thing that they are concerned about is the history of genetic illnesses that exists in each of their families. After 6 month of not being successful in conceiving, Amy is concerned that she may be infertile. She wants to see a fertility specialist. After another 4 months, Amy learns that she is 6 weeks pregnant. During her first prenata visit, Amy can expect all the following, EXCEPT

A) information about a healthy pregnancy weight gain of about 10-15 kilograms.
B) to hear the baby's heartbeat.
C) encouragement to maintain her exercise regime.
D) instructions to avoid alcohol, tobacco, and other drugs.

Question 25

What genetic syndrome are babies at risk of if their mother is over the age of 35?

A) cystic fibrosis
B) Tay-Sachs syndrome
C) spina bifida
D) Down syndrome

Question 26

Four weeks after a woman misses her menstrual period, she would be considered to be about weeks pregnant.

A) 8
B) 10
C) 6
D) 4

Question 27

The hollow organ in which the blastocyst embeds itself is the

A) uterus.
B) vagina.
C) oviduct.
D) cervix.

Question 28

Which of the following is NOT a benefit associated with breastfeeding?

A) Breast milk is more suited to the nutritional needs of the infant and more easily digested when compared to formula.
B) Breastfeeding contributes to postpregnancy weight loss.
C) Breastfeeding can enhance emotional attachment between mother and infant.
D) Breastfeeding is a guaranteed form of birth control as long as breastfeeding continues.

Question 29

Women should be vaccinated against which of the following before becoming pregnant?

A) tuberculosis
B) herpes
C) parvovirus B19
D) rubella

Question 30

is a condition in which the uterine lining grows outside of the uterus.

A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Endometriosis
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Infertility

Question 31

Integrated prenatal screening (IPS) is used to detect

A) neural tube defects.
B) gender.
C) fetal position.
D) gestational age.

Question 32

A common treatment approach for infertility resulting from a low sperm count is

A) surrogate motherhood.
B) advice to have intercourse only once a month to build up sperm stores.
C) fertility drug therapy.
D) artificial (intrauterine) insemination.

Question 33

To decrease the risk of neural tube defects, women who are capable of becoming pregnant are urged to consume at least 400 micrograms daily of

A) calcium.
B) vitamin C.
C) iron.
D) folic acid.

Question 34

The inner cells of the blastocyst separate into three layers. These three layers become the

A) umbilical cord.
B) embryo.
C) amniotic sac.
D) placenta.

Question 35

What is IPS measuring?

A) blood gases of the fetus
B) gestational growth
C) fetal reflexes
D) fetal hormones

Question 36

What percentage of women will experience symptoms of major depression?

A) 20%
B) 10%
C) 25%
D) 15%

Question 37

Pelvic inflammatory disease is most often the result of

A) urinary tract infections.
B) infections from sexually transmitted diseases.
C) scarring from abdominal surgery.
D) age.

Question 38

The postpartum period lasts for approximately how many months following birth of a child?

A) 1
B) 3
C) 6
D) 12

Question 39

Alice delivered a set of fraternal twins. Which of the following statements about them is TRUE?

A) They came from an ovum that was fertilized by two sperm.
B) They resulted from two ova, each fertilized by a separate sperm.
C) They will be exactly alike in terms of their genetic code.
D) They came from two ova fertilized by a single sperm.

Question 40

If a woman has syphilis during pregnancy,

A) she does not have to worry about infecting the fetus until giving birth.
B) she cannot be treated with penicillin because of the drug's potential harm to the fetus.
C) the baby will not be affected if delivered by cesarean section.
D) the baby can be born with syphilis.

Question 41

The proper intake of the B vitamin folate before conception and during pregnancy has been shown to decrease the risk of

A) spina bifida.
B) hemochromatosis.
C) sickle-cell anemia.
D) Tay-Sachs.

Question 42

A spontaneous abortion is more commonly known as

A) false labour.
B) a miscarriage.
C) a voluntary interruption of pregnancy.
D) an ectopic pregnancy.

Question 43

The first stage of labour is characterized by

A) delivery of the placenta.
B) lightening.
C) crowning.
D) dilation of the cervix.

Question 44

What percentage of women in Canada exclusively breastfed their babies for at least 4 months in 2011-2012?

A) 11%
B) 25%
C) 37%
D) 51%

Question 45

Labour induction may be recommended when a pregnant woman has not delivered her baby days after her due date.

A) 3
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7 or more

Question 46

Lactation begins how many days after childbirth?

A) 1
B) 3
C) 6
D) 12

Question 47

Braxton Hicks contractions and lightening occur during

A) the first trimester.
B) the second trimester.
C) the third trimester.
D) labour.

Question 48

Stress during pregnancy can lead to increased maternal levels of

A) progesterone.
B) testosterone.
C) cortisol.
D) estrogen.

Question 49

The stage of development between implantation through about the 8th week after conception is known as a(n)

A) neonate.
B) zygote.
C) embryo.
D) fetus.

Question 50

The settling of the fetus into the pelvic cavity

A) is an indicator of imminent delivery.
B) occurs at the end of the first trimester.
C) is known as lightening.
D) is called quickening.

Question 51

Fetal development is directed by

A) the in vitro process.
B) alpha-fetoprotein codes.
C) genetic instructions.
D) chorionic gonadotropin.

Question 52

Which one of the following is the most customary recommendation regarding exercise during pregnancy?

A) Start a rigorous exercise program.
B) Increase the intensity of exercise.
C) Continue a moderate exercise program.
D) Stop exercising.

Question 53

Cigarette use during pregnancy is likely to result in a baby

A) with mental impairment.
B) addicted to nicotine.
C) born with anemia.
D) with low birth weight.

Question 54

All of the following should be assessed during preconception care, EXCEPT

A) marital status
B) prior pregnancies
C) diet
D) genetic diseases

Question 55

The earliest point in pregnancy in which a fetus might survive outside of the uterus is the

A) end of the second trimester.
B) middle of the third trimester.
C) beginning of the second trimester.
D) end of the third trimester.

Question 56

An ultrasound does NOT provide information about

A) Down syndrome.
B) gestational age.
C) the size of the fetus.
D) certain anatomical abnormalities.

Question 57

One of the leading causes of female infertility in young women is

A) blocked fallopian tubes.
B) thyroid disease.
C) age.
D) endometriosis.

Question 58

The basic units of heredity that direct the structure and function of all body cells are

A) chromosomes.
B) trophoblasts.
C) genes.
D) gametes.

Question 59

When a fertilized ovum becomes implanted at a site other than the uterus, the resulting condition is known as a(n) pregnancy.

A) peritoneal
B) gestation
C) ectopic
D) aborted

Question 60

Tay-Sachs disease is known to affect which ethnic group the greatest?

A) Eastern European with Jewish ancestry
B) Northern Russian
C) Mediterranean heritage
D) Spanish heritage

Question 61

Spontaneous abortions are most commonly caused by

A) chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus.
B) the use of cigarettes by pregnant women.
C) poor nutritional status of pregnant women.
D) the use of alcohol by pregnant women.

Question 62

Sickle-cell disease is well known to affect persons of African ancestry, but what other ethnic group is also greatly affected by this disease?

A) Asian
B) Mediterranean Europeans
C) Northern Europeans
D) Middle Easterners

Question 63

Neonatal blindness is caused most often by which of the following sexually transmitted diseases?

A) syphilis
B) HIV
C) hepatitis B
D) gonorrhea

Question 64

A young woman has a history of herpes. She has an active lesion during labour. Which of the following interventions will reduce the risk of herpes infection in the baby?

A) delivery by cesarean section
B) treatment of the lesion with an antiviral topical ointment
C) treatment with acyclovir during labour
D) application of antibiotic ointment to the baby's eyes after delivery

Question 65

is collecting and concentrating the man's sperm and introducing it by syringe into a woman's vagina or uterus.

A) Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)
B) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
C) In vitro fertilization (IVF)
D) Artificial (intrauterine) insemination

Question 66

The conglomerate of cells that implants in the uterus and lays the foundation for the development of the placenta and the eventual development of the fetus is the

A) germ cell.
B) zygote.
C) blastocyst.
D) trophoblast.

Question 67

Researchers have linked high levels of stress in pregnant women to all of the following, EXCEPT

A) Down syndrome.
B) miscarriage.
C) low birth weight.
D) preterm labour.

Question 68

Which of the following is NOT a usual characteristic of postpartum "baby blues"?

A) despondency
B) periods of sadness and/or weeping
C) feelings of anxiety
D) sleep disorders

Question 69

Which of the following is NOT a primary reason for male factor infertility?

A) testicular disease
B) disorder of sperm transport
C) age
D) congenital disorder

Question 70

Strong and frequent uterine contractions are characteristic of

A) crowning.
B) transition.
C) engagement.
D) second stage of labour.

Question 71

The third stage of labour is characterized by

A) intense uterine contractions.
B) delivery of the placenta.
C) movement of the baby's head into the birth canal.
D) delivery of the amniotic sac.

Question 72

Which of the following is NOT an early sign of pregnancy?

A) breast tenderness
B) Braxton Hicks contractions
C) nausea
D) fatigue

Question 73

What percentage of reproductive-age population of Canada is affected by infertility?

A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%

Question 74

An incision made to widen the vaginal opening to facilitate birth and prevent uncontrolled tearing during delivery is called:

A) episiotomy
B) Apgar procedure
C) preeclampsia
D) Caesarian section

Question 75

Which of the following is NOT a reason to undertake prenatal exercise and childbirth classes?

A) minimal weight gain
B) improved muscle tone
C) decreased fear about labour and delivery
D) increased ability to relax during labour

Question 76

The process that results in fertilization of an ovum in a laboratory dish is called

A) artificial (intrauterine) insemination.
B) surrogate pregnancy.
C) laparoscopic fertilization.
D) in vitro fertilization.

Question 77

Which of the following statements best describes what occurs AFTER the end of the second month of prenatal development?

A) It is the most critical period in terms of risk for developing birth defects.
B) It is a time of growth and refinement.
C) The major body structures are formed.
D) The cells are being differentiated into specific body parts.

Question 78

The Apgar score 5 minutes after birth that indicates a newborn baby is doing well is

A) 7-10.
B) 4-6.
C) 16-19.
D) 12-14.

Question 79

Surgically placing eggs and sperm into the fallopian tubes prior to fertilization is known as

A) GIFT.
B) artificial (intrauterine) insemination.
C) in vitro fertilization.
D) ZIFT.

Question 80

An ovum or a sperm has chromosomes.

A) 22
B) 23
C) 44
D) 46