Deck 11: Healthy Sexuality

Question 1

The cessation of menstruation around age 50 is called

A) midlife crisis.
B) menarche.
C) menopause.
D) senescence.

Answer 1

menopause.

Question 2

Which of the following is a disadvantage of condom use?

A) unreliability
B) little protection against sexually transmitted diseases
C) diminished sensation
D) difficulty in obtaining

Answer 2

diminished sensation

Question 3

Melissa is 32 years old and single. She is career oriented and is happy in a long-term, monogamous relationship. Melissa and her partner have agreed that having children is not part of their future. Despite using a reliable form of contraception, Melissa finds out that she is 7-8 weeks pregnant. Melissa and her partner discuss the situation, and the decision is made to abort the pregnancy. If Melissa is typical of most women who have recently experienced an abortion, she will

A) probably never recover emotionally from the experience.
B) feel total relief because she is no longer pregnant.
C) experience a mixture of feelings following the abortion procedure.
D) be depressed for approximately six months.

Answer 3

experience a mixture of feelings following the abortion procedure.

Question 4

The passage that leads to the internal female reproductive organs is the

A) vagina.
B) fallopian tube.
C) clitoris.
D) cervix.

Question 5

A reason for earlier onset of menarche is probably due to

A) estrogen-like chemical exposure.
B) poverty.
C) being underweight.
D) a poor diet.

Question 6

Sperm is carried from the epididymis through the

A) seminal vesicle.
B) corpus spongiosum.
C) vas deferens.
D) urethra.

Question 7

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)?

A) It interferes with normal daily activities.
B) It occurs primarily after age 40.
C) It is experienced by more than half of all women.
D) It occurs primarily in emotionally unstable women.

Question 8

Circumcision is the surgical removal of the

A) scrotum.
B) foreskin of the penis.
C) testes.
D) penis.

Question 9

The fourth stage of the sexual response cycle is the phase.

A) resolution
B) orgasmic
C) excitement
D) plateau

Question 10

Those who support male circumcision argue that

A) the foreskin is a natural and needed part of the body.
B) it reduces the risk of urinary tract infections in newborns.
C) the risk of prostate cancer is greatly reduced by circumcision.
D) the procedure exposes the glans.

Question 11

Which of the following chromosomal configurations denotes female?

A) XY
B) YY
C) YX
D) XX

Question 12

Male and female reactions during the sexual response cycle differ in which one of the following ways?

A) Females cannot be immediately restimulated to orgasm.
B) Males enter a refractory period.
C) Males experience a fusion of the plateau and orgasmic phases.
D) Females experience a more uniform progression through the phases.

Question 13

Bill and Janet are in their late twenties and have been married for two years. Their sexual intimacy includes various sexual behaviours. Bill has noticed that while he has no difficulty getting an erection, he does have difficulty ejaculating when he and Janet are having intercourse. Janet rarely feels sexually satisfied after intercourse and often relies on self-stimulation to achieve an orgasm. Janet doesn't see her lack of orgasm with Bill as a problem; however, Bill does. Bill is beginning to make excuses for not having sex. Janet's sexual response is most likely due to

A) vaginismus.
B) orgasmic dysfunction.
C) psychological guilt because she and Bill engage in a variety of sexual behaviours.
D) a need for direct clitoral stimulation.

Question 14

Which of the four phases of the menstrual cycle is characterized by menstrual flow?

A) progestational
B) estrogenic
C) menses
D) ovulation

Question 15

Which of the following is the first phase of the menstrual cycle?

A) ovulation
B) estrogenic
C) menses
D) progestational

Question 16

The nylon threads that are attached to the IUD and protrude through the cervix serve to

A) act as a barrier to sperm.
B) allow the woman to remove the IUD when contraception is no longer desired.
C) provide penile stimulation during intercourse.
D) allow for placement check.

Question 17

Place the following conditions in order of severity of symptoms, going from least severe to most severe.

A) premenstrual syndrome, premenstrual tension, premenstrual dysphoric disorder
B) premenstrual tension, premenstrual syndrome, premenstrual dysphoric disorder
C) premenstrual syndrome, premenstrual dysphoric disorder, premenstrual tension
D) premenstrual dysphoric disorder, premenstrual tension, premenstrual syndrome

Question 18

The most popular barrier method of contraception is the

A) diaphragm.
B) female condom.
C) cervical cap.
D) male condom.

Question 19

Which of the following statements about IUDs is FALSE?

A) There is higher expulsion rate.
B) Menstrual flow in IUD users is initially lighter.
C) IUDs may cause uterine cramps.
D) Bleeding and spotting may occur between periods.

Question 20

The breakage rate for latex male condoms is about time(s) for every 100 instances of use.

A) 50
B) 10
C) 25
D) 1 to 2

Question 21

How exactly does the IUD prevent pregnancy?

A) It causes a spontaneous abortion.
B) It creates a sperm barrier.
C) It stops ovulation.
D) It is not known for certain how IUDs prevent pregnancy.

Question 22

The main advantage of oral contraceptives is the

A) high continuation rate.
B) regularity of periods.
C) high degree of effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
D) low cost.

Question 23

Oral contraception is NOT recommended for women with

A) an intense exercise regimen.
B) a low resting heart rate.
C) a history of asthma.
D) a history of blood clots.

Question 24

The function of the diaphragm is to

A) impair the swimming action of the sperm.
B) provide a sheath-like lining for the vagina.
C) cover the cervix.
D) cover the entrance to the fallopian tubes.

Question 25

Depo-Provera is

A) a form of long-acting estrogen.
B) a barrier contraceptive.
C) administered by mouth.
D) administered by injection.

Question 26

An emergency hormonal contraceptive reduces the risk of pregnancy by almost ___________ percent if taken within 24 hours of unprotected intercourse.

A) 95
B) 35
C) 55
D) 80

Question 27

Endometriosis is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT

A) sterility.
B) painful intercourse.
C) infertility.
D) pelvic inflammatory disease.

Question 28

Which of the following is probably the most serious disadvantage of oral contraceptives for most women?

A) They cause vaginal bleeding (spotting) between periods.
B) They are likely to cause acne.
C) They cause symptoms of early pregnancy.
D) They provide no protection against STDs.

Question 29

An advantage of the FemCap over the diaphragm is that it

A) may be left in place for up to 1 week.
B) provides more protection against HIV infection.
C) may be left in place for up to 48 hours.
D) does not require being fitted by a health care provider.

Question 30

IUDs are contraindicated for all of the following, EXCEPT women with

A) rheumatic heart disease.
B) irregular or unexplained bleeding.
C) a history of pelvic infection.
D) past pregnancies.

Question 31

As it is commonly used, the word abortion means

A) the same thing as miscarriage.
B) artificially induced expulsion of the fetus.
C) any intervention in a pregnancy.
D) spontaneous expulsion of the fetus.

Question 32

A contraceptive that physically blocks the sperm from reaching the egg is

A) a hormonal method.
B) irreversible.
C) a barrier method.
D) rarely effective.

Question 33

While in storage, diaphragms should be coated with

A) talcum powder.
B) spermicide.
C) nothing.
D) Vaseline.

Question 34

A disadvantage of the diaphragm is that

A) it requires the use of a spermicide.
B) a high percentage of women are allergic to it.
C) you must wait to insert it minutes before intercourse.
D) you must remove it immediately after intercourse.

Question 35

Which of the following is a progestin-only contraceptive, providing no estrogen?

A) vaginal contraceptive ring
B) Ortho Evra contraceptive patch
C) Lunelle injections
D) Depo-Provera injections

Question 36

In addition to hormone pills, most contraceptive packets also include

A) postcoital pills.
B) instructions for the Billings method.
C) alternative contraceptive methods.
D) one week of inactive pills.

Question 37

Which one of the following statements about the aging male is TRUE?

A) Orgasmic contractions are more intense in the older male.
B) It takes less time for an older male to achieve an erection.
C) Less direct physical stimulation is need for sexual arousal.
D) Testosterone production decreases as men age.

Question 38

All of the following are TRUE about the minipill, EXCEPT

A) it must be taken every day of the month.
B) it has more side effects and associated health risks than other hormonal contraceptives.
C) it contains no estrogen.
D) it contains a small dose of a synthetic progesterone.

Question 39

Ovulation usually occurs

A) 14 days prior to the onset of menses.
B) at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
C) at the end of the menstrual cycle.
D) in the estrogenic phase of the menstrual cycle.

Question 40

Gonads are

A) vaginal lesions.
B) ovaries and testes.
C) hormones.
D) penises and vaginas.

Question 41

The engorgement of tissues that results when more blood flows into an organ than is flowing out is called

A) vasocongestion.
B) vaginismus.
C) myotonia.
D) menarche.

Question 42

The normal difference between testicular temperature and body temperature is that the testes are than the rest of the body.

A) 5 degrees cooler
B) 5 degrees warmer
C) 3 degrees cooler
D) 3 degrees warmer

Question 43

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of dysmenorrhea?

A) infrequent menstruation
B) lengthy menstruation
C) interrupted menstruation
D) painful menstruation

Question 44

The most extreme form of sexual coercion is

A) seduction.
B) rape.
C) solicitation.
D) harassment.

Question 45

The most obvious and effective physical stimulation involves

A) smelling.
B) hearing.
C) seeing.
D) touching.

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the female condom?

A) The female condom is less expensive than the male condom.
B) The female condom can be inserted before sexual activity and is, therefore, less disruptive than male condoms.
C) The female condom offers protection against genital warts and herpes.
D) The female condom gives a woman more personal control over contraception and STD protection.

Question 47

Bill and Janet are in their late twenties and have been married for two years. Their sexual intimacy includes various sexual behaviours. Bill has noticed that while he has no difficulty getting an erection, he does have difficulty ejaculating when he and Janet are having intercourse. Janet rarely feels sexually satisfied after intercourse and often relies on self-stimulation to achieve an orgasm. Janet doesn't see her lack of orgasm with Bill as a problem; however, Bill does. Bill is beginning to make excuses for not having sex. Bill's sexual response can probably be attributed to

A) anxiety about performance.
B) inadequate penile stimulation.
C) a variation of the normal sexual response cycle.
D) a physical problem that can be corrected with medication.

Question 48

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A) painful intercourse
B) pain in the abdomen
C) rash
D) pain in the pelvis

Question 49

The benefit of smaller doses of estrogen in oral contraceptives is

A) fewer health risks.
B) higher effectiveness.
C) lower likelihood of contracting STDs.
D) higher sperm "kill" rate.

Question 50

Which of the following is a reason that diaphragms have a relatively high failure rate?

A) incorrect insertion and positioning
B) discomfort prohibits use
C) sexual activity of user
D) age of user

Question 51

Which of the following statements regarding IUDs and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is TRUE?

A) Most cases of PID among IUD users can be treated with antibiotics.
B) PID rates are high for the first 6 months of use.
C) PID is typically limited to women who have a history of spontaneous abortions.
D) PID rates are independent of risk factors.

Question 52

Surgical severing of the ducts that carry the sperm to the seminal vesicles is called

A) tubal ligation.
B) circumcision.
C) tubal severing.
D) vasectomy.

Question 53

Which of the following chromosomal configurations denotes male?

A) XX
B) XYZ
C) XY
D) YY

Question 54

Rhythmical contractions of the male and female reproductive structures occur during the

A) resolution phase.
B) orgasmic phase.
C) plateau phase.
D) excitement phase.

Question 55

After insertion, the NuvaRing (vaginal contraceptive ring) is left in the vagina for _ before removal.

A) 1 day
B) 3 weeks
C) 6 hours
D) 1 week

Question 56

Bill and Janet are in their late twenties and have been married for two years. Their sexual intimacy includes various sexual behaviours. Bill has noticed that while he has no difficulty getting an erection, he does have difficulty ejaculating when he and Janet are having intercourse. Janet rarely feels sexually satisfied after intercourse and often relies on self-stimulation to achieve an orgasm. Janet doesn't see her lack of orgasm with Bill as a problem; however, Bill does. Bill is beginning to make excuses for not having sex. Bill's concern over Janet's lack of orgasm has led to

A) impotence
B) lack of desire.
C) orgasmic dysfunction.
D) erectile dysfunction.

Question 57

The third stage of the sexual response cycle is the phase.

A) resolution
B) orgasmic
C) excitement
D) plateau

Question 58

The menstrual cycle consists of four phases is the following order:

A) estrogenic phase, menses, ovulation, progestational phase.
B) progestational phase, ovulation, estrogenic phase, menses.
C) menses, ovulation, estrogenic phase, progestational phase.
D) menses, estrogenic phase, ovulation, progestational phase.

Question 59

Sperm are manufactured in the

A) vas deferens.
B) seminal vesicle.
C) testes' tubules.
D) epididymis.

Question 60

Mixing nitrates with Viagra can cause

A) increased alertness.
B) hallucinations.
C) an adrenaline rush.
D) blood pressure to plummet.

Question 61

Which of the following is the MOST accurate definition of endometriosis?

A) growth of uterine tissue outside the uterus
B) surgical sterilization
C) blockage of the urethra
D) blockage of the vas deferens

Question 62

Oral contraceptives primarily prevent conception by

A) changing the acidity of the vaginal canal.
B) blocking sperm from reaching the ovum.
C) preventing ovulation by mimicking the hormonal activity of the corpus luteum.
D) reducing the number of sperm that penetrate the cervix.

Question 63

The purpose of the scrotum is to

A) transport semen.
B) maintain the temperature of the testes.
C) protect against sexually transmitted diseases.
D) hold the ovaries.

Question 64

The first sign of female puberty is

A) the onset of menstruation.
B) an increase in growth rate.
C) breast development.
D) underarm hair.

Question 65

The period during which both the male and the female reproductive system matures is called

A) growing pains.
B) menopause.
C) menstruation.
D) puberty.

Question 66

A male attempting to engage in intercourse after excessive alcohol consumption is likely to experience

A) erectile dysfunction.
B) retrograde ejaculation.
C) premature ejaculation.
D) an intense orgasm.

Question 67

Which of the following can be used for emergency contraception?

A) Plan B
B) Depo-Provera
C) Ortho Evra
D) Norplant

Question 68

Which of the following sexual identification and set of hormones go together?

A) female-estrogens, progestins
B) male-estrogens, progestins
C) female-testosterone, progestins
D) male-androgens, progestins

Question 69

The external female sex organs are called

A) vagina
B) uterus
C) gonads
D) vulva

Question 70

The route sperm take is

A) testes to vas deferens to epididymis to prostate gland to seminal vesicles to ejaculatory ducts.
B) testes to seminal vesicles to vas deferens to prostate gland to epididymis to ejaculatory ducts.
C) testes to epididymis to vas deferens to seminal vesicles to prostate gland to ejaculatory ducts.
D) testes to epididymis to vas deferens to prostate gland to seminal vesicles to ejaculatory ducts.

Question 71

The second stage of the sexual response cycle is the phase.

A) excitement
B) resolution
C) plateau
D) orgasmic

Question 72

The typical first-year failure rate of the female condom is percent.

A) 27
B) 38
C) 15
D) 32

Question 73

Sexual privacy includes all of the following, EXCEPT

A) communication.
B) respect.
C) dark rooms.
D) trust.

Question 74

The release of the ovum is a characteristic of

A) ovulation.
B) the estrogenic phase.
C) menses.
D) the progestational phase.

Question 75

A person's personal, inner sense of being male or female is

A) gender role.
B) gender.
C) gender identity.
D) sex.

Question 76

After a women has taken her first Plan B pill, when should she administer the second pill?

A) in 12 hours
B) in 24 hours
C) in 72 hours
D) immediately after the first pill

Question 77

It is thought that the purpose of preejaculatory fluid is to

A) improve ovarian function.
B) allow for an orgasm without ejaculation.
C) lubricate the urethra.
D) serve as an indicator that ejaculation is about to occur.

Question 78

In order for emergency contraception to be effective, the first dose must be taken within ____________ hours of unprotected intercourse.

A) 48
B) 12
C) 72
D) 96

Question 79

The hymen is

A) tissue that can be stretched or torn during athletic activities.
B) the clitoral hood.
C) the area between the vaginal opening and the anus.
D) the uterine opening.

Question 80

According to the World Health Organization, how many women worldwide have unintended or unwanted pregnancies every year?

A) 80 million
B) 1 million
C) 50 million
D) 10 million