Deck 24: Mitigation of Haz Matwmd Incidents

Question 1

Which of the following ensures control of a large-scale incident involving multiple agencies with overlapping authority and responsibility?

A) Unified Command
B) Multiagency incident action plan
C) National Response Framework (NRF)
D) National Incident Management System-Incident Command System (NIMS-ICS)

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Which incident level requires resources from state/provincial agencies, federal agencies, and/or private industry in addition to unified command?

A) Level I
B) Level II
C) Level III
D) Level IV

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Which incident level is within the capabilities of fire or emergency services or other first responders?

A) Level I
B) Level II
C) Level III
D) Level IV

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Implementation of the incident action plan is accomplished by performing:

A) ICS duties.
B) strategic goals.
C) tactical objectives.
D) two or more modes of operation.

Question 5

Which agency outlines first responder standards in the Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response (HAZWOPER)?

A) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
B) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
C) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
D) National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

Question 6

Which of the following BEST describes actions included in incident stabilization?

A) Prevent all contamination
B) Protect all property at incident
C) Establish scene perimeters and minimize property damage
D) Minimize property damage and spread liquids to other areas

Question 7

NIMS-ICS is required of all state, tribal, and local organizations receiving:

A) grant money.
B) property taxes.
C) state assistance.
D) Federal preparedness assistance.

Question 8

Which of the following are a well-thought-out, organized course of events developed to address all phases of incident control within a specified time?

A) Strategic goals
B) Tactical objectives
C) Modes of operation
D) Incident action plans (IAPs)

Question 9

Which of the following are broad statements of what must be done to resolve the incident?

A) Strategic goals
B) Tactical objectives
C) Modes of operation
D) Incident action plans (IAPs)

Question 10

Which portions of the ERG provide safety recommendations and general hazards information?

A) Blue pages
B) White pages
C) Yellow pages
D) Orange pages

Question 11

Which incident command system (ICS) haz mat position supervises all companies and personnel operating in the hazardous area?

A) Entry Team Leader
B) Site Access Control Leader
C) Safe Refuge Area Manager
D) Hazardous Materials Branch Director

Question 12

What is the first incident priority at haz mat/WMD incidents?

A) Life safety
B) Incident stabilization
C) Protection of property
D) Protection of the environment

Question 13

Which of the following statements regarding the ERG is MOST accurate?

A) It is primarily used by the generic public.
B) It is primarily designed for use at fixed facilities.
C) It is a guide to aid emergency responders in quickly identifying hazardous materials.
D) It addresses all possible circumstances associated with a dangerous goods/hazardous materials incident.

Question 14

Which of the following are National Response Framework (NRF) teams of highly trained, experienced individuals who are organized to manage large and/or complex incidents?

A) Incident Management Teams
B) Urban Search and Rescue Teams
C) National Medical Response Teams
D) Disaster Medical Assistance Teams

Question 15

If an IAP is successful, which of the following should occur?

A) The plan should be revised.
B) The incident should stabilize.
C) The plan should be reevaluated.
D) The IC will receive unfavorable reports.

Question 16

Which portions of the ERG display the four-digit UN/NA identification number of a material followed by the assigned emergency response guide and material's name?

A) Blue pages
B) Green pages
C) Yellow pages
D) Orange pages

Question 17

Which mode of operation includes actions to actively control the hazard?

A) Offensive
B) Defensive
C) Intervention
D) Nonintervention

Question 18

Which of the following involves considering all factors that will affect an incident and response?

A) Initial size-up
B) Strategic goal
C) Tactical objective
D) Hazard and risk assessment

Question 19

Which of the following is an Awareness-Level role at an incident involving hazardous materials?

A) Analyze an incident to determine the nature and extent of the problem
B) Recognize the type of container at a site and identify the material in it if possible
C) Develop a defensive plan of action to address the problems presented by the incident
D) Implement the planned response to mitigate or control a release from a safe distance and keep it from spreading

Question 20

Which of the following is the FINAL part of the problem-solving process?

A) Evaluating progress
B) Implementing the IAP
C) Analyzing the situation
D) Planning the appropriate response

Question 21

Which types of respiratory protection are atmosphere-supplying respirators where the user does not carry the breathing air source?

A) Escape respirators
B) Supplied-air respirators (SARs)
C) Air-purifying respirators (APRs)
D) Powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs)

Question 22

Which heat disorder is a combination of environmental and physical work factors that compose the heat load imposed on the body?

A) Heat stroke
B) Heat stress
C) Heat cramps
D) Heat exhaustion

Question 23

Which of the following is a limitation of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

A) Can reduce the wearer's mobility
B) Can add up to 50 pounds (23 kg) of weight
C) Cannot be worn in oxygen-rich atmospheres
D) Can only protect against one chemical at a time

Question 24

Which of the following is a limitation of structural fire fighting protective clothing?

A) It can contribute to cold disorders.
B) It cannot withstand fire conditions.
C) Some materials can permeate and remain in the equipment.
D) It requires frequent and extensive training for efficient and safe use.

Question 25

PPE selection is determined by:

A) time of day.
B) risk and potential hazards.
C) number of personnel available.
D) wind speed and ambient temperature.

Question 26

Which of the following will be performed by the emergency response center?

A) Contact local emergency services
B) Determine the material's risk factors
C) Record a transcript of the phone call
D) Contact the shipper of the material or other experts

Question 27

MOPP is used by the U.S. military to protect against:

A) thermal hazards.
B) chemical hazards.
C) mechanical hazards.
D) asphyxiation hazards.

Question 28

Which of the following should be provided when contacting an emergency response center?

A) Number and types of casualties
B) Caller's name and email address
C) Latitude and longitude coordinates of the location
D) Name and identification number of material(s) involved

Question 29

Which EPA level of protection includes SCBA or SAR and provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical?

A) Level A
B) Level B
C) Level C
D) Level D

Question 30

Which section of the Initial Action Guides should be consulted first?

A) First aid
B) Public safety
C) Potential hazards
D) Emergency response

Question 31

Which types of respiratory protection use a blower to pass contaminated air through a canister or filter to remove the contaminant and supply the purified air to the full facepiece?

A) Escape respirators
B) Supplied-air hoods
C) Powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs)
D) Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

Question 32

Which of the following statements regarding chemical-protective clothing is MOST accurate?

A) It provides excellent resistance to heat and flame.
B) It only protects if fitted properly and worn correctly.
C) It is designed to provide high resistance to mechanical hazards.
D) It allows work in total flame environments for short periods of time.

Question 33

According to the Table of Initial Isolation and Protection Action Distances, evacuation must always be at least:

A) 50 feet (15 m) upwind.
B) 100 feet (30 m) upwind.
C) 50 feet (15 m) in all directions.
D) 100 feet (30 m) in all directions.

Question 34

Which EPA level of protection is used only for nuisance contamination with no atmospheric hazards?

A) Level A
B) Level B
C) Level C
D) Level D

Question 35

How can heat exposure be prevented?

A) Wear long cotton undergarments
B) Receive cool fluids intravenously, if necessary
C) Drink warm water to regulate the body's internal temperature
D) Consume generous amounts of caffeinated drinks before work

Question 36

Which type of protective clothing is designed to protect users from chemical liquid splashes, but not against chemical vapors or gases?

A) Vapor-protective clothing
B) Chemical-protective clothing
C) Liquid-splash protective clothing
D) High-temperature protective clothing

Question 37

PPE can be determined by which of the following resources?

A) The ERG
B) Shipping papers
C) Preincident plans
D) Incident action plans

Question 38

Contact information for emergency response centers is included in which pages of the ERG?

A) Blue pages
B) White pages
C) Yellow pages
D) Orange pages

Question 39

How many levels of MOPP are available?

A) Two
B) Four
C) Six
D) Eight

Question 40

Which of the following BEST describes limitations of air-purifying respirators?

A) Limited range of mobility
B) Limited market availability
C) Need for occasional atmospheric monitoring
D) Need for normal oxygen content in atmosphere before use

Question 41

Which of the following is the first resource if outside assistance is needed?

A) The incident action plan
B) The National Response Plan
C) The local emergency response plan
D) The National Incident Management System

Question 42

Which type of decontamination removes the threatening contaminant from victims or rescuers as quickly as possible without regard for environment or property?

A) Mass decontamination
B) Chemical decontamination
C) Technical decontamination
D) Emergency decontamination

Question 43

Which zone is a place to decontaminate personnel and normally requires PPE?

A) Hot zone
B) Cold zone
C) Warm zone
D) Hazard zone

Question 44

Which of the following is a duty of the safety officer?

A) Write the safety portion of the IAP
B) Obtain risk assessments from the IC
C) Advise the IC of deviations from incident safety considerations
D) Communicate information about injuries or illnesses to the media

Question 45

Which of the following is an area to wait for evacuation and/or decontamination?

A) Isolation perimeter
B) Area of safe refuge
C) Triage/treatment area
D) Decontamination zone

Question 46

Which public protection method is usually the best protective action?

A) Protection
B) Evacuation
C) Sheltering-in-place
D) Defending-in-place

Question 47

Which method of protection is particularly effective at incidents involving radiation?

A) Backup personnel
B) Withdrawal/escape
C) Accountability system
D) Time, distance, and shielding

Question 48

Which of the following is the boundary established to prevent access by the public and unauthorized persons?

A) Cold zone
B) Area of safe refuge
C) Isolation perimeter
D) Hazard-control zone

Question 49

Notification requirements are spelled out in the:

A) incident action plan.
B) National Response Plan.
C) local emergency response plan.
D) National Incident Management System.

Question 50

Which of the following is a general guideline for decontamination operations?

A) Remove as much clothing as possible
B) Decontaminate responders and victims together
C) Start decontamination operations several hours after exposure
D) Decontaminate anyone who moves from the cold zone to the hot zone

Question 51

Which of the following is a rescue action appropriate for those without specialized training?

A) Act as Incident Commander
B) Direct people to area of safe refuge
C) Decontaminate personnel and equipment
D) Perform mass decontamination for large number of people

Question 52

Inspection, testing, and maintenance schedules should be based on:

A) NFPA standards.
B) EPA requirements.
C) state recommendations.
D) local standard operating procedures (SOPs).

Question 53

Which public protection method involves directing people to go quickly inside a building and remain there until the danger passes?

A) Protection
B) Evacuation
C) Sheltering-in-place
D) Defending-in-place

Question 54

Which of the following should be covered in a safety briefing at incidents involving potential criminal or terrorist activities?

A) Be alert for secondary devices
B) Move suspicious-looking articles carefully
C) Enter damp, wet, or oily areas with caution
D) Limit the number of personnel leaving the crime scene

Question 55

Which protection methods are a function of NIMS and are especially important when multiple agencies/organizations have responded?

A) Safety officers
B) Buddy systems
C) Accountability systems
D) Withdrawal/escape procedures

Question 56

Which of the following is a rescue action appropriate for those without specialized training?

A) Carry out IAPs
B) Perform offensive activities
C) Perform decontamination operations
D) Conduct searches on the edge of the hot zone

Question 57

In most instances, triage is conducted:

A) in the hot zone.
B) in the warm zone.
C) after decontamination.
D) before decontamination.

Question 58

What is the purpose of decontamination?

A) To completely rid victims from all levels of contamination
B) To reduce contamination to a level that is no longer harmful
C) To remove and destroy victims' clothing as quickly as possible
D) To evacuate victims as quickly as possible from the area of contamination

Question 59

Medical monitoring of responders should occur:

A) after leaving the hot zone.
B) before entering the cold zone.
C) every 30 minutes during the incident.
D) every 60 minutes during the incident.

Question 60

Which of the following should be included in PPE inspection records?

A) Number of uses
B) Date of expiration
C) Person supervising inspection
D) Any unusual conditions noted

Question 61

Which spill control and confinement tactic occurs when one material enters the cell structure of another and is retained within?

A) Dilution
B) Absorption
C) Adsorption
D) Dissolution

Question 62

In what location are the emergency remote shutoff valves found on nonpressure liquid tanks?

A) Built into the valve box
B) On the left front corner of the tank
C) On the right front corner of the tank
D) In the center of the tank near the valves and piping

Question 63

Termination cannot occur until all:

A) personnel have left the scene.
B) strategic goals have been met.
C) tactical objectives have been met.
D) equipment has been returned to preincident condition.

Question 64

Specific leak control and containment tactics are determined by:

A) time of day.
B) mode of transport.
C) the type of breach.
D) wind speed and direction.

Question 65

Which of the following is a guideline for working at terrorist and criminal incidents?

A) Document your observations
B) Do not take any pictures of the incident scene
C) Carefully remove evidence from the scene as soon as possible
D) Contact contaminated surfaces only when absolutely necessary

Question 66

Which of the following statements about response to a terrorist or criminal incident is MOST accurate?

A) The response should include EMS and a haz mat team.
B) The response should include a bomb squad and a SWAT team.
C) The response is very different from any other haz mat incident.
D) The response must include protection and preservation of evidence.

Question 67

Which of the following compiles information obtained from debriefings, postincident reports, and critiques?

A) Incident action plan
B) After action analysis
C) Operational analysis
D) Termination evaluation

Question 68

What is one of the major goals of recovery?

A) Return the scene to its original condition
B) Debrief personnel upon return to the station
C) Return all equipment to preincident condition
D) Provide restitution for any property or environmental damage

Question 69

Which spill control and confinement tactic involves applying water to a water-soluble material in order to reduce the hazard?

A) Dilution
B) Ventilation
C) Adsorption
D) Dissolution

Question 70

Which of the following is a guideline for working at terrorist and criminal incidents?

A) Isolate the incident and deny entry
B) Place any possible suspects under arrest
C) Take photos of all witnesses and observers
D) Allow people and animals to leave the scene as quickly as possible

Question 71

Which of the following is required by OSHA of all personnel involved in a haz mat/WMD incident?

A) On-scene debriefing
B) Termination critique
C) After action analysis
D) Hazardous communication briefing

Question 72

Which spill control and confinement tactic is an action taken to reduce the emission of vapors at a hazardous material spill?

A) Ventilation
B) Dissolution
C) Vapor dispersion
D) Vapor suppression

Question 73

Leak control and containment is considered a (an):

A) offensive action.
B) defensive action.
C) intervention action.
D) nonintervention action.

Question 74

Which of the following should be notified and included in the response to a terrorist or criminal incident?

A) Law enforcement
B) Emergency medical services
C) Emergency operations center
D) Technician-level haz mat team