Deck 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints

Question 1

While having a gene for Parkinson's disease guarantees that Parkinson's disease will develop, this is not the only factor that can lead to Parkinson's disease. In other words, the presence of the gene is a , but not a .

A) risk factor; sufficient cause
B) sufficient cause; necessary cause
C) necessary cause; risk factor
D) contributory cause; sufficient cause

Answer 1

sufficient cause; necessary cause

Question 2

Suppose that the presence of a particular gene is a necessary cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A) The gene is also a sufficient cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia.
B) There are other things besides this gene that can cause schizophrenia.
C) Most people with schizophrenia will have that gene.
D) A person with that gene may or may not become schizophrenic.

Answer 2

A person with that gene may or may not become schizophrenic.

Question 3

A couple is in counseling. She states that she drinks because he rejects her. He states that he rejects her because she drinks. It appears that

A) the drinking is probably the actual predisposing cause for the problems in this marriage.
B) the rejection is probably the actual predisposing cause for the problems in this marriage.
C) the drinking and rejection influence and maintain each other.
D) the drinking and rejection are caused by another third variable unknown to the couple.

Answer 3

the drinking and rejection influence and maintain each other.

Question 4

A diathesis can best be described as a

A) proximal necessary cause.
B) sufficient cause.
C) contributory cause.
D) proximal causal factor.

Question 5

Karen was sexually abused by her father at the age of 5. She developed a severe separation anxiety reaction whenever her mother tried to leave. As an adult, Karen developed a dissociative disorder. This is an example of how the same factor, in this case abuse, can be

A) both a sufficient and a necessary cause.
B) both a reinforcing contributory cause and a punishing contributory cause.
C) both a primary and a secondary process.
D) both a proximal and a distal causal factor.

Question 6

Which of the following perspectives focused upon social determinants of behavior?

A) The attachment perspective
B) The interpersonal perspective
C) The humanistic perspective
D) The existential perspective

Question 7

In psychoanalytic theory, which psychosexual stage centers on castration anxiety?

A) Genital
B) Oral
C) Anal
D) Phallic

Question 8

If having a gene for Parkinson's disease guarantees that Parkinson's disease will develop, the presence of the gene can be described as a

A) risk factor.
B) necessary cause.
C) sufficient cause.
D) contributory cause.

Question 9

Childhood abuse is commonly seen in those who develop dissociative disorders later in life. Childhood abuse would best be described as a

A) necessary contributory cause.
B) proximal contributory cause.
C) reinforcing contributory cause.
D) distal contributory cause.

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT a psychosocial viewpoint?

A) Behavioral
B) Biological
C) Psychodynamic
D) Cognitive-behavioral

Question 11

According to Freud, a person who does not appropriately resolve each psychosexual stage would be at that stage.

A) defended
B) fixated
C) repressed
D) displaced

Question 12

John Bowlby's attachment theory emphasized

A) the social environment in forming attachments.
B) the quality of parental care in forming attachments.
C) the quality of early reinforcers and stimulation in forming attachments.
D) the necessity of independence from parental figures in forming attachments.

Question 13

The humanistic perspective focuses primarily upon the capacity of the individual to

A) confront the dilemma of our deaths.
B) be driven by unconscious motives.
C) rationally explain our behavior.
D) engage in positive self-growth.

Question 14

In order to develop chicken pox, one must be exposed to the virus that causes chicken pox. Note, however, that not everyone who is exposed to the virus is affected. In other words, the virus is a

A) risk factor.
B) necessary cause.
C) sufficient cause.
D) contributory cause.

Question 15

Which perspective or viewpoint focuses on intrapsychic conflicts as the cause of psychopathology?

A) Biological
B) Behavioral
C) Psychodynamic
D) Sociocultural

Question 16

Dr. Fox studies the causes of depression. In other words, she looks at factors that play a role in the of depression.

A) etiology
B) epidemiology
C) prevalence
D) resiliency

Question 17

Finding meaning in life and dealing with death form core values in which of the following perspectives?

A) Existential
B) Humanistic
C) Behavioral
D) Object-relations

Question 18

One important contribution of Freud's theory was that

A) he truly understood the role of women in society.
B) he heavily utilized experimental evidence to support his theories.
C) he applied the same principles to normal and abnormal behavior.
D) he increased the focus on positive growth for individuals.

Question 19

Which period of psychosexual development occurs when a child becomes preoccupied with the development of skills and activities?

A) Genital
B) Phallic
C) Latency
D) Pubertal

Question 20

Understanding the causes of mental disorders is important because

A) effective treatment is not possible without such an understanding.
B) classification of disorders cannot be done without such information.
C) such knowledge might make both the prevention and cure of mental disorders possible.
D) disagreements about the the causes of psychopathology have long limited the advancements made in the study of abnormal psychology.

Question 21

Resilient children

A) show resilience in all domains.
B) may still experience emotional distress.
C) usually have survived chronic maltreatment.
D) are increasingly rare.

Question 22

The additive model of the diathesis stress theory proposes that

A) people with a very high level of a diathesis may need a very large amount of stress to develop the disorder.
B) people with a very high level of a diathesis may need only a small amount of stress to develop the disorder.
C) someone with no diathesis will never develop the disorder.
D) someone with no genes for the disorder will never develop the disorder.

Question 23

When psychologists say that a person shows resilience, it means

A) the person has not been faced with significant stressors.
B) that regardless of the stresses the person faces, he or she will feel no emotional distress.
C) the person can successfully adapt and survive in threatening circumstances.
D) recovering from traumatic events without the need for psychological protective factors.

Question 24

The site of communication between two neurons is the

A) synapse.
B) neurotransmitter.
C) nucleus.
D) vesicle.

Question 25

In the diathesis-stress model, a stressor is

A) a distal, sufficient cause of a mental disorder.
B) a necessary or contributory cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms.
C) a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms.
D) a biological vulnerability.

Question 26

Which statement about neural communication is accurate?

A) All neurotransmitters increase the likelihood that the postsynaptic neuron will transmit a message.
B) The reason neural messages are transmitted from cell to cell is because they physically touch each other.
C) The part of the neuron that receives messages is called the synapse.
D) Neurotransmitters released into the synapse determine whether messages are sent from one neuron to another.

Question 27

Which of the following is true?

A) Most mental disorders are caused by psychological factors.
B) Most mental disorders have a simple biological explanation.
C) Most mental disorders are caused by neurological damage.
D) Most mental disorders are not caused by neurological damage.

Question 28

The loss of a parent may be

A) a stressor.
B) a diathesis.
C) a diathesis and/or a stressor.
D) Neither a diathesis nor a stressor.

Question 29

Ryan, age 8, was cut from the school soccer team. After the initial disappointment, he became a boy scout, which he really enjoyed. Now as an adult, when he didn't get into graduate school, rather than become depressed, Ryan found a job in his field that he enjoys, and plans to try again later. This is an example of

A) a necessary and sufficient cause.
B) the diathesis - stress theory.
C) the interactive model of the diathesis - stress theory.
D) the steeling or inoculation effect of some stressful experiences.

Question 30

Suppose that low self-esteem is a diathesis for developing depression later in life. This means that

A) people who currently are depressed will have low self-esteem.
B) low self-esteem is a proximal trigger for depression.
C) people with low self-esteem have a predisposition for developing depression.
D) the psychological processes associated with low self-esteem are the trigger for depression.

Question 31

Which of the following is NOT an example of the three phenomena that the term resilience has been used to describe?

A) Despite her low IQ, Julie finished school and became a successful banker.
B) After failing French the first time, Carl did not earn a passing grade when he took the course for a second time.
C) The trauma of Julio's father's death never interfered with his plans.
D) Following the events of September 11th, the children of PS100 in New York City were able to resume their studies and finish the school year without incident.

Question 32

Normally, the enzyme monoamine oxidase is involved in the breaking down of some neurotransmitters. This process is called

A) re-uptake.
B) deactivation.
C) recapture.
D) inhibitory transmission.

Question 33

Which of the following most accurately describes the notion of different viewpoints of abnormal behavior?

A) Each viewpoint accurately describes the causes and symptoms of 2-3 different disorders.
B) Each viewpoint offers its own explanation of abnormal behavior.
C) All viewpoints are equally valid.
D) Only the biological viewpoint has been studied experimentally.

Question 34

What is the focus of the field of developmental psychopathology?

A) Understanding how critical incidents in childhood affect people as adults.
B) To understand what is within the range of normal development so as to have a better understanding of what is abnormal.
C) To discover and improve the environmental factors that can contribute to a child later developing a mental illness.
D) Understanding how disorders develop over time.

Question 35

According to the text, which of the following has not been identified as a potential protective factor?

A) Exposure to moderate stressors
B) High intelligence
C) An introverted personality
D) A warm and supportive parent

Question 36

A protective factor is

A) an influence that modifies a persons response to environmental stressors.
B) an influence that modifies a persons response to genetic problems.
C) a distal causal factor for a mental disorder.
D) a biological makeup that makes people more resistant to stress.

Question 37

A predisposition toward developing a disorder

A) necessarily is biological.
B) is called a diathesis.
C) increases the likelihood of developing any given disorder by 50%.
D) necessarily is a psycho-social stressor.

Question 38

Dr. Simon, a psychiatrist, takes a biopsychosocial viewpoint of psychopathology. Which of the following treatments is he most likely to suggest for Julia's current state of depression?

A) Intense psychotherapy
B) A prolonged vacation
C) A combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs
D) Family therapy and a change in her work environment

Question 39

In the diathesis-stress model, a diathesis is

A) a distal necessary or contributory cause of a mental disorder.
B) a sufficient cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms.
C) a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms.
D) a biological vulnerability that virtually guarantees the development of the disorder.

Question 40

The disorders first recognized as having biological bases are best characterized as disorders that

A) involved significant damage to brain tissue.
B) were characterized by neurochemical imbalances.
C) did not cause neurological damage.
D) resulted from contact with other animal species.

Question 41

Suppose the reuptake of a specific neurotransmitter were deficient and the deactivation enzymes associated with the neurotransmitter were also deficient. What effect would this have?

A) There would be more of the neurotransmitter in the synapse.
B) There would be less of the neurotransmitter in the synapse.
C) Since the two deficiencies would balance each other out, there would be no change in the levels of the neurotransmitter.
D) The neurons would become especially sensitive to the neurotransmitter.

Question 42

The genetic influences that determine behavior may never be fully understood due to

A) the ease of research to differentiate between the effects of the environment and the effects of genes.
B) the likelihood that most behaviors are determined by the interaction of many genes and the environment.
C) the tendency to rely upon twin studies in genetic research.
D) our limited understanding of how genes impact brain chemistry.

Question 43

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Most behavioral disorders are determined exclusively by genes.
B) Genes play a role in most mental disorders.
C) Genes do not affect biochemical processes.
D) The genes that will be expressed in an individual are not affected by experience.

Question 44

Cortisol is a hormone that

A) is released by the hypothalamus and travels to the pituitary gland, causing it to respond.
B) the pituitary gland releases to stimulate the adrenal gland.
C) the adrenal gland produces that mobilizes the body to deal with stress.
D) reduces the reuptake of the monamine neurotransmitters.

Question 45

What do genes consist of?

A) Trisomes
B) Chromosomes
C) DNA
D) Proteins

Question 46

Attractive children and unattractive babies tend to be treated differently. In other words, an infant's physical phenotype may alter how others respond to him or her. What type of genotype-environment correlation is this an example of?

A) Active
B) Evocative
C) Passive
D) Persuasive

Question 47

Ian was predisposed to being very aggressive with his peers in school, who responded by rejecting him. Later in life Ian began to associate with other aggressive youth and to participate in a variety of delinquent behaviors. This is an example of

A) phenotypic vulnerability to aggression.
B) a phenotypic diathesis.
C) polygenic expression.
D) the way the genotype may shape the phenotype.

Question 48

Reuptake of neurotransmitters is

A) the process by which neurotransmitters are repeatedly released into the synapse.
B) the process by which neurotransmitters are reabsorbed by the axon.
C) the process by which neurotransmitters stimulate the post-synaptic neuron to fire.
D) the process by which neurotransmitters are connected to hormones.

Question 49

Highly coordinated children are picked out at an early age by coaches and given special opportunities to excel at sports. Extraverted children seek out social situations and become unusually comfortable with strangers. Both of these phenomena illustrate

A) the power of the phenotype over the genotype.
B) genotype-environment correlations.
C) the polygenic effect of chromosomes on behavior.
D) how the environment shapes one's genetic endowment.

Question 50

Norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, and GABA are all

A) hormones that affect behavior.
B) catecholamines that inhibit nerve impulses.
C) neurotransmitters that are involved in psychopathology.
D) forms of neurotransmitters called amino acids that can cause brain damage.

Question 51

Genes

A) determine how a person will behave.
B) cause people to develop mental disorders.
C) determine what characteristics a person will have.
D) determine the range of characteristics a person has.

Question 52

Damage to the pituitary would most likely lead to

A) a hormonal imbalance.
B) death.
C) a deficiency of catecholamines.
D) depression.

Question 53

Down syndrome has been linked to

A) a chemical imbalance.
B) a gene on the X chromosome.
C) possessing an extra X chromosome.
D) possessing an extra chromosome in chromosome 21.

Question 54

When examining heredity, mental disorders are almost always

A) influenced by one particular gene.
B) influenced by multiple genes.
C) influenced by recessive genes.
D) not influenced by genes.

Question 55

Normal human cells have

A) twenty-two chromosome pairs and one pair of sex chromosomes.
B) twenty-one trisomy chromosome pairs, one autosomal pair and one pair of sex chromosomes.
C) twenty-one chromosome pairs and two trisomy chromosome pairs.
D) twenty-three chromosome pairs.

Question 56

Children born with a genetic predisposition to be introverted

A) can become truly extraverted if they are encouraged to do so.
B) are likely to be more or less introverted depending on childhood experiences growing up.
C) developed this genetic predisposition because of genetic mutations occurring after birth.
D) are also predisposed to develop many psychological disorders.

Question 57

Mental disorders are almost always influenced by multiple genes. This means they are

A) easy to discover.
B) chemical circuits.
C) polygenic.
D) probands.

Question 58

Which method for studying genetic influences fails to control for the possible effect of sharing a common environment?

A) Family history or pedigree method
B) Adoption method
C) Association studies
D) Linkage analysis

Question 59

Andrea and her parents are shy and quiet. Her parents never take Andrea to any activities where there are many people. They buy her books and crafts that she can do by herself. This shows

A) an evocative effect of genotype on environment.
B) a passive effect of genotype on environment.
C) an active effect of genotype on environment.
D) a lack of genotype-environment correlation.

Question 60

If trait is highly heritable, it would be expected that

A) the concordance rate for dizygotic twins and monozygotic twins would be comparable.
B) the concordance rate for dizygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for monozygotic twins.
C) the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for dizygotic twins.
D) the concordance rate for dizygotic twins would be close to 100%.

Question 61

George and Logan are brothers. They live in a small apartment in the city with some other relatives. Their family is extremely poor. Their father is hardest on George, the eldest, and sometimes physically abuses him. Which environmental factor is likely to be more important in the later adjustment of George and Logan?

A) Their poverty.
B) The overcrowding of their living situation.
C) The physical abuse.
D) The fact that they live with other family members.

Question 62

After cheating on her husband, Julia accused her husband of cheating on her. Such behavior is explained by which of the following defense mechanism?

A) Sublimation
B) Displacement
C) Projection
D) Rationalization

Question 63

Neural plasticity is

A) the process by which neurotransmitters are broken down in the brain.
B) the flexibility of the brain - existing neural circuits can change or new ones can be made.
C) strong evidence of brain damage, leading to the development of a mental disorder.
D) the best indicator of temperament and its effect on the personality development of a child.

Question 64

Newer psychodynamic perspectives

A) disregard most elements of Freud's theories.
B) emphasize the role of the id.
C) do not view the libido as a primary determinant of behavior.
D) recognize intrapsychic conflicts as a primary determinant of behavior.

Question 65

A child consistently identified as behaviorally inhibited is most likely to

A) be an outgoing adult.
B) develop conduct disorder.
C) be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder in adulthood.
D) have been born prematurely.

Question 66

Which of the following strives to describe the location of genes responsible for mental disorders?

A) Association studies
B) Family histories
C) Twin studies
D) Adoption studies

Question 67

Tracy and Shahid are both 3 months old. Tracy is highly active, easily irritated, and cries easily. Shahid is quiet, adapts easily to change, and seems fearless. These differences illustrate

A) the impact of shared environmental influences.
B) how physical handicaps can have a genetic origin.
C) differences in temperament.
D) the fact that personality is more influenced by the environment than by genetics.

Question 68

Biological discoveries

A) have lessened the subjectivity of definitions of abnormal.
B) demonstrate that the environment plays only a minimal role in the development of psychopathology.
C) make it clear that mental disorders are diseases and should be dealt with by the medical profession.
D) have led to a recognition of the role that genetic factors and other biological influences play in the development of many disorders.

Question 69

Which of the following statements about brain dysfunction and psychiatric disorders is FALSE?

A) Identifiable brain damage is often the cause of psychiatric disorders.
B) Brain damage may increase the risk of developing a psychiatric condition.
C) Changes in brain function appear to play a role in many psychiatric disorders.
D) Brain development can be altered by experience, potentially leading to changes in the brain that increase the risk of developing a psychiatric condition.

Question 70

Which of the following is NOT a common method for studying genetic influences?

A) The study of specific gene defects
B) Twin studies
C) Adoption studies
D) Family history pedigree) studies

Question 71

If fraternal or dizygotic) twins are more likely to be concordant for a trait than other siblings, can it be concluded that the higher concordance rate is due to the greater degree of genetic relatedness?

A) Yes.
B) Yes, but only if the siblings studied are of the same sex and age.
C) No, because the greater similarity can be attributed to environmental influence.
D) No, because fraternal twins are no more genetically alike than other siblings.

Question 72

Which of the following is an example of a nonshared environmental influence?

A) Family economic status
B) Divorce
C) Death of a parent
D) Sibling rivalry

Question 73

Which of the following psychodynamic elements of the personality can be described as impulsive and selfish?

A) Ego
B) Id
C) Superego
D) Ideal self

Question 74

Todd and his siblings have parents who are physically abusive to each other. When they fight, they expect Todd to stay quiet and keep the other children under control. They allow the other children to cry and hide, but Todd must stay in the room with them and referee. This is an example of

A) a genotype-environment correlation.
B) a shared environmental influence.
C) a nonshared environmental influence.
D) a protective factor.

Question 75

Which of the following is a misconception about genetics and behavior?

A) The influence of genetics on behavior disappears as we get older.
B) Just because a disorder runs in families does not mean genetics are the reason.
C) Genetic research strategies provide useful tests of the influence of the environment on behavior.
D) Genetics influence behavior by making the person more or less susceptible to environmental influences.

Question 76

Suppose that, using linkage analysis, a researcher finds that family members with a high likelihood of developing depression also are very likely to be of below average height. This would mean

A) being short is a contributory factor for depression.
B) the gene for depression is probably located near the gene for height.
C) height and depression are probably caused by the same gene.
D) having depression causes people not to grow as tall as they would if they didn't have depression.

Question 77

Freud's view of mental disorders was that they were a result of

A) unresolved conflicts between the id, the ego, and the superego.
B) genetic abnormalities that influence people's ability to cope with their environment.
C) problematic tendencies we develop while dealing with our early interpersonal environments.
D) learned maladaptive behaviors that were rewarded with attention.

Question 78

What do the three psychosocial viewpoints addressed in this chapter all have in common?

A) All view people as basically good.
B) Each recognizes the role of biological factors in the the development of mental illness, but views the role of such factors differently.
C) All emphasize the impact of early experiences.
D) All focus on changing disordered thinking processes as a means of treating psychological conditions.

Question 79

Which of the following did Freud believe played a causal role in the development of most forms of psychopathology?

A) Anxiety
B) Depression
C) Unresolved conflicts between the ego and the superego
D) Fixation in the oral stage

Question 80

Why is it particularly useful to study identical twins who were raised in different environments?

A) Differences in brain function can easily be identified.
B) Concordance rates tend to be higher.
C) It is possible that the genetics of twins who have been separated have changed in ways to explain any differences found.
D) It is possible that high concordance rates between identical twins reared together is due to their being treated more similarly than nonidentical twins.