Deck 20: Fire Protection Systems Firefighter II

Question 1

The fire alarm control panel:

A) is required to be red with white lettering.
B) contains electronics that control and monitor the fire alarm system.
C) senses the products of combustion or other hazardous conditions.
D) notifies occupants of an emergency condition through visual text or symbols.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Fixed-temperature heat detectors are activated by expansion of heated material, changes in resistance of heated material, and:

A) initiation of water flow.
B) melting of heated material.
C) refraction/diffusion of light.
D) ionization of radioactive material.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which type of alarm signaling system is designed to provide notification to building occupants on the immediate premises?

A) Central station
B) Remote receiving
C) Protected premises
D) Supervising station

Answer 3

C

Question 4

After receiving a signal from an initiating device, the control panel activates:

A) a manual pull station.
B) notification appliances.
C) secondary power supplies.
D) the contacts in a frangible bulb.

Question 5

The fire alarm control panel in a (an) system is not capable of identifying the initiating device that triggered the alarm.

A) coded alarm
B) noncoded alarm
C) addressable alarm
D) annunciated alarm

Question 6

Which fire alarm component sends a signal to the fire alarm control panel?

A) Initiating device
B) Notification appliance
C) Remote annunciator panel
D) Textual notification appliances

Question 7

A alarm system continuously monitors a remote location.

A) passive
B) preaction
C) supervising station
D) protected premises

Question 8

A zoned/annunciated alarm system:

A) allows for quick location and correction of malfunctions in the system.
B) is not capable of identifying the initiating device that activated the alarm.
C) enables responders to identify the general location of alarm activation.
D) displays the location of each initiating device on a fire alarm control panel.

Question 9

The fire command center:

A) senses products of combustion.
B) serves as the connection point for power and fire alarm circuits.
C) consolidates all fire protection system controls for a structure in one room.
D) ensures the fire alarm system will operate if the primary power supply fails.

Question 10

Which type of supervising station alarm system is an extension of the municipal alarm circuit into protected property?

A) Shunt system
B) Municipal utility
C) Proprietary system
D) Local energy system

Question 11

Which type of protected premises alarm system allows responders to pinpoint the specific initiating device that was activated?

A) Zoned alarm
B) Noncoded alarm
C) Addressable alarm
D) Annunciated alarm

Question 12

Which of the following is a manually-activated alarm-initiating device?

A) House line
B) Pull station
C) Fusible link
D) Smoke detector

Question 13

Which is the most common category of notification appliances?

A) Visual
B) Textual
C) Tactile
D) Audible

Question 14

How are remote receiving systems connected to the emergency services telecommunications center?

A) A runner service
B) Dedicated system wiring
C) The municipal alarm box system
D) A telephone line or dedicated radio frequency

Question 15

Which of the following statements about fixed temperature heat detectors is MOST accurate?

A) Fixed temperature heat detectors are most prone to false activations.
B) Fixed temperature heat detectors should be installed at eye level or below.
C) Fixed temperature heat detectors use photoelectric cells to initiate an alarm signal.
D) Fixed temperature heat detectors can be the slowest to activate, depending on installation location.

Question 16

Which of the following supervising station alarm systems is connected to a municipal fire alarm system?

A) Proprietary system
B) Protected premises
C) Auxiliary alarm system
D) Central station system

Question 17

The purpose of a fire alarm system is to:

A) prevent flashover in the room of fire origin.
B) control fires in early stages while still small.
C) notify building occupants of an emergency condition.
D) provide means for deploying fire hoses remote from fire apparatus.

Question 18

Strobe lights are an example of which notification appliance category?

A) Visual
B) Textual
C) Conductive
D) Addressable

Question 19

The primary power to the alarm system is obtained from:

A) auxiliary generators.
B) a local utility provider.
C) batteries with chargers.
D) a special radio frequency.

Question 20

Which alarm system component serves as the "brain" for the fire alarm system?

A) Initiating device
B) Primary power supply
C) Notification appliance
D) Fire alarm control panel

Question 21

Which of the following statements about sprinklers is MOST accurate?

A) Sprinklers open in response to water pressure.
B) Sprinklers are fixed spray nozzles opened individually in response to heat.
C) Sprinklers are rated according to the flow rate at which they are designed to operate.
D) Early-suppression fast-response sprinklers open nearly twice as fast as traditional sprinklers.

Question 22

A sprinkler system minimum design area is based on:

A) the response time of the nearest fire station.
B) the size of pipe available to be used in the installation.
C) the minimum number of sprinklers that might be expected to activate.
D) the assumption that only a portion of the sprinklers will activate at one time.

Question 23

Which of the following statements about smoke detectors is MOST accurate?

A) Smoke detectors initiate an alarm much slower than heat detectors.
B) In most cases, smoke detectors are installed in nonresidential and large multi-family occupancies.
C) Smoke detectors are self-contained units capable of both detecting smoke and sounding an alarm.
D) Typically, smoke detectors are installed in single-family residences and smaller multi-family occupancies.

Question 24

Which rate-of-rise detector uses self-contained pneumatic sensors to monitor specific locations?

A) Waterflow alarm detector
B) Rate-compensated heat detector
C) Pneumatic rate-of-rise line detector
D) Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot detector

Question 25

Which of the following statements about photoelectric smoke detectors is MOST accurate?

A) Photoelectric smoke detectors are ineffective at detecting Class C fires.
B) Photoelectric smoke detectors use a photoelectric cell coupled with ambient room light.
C) Photoelectric smoke detectors must be manually reset when conditions return to normal.
D) Photoelectric smoke detectors usually respond more quickly to smoldering fires than do ionization-type detectors.

Question 26

Which of the following statements about rate-of-rise detectors is MOST accurate?

A) Rate-of-rise detectors are not suitable for areas where arc welding is done.
B) Rate-of-rise detectors are also known as visible products-of-combustion detectors.
C) Rate-of-rise detectors are less reliable than fixed-temperature detectors, and are frequently subject to false activations.
D) Rate-of-rise detectors can initiate an alarm at a temperature below that required for initiating fixed temperature devices.

Question 27

Which type of rate-of-rise detector uses a system of thermistors that produce a change in electrical resistance when exposed to heat?

A) Rate-compensated detector
B) Electronic spot-type heat detector
C) Pneumatic rate-of-rise line detector
D) Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot detector

Question 28

The sprinkler system feed main is:

A) the direct service to a number of branch lines.
B) the pipe connecting the riser to the cross mains.
C) vertical piping to which other components are attached.
D) the piping that connects a spray nozzle to the cross mains.

Question 29

Which alarm-initiating device is activated by a rise in temperature of 12°F to 15°F (7°C to 8°C) in one minute?

A) Infrared wave detector
B) Continuous line detector
C) Photoelectric cell detector
D) Rate-of-rise heat detector

Question 30

The is the vertical piping to which the one-way check valve, alarm valve, and main drain are attached.

A) riser
B) feed main
C) cross main
D) fire department connection

Question 31

Which of the following statements about flame detectors is MOST accurate?

A) Infrared flame detectors can be designed to be sensitive to only light produced by hostile fires.
B) Ultraviolet flame detectors are recommended for areas where intense mercury-vapor lamps are used.
C) Infrared flame detectors are virtually insensitive to sunlight, and can be used in areas not suitable for ultraviolet detectors.
D) Ultraviolet flame detectors are virtually insensitive to sunlight, and can be used in areas not suitable for infrared detectors.

Question 32

Which type of alarm-initiating device is activated in the presence of carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, and other gases produced by fires in confined spaces?

A) Heat detector
B) Flame detector
C) Fusible detector
D) Fire-gas detector

Question 33

Which of the following statements about fire-gas detectors is MOST accurate?

A) Fire-gas detectors are also called visible products-of-combustion detectors.
B) Fire-gas detectors initiate alarm signals faster than any other type of detector.
C) Fire-gas detectors can be designed to be sensitive to only gases produced by hostile fires.
D) For general detection, fire-gas detectors monitor levels of hydrogen chloride and hydrogen cyanide in the air.

Question 34

Which type of photoelectric smoke detector focuses a beam of light across the monitored area into a cell, and initiates an alarm when the beam is obscured?

A) Ionization smoke detector
B) Projected-beam smoke detector
C) Light-emitting diode smoke detector
D) Refractory application smoke detector

Question 35

Which of the following statements about sprinkler systems is MOST accurate?

A) Sprinkler system design and installation criteria are found in NFPA 14.
B) The two general types of sprinkler systems are integrated and disintegrated.
C) Sprinkler systems are designed to provide means for rapid deployment of hose lines.
D) Sprinkler systems are designed to extinguish a fire or prevent its spread until firefighters arrive.

Question 36

A frangible bulb heat detector is activated when:

A) a beam of light is reflected onto a photoelectric cell to complete a circuit.
B) ionized molecules make air less conductive, causing a decrease in current.
C) a chemical pellet melts, releasing a pressurized plunger to complete a circuit.
D) a small glass vial breaks when heated, allowing electrical contacts to complete a circuit.

Question 37

Which of the following statements about power sources of smoke detectors/alarms is MOST accurate?

A) Smoke detectors/alarms may be powered only by batteries.
B) Hard-wired alarms are more reliable in areas with frequent power failures.
C) Smoke detectors/alarms may be powered only by dedicated electrical feeds.
D) State, provincial, and local laws may require that smoke detectors/alarms be hard-wired.

Question 38

Which heat detector uses two metals, one which expands faster than the other when heated, to break a circuit and send a signal to the fire alarm control panel?

A) Bimetallic detector
B) Ultraviolet detector
C) Fusible link detector
D) Continuous line detector

Question 39

Which of the following statements about the effects of sprinkler systems on life safety is MOST accurate?

A) Sprinkler systems have little effect of the safety of firefighters.
B) Sprinkler systems alone are enough to protect occupants from smoke.
C) Sprinklers are ineffective in reducing the upward spread of a fire in multistory buildings.
D) Sprinklers discharge water directly onto a fire while it is still small, limiting the products of combustion.

Question 40

Which of the following statements about ionization smoke detectors is MOST accurate?

A) Ionization smoke detectors detect tiny amounts of radioactive material emitted by burning fuel.
B) Ionization smoke detectors generally respond faster to smoldering than to flaming fires.
C) Ionization smoke detectors detect products of combustion using tiny amounts of radioactive material.
D) Ionization smoke detectors are sensitive to sunlight, and are usually installed in fully enclosed areas.

Question 41

The sprinkler system operating alarm test valve:

A) may be used to check the water supply.
B) is used to simulate actuation of one sprinkler.
C) is located in a remote part of the sprinkler system.
D) can be used to simulate actuation of the sprinkler system.

Question 42

Sprinkler deflectors serve to:

A) direct water flow downward.
B) support the piping and sprinklers.
C) protect sprinklers from dust and debris.
D) direct water flow upward toward the ceiling.

Question 43

Which sprinkler system operating valve is equipped with the same size orifice as a sprinkler and is used to simulate the actuation of one sprinkler?

A) Alarm test valve
B) Main drain valve
C) Main control valve
D) Inspector's test valve

Question 44

What is the function of a retard chamber?

A) Quickly expels air from the sprinkler piping
B) Keeps water out of piping until fire actuates a sprinkler
C) Prevents water flowing back into fire department connection
D) Catches excess water sent during momentary water pressure surges

Question 45

Which of the following statements about the sprinkler system water supply is MOST accurate?

A) The water supply must be designed to supply all sprinklers on the system.
B) The fire department cannot connect to the sprinkler system during operation.
C) A fire pump is typically incorporated into the system to ensure adequate water pressure and volume.
D) The minimum water supply must deliver the required volume of water to the sprinkler nearest the control valve at the system rated pressure.

Question 46

Which type of indicating valve has a hollow metal post housing the valve stem with a moveable plate visible through a small glass window on the side?

A) Outside stem and yoke
B) Post indicator valve (PIV)
C) Circular disk-and-plate valve
D) Post indicator valve assembly (PIVA)

Question 47

Sprinklers' temperature ratings can be identified by:

A) the size of the frangible bulb.
B) the color-coded sprinkler frame arms.
C) the temperature stamped on the chemical pellet.
D) the temperature stamped on a brass tag hung on the stem.

Question 48

In accordance with NFPA 13, a sprinkler storage cabinet must contain:

A) the inspector's test valve.
B) building plans and system diagrams.
C) six sprinklers and a sprinkler wrench.
D) a copy of the department preincident plan.

Question 49

Which type of indicating valve extends horizontally through the wall with the target and valve operating nut outside of the building?

A) Outside stem and yoke
B) Post indicator valve (PIV)
C) Wall post indicator valve (WPIV)
D) Post indicator valve assembly (PIVA)

Question 50

Which sprinkler release mechanism has a valve cap held in place by a small piece of solder that melts to release pressure and open the valve?

A) Fusible link
B) Frangible bulb
C) Bimetallic strip
D) Chemical pellet

Question 51

Which sprinkler orientation type is installed in a housing within the ceiling and has all or part of the sprinkler (except the threaded shank) in the housing?

A) Flush
B) Upright
C) Recessed
D) Concealed

Question 52

In which type of sprinkler system does air or nitrogen under pressure replace the water in the sprinklers above a valve?

A) Deluge system
B) Dry-pipe system
C) Wet-pipe system
D) Water curtain system

Question 53

Which of the following statements about dry-pipe sprinkler systems is MOST accurate?

A) Dry-pipe systems require pressurized air or nitrogen to hold dry-pipe valves open.
B) A disadvantage of dry-pipe systems is that they do not signal an alarm when discharged.
C) Normally, the air-pressure gauge and water-pressure gauge should show the same pressure reading.
D) Accelerators and exhausters are quick-opening devices that allow air to exit and water to enter the pipes quickly.

Question 54

What is the purpose of a sprinkler system waterflow alarm?

A) Initiate alarm when water begins to flow.
B) Initiate alarm when water flow exceeds rated flow.
C) Initiate alarm when water reaches end of sprinkler lines.
D) Initiate alarm when water pressure exceeds rated pressure.

Question 55

Which of the following BEST describes deluge sprinkler systems?

A) Use extinguishing agent other than water for use in specific occupancies
B) Contain air or nitrogen under pressure, air escapes when sprinkler system is initiated
C) Contain water under pressure, two gauges read pressure above and below activation valve
D) Designed with open-head sprinklers to quickly supply a large volume of water to the protected area

Question 56

The main control valve is used to:

A) simulate actuation of the system.
B) stop supplying water to the system.
C) initiate an alarm when water begins to flow.
D) drain water from the system for maintenance.

Question 57

Which of the following statements about fire department connections is MOST accurate?

A) Fire department connects should be supplied from pumpers with a capacity of 100 gpm (400 L/min) or greater.
B) Fire department preincident plans may identify the pressure at which the sprinkler system will be supported by pumpers.
C) Fire department pumpers supplying connects should connect to hydrants on the same main as the sprinkler system supply.
D) Fire department connect check valves allow sprinkler system water to flow freely back through the fire department connect.

Question 58

Which of the following system types is typically used where it is important to prevent water damage?

A) Dry-pipe system
B) Preaction system
C) Water-mist system
D) Partial deluge system

Question 59

Which type of sprinkler deflector discharges most of the water to one side, and is used when it is necessary to install a sprinkler on the wall or at the side of a room?

A) Flush
B) In-rack
C) Sidewall
D) Pendant

Question 60

Which type of sprinkler system contains water under pressure at all times so a sprinkler will immediately discharge water spray and activate an alarm?

A) Deluge system
B) Dry-pipe system
C) Wet-pipe system
D) Clean-agent system

Question 61

Which of the following statements BEST describes standpipe and hose systems?

A) Standpipe systems may not be effective on small fires in their early stages.
B) Standpipe systems normally discharge water outside of the protected building.
C) Design and installation of standpipe systems and hose stations are described in NFPA 13 and NFPA 14.
D) Standpipe system components commonly include a control panel, alarm actuator, cross mains, and an inspector's test valve.

Question 62

One advantage of nondedicated smoke control systems is:

A) the elaborate nature of the system controls.
B) less chance of component failure due to regular use and maintenance.
C) the operation and control are simpler than dedicated smoke control systems.
D) nondedicated systems are less likely to be affected by modification or failure of other building systems.

Question 63

Which class of standpipe system is equipped with a 1 1/2 inch (38 mm) hose and lightweight twist-type shutoff nozzle stored on a hose rack system?

A) Class I
B) Class II
C) Class III
D) Class IV

Question 64

Which of the following statements about smoke control is MOST accurate?

A) Most smoke management systems are ineffective if building occupants are sleeping or impaired.
B) The purpose of smoke control is to quickly remove smoke from and introduce fresh air into the fire area.
C) Smoke management systems are not activated until the structure has been evacuated and searched.
D) Smoke control is any effort to change pressure in spaces adjacent to the fire area to compartmentalize or exhaust smoke.

Question 65

Which of the following statements BEST describes an automatic dry standpipe system?

A) Water is maintained in the system only to identify leaks.
B) Water pressure is maintained in the system at all times.
C) Water is admitted to the system upon opening of the hose valve.
D) Water is admitted to the system when the dry pipe valve is opened at the hose station.

Question 66

Which type of standpipe system requires activation of a control device to provide water at hose connections?

A) Manual dry
B) Automatic dry
C) Automatic wet
D) Semiautomatic dry

Question 67

Where is the opposed air flow method of smoke control typically used?

A) Areas with existing barriers, such as stairwells with doors or HVAC ductwork with dampers.
B) Within the smoke control station, or other areas where the air flow will dilute the concentration of smoke.
C) Large spaces where smoke migration is limited by opposed air flow, such as subway and railroad tunnels.
D) Large spaces were the smoke can be maintained at a level of 6 to 10 feet (2 m to 3 m) above the highest occupied floor.

Question 68

Which of the following is an advantage of dedicated smoke control systems?

A) The system requires less space for mechanical equipment.
B) All system features are exercised during day-to-day operations.
C) There is less chance of component failure due to regular use and maintenance.
D) The system is less likely to be affected by modification or failures of other building systems.

Question 69

Which smoke control system/method uses barriers with sufficient fire endurance to provide protection against the spread of fire and smoke?

A) Passive
B) Dilution
C) Opposed air flow
D) Zoned smoke control

Question 70

How does the exhaust method control smoke?

A) Uses mechanical fans and ventilation to create a pressure difference across a barrier.
B) Uses high velocity air aimed at the area of origin to keep smoke from migrating into unaffected areas.
C) Uses barriers with sufficient fire endurance to provide protection against the spread of fire and smoke.
D) Uses mechanical ventilation and the properties of smoke to collect smoke at the highest point in a large space.

Question 71

Which of the following statements about firefighters' smoke control stations is MOST accurate?

A) All smoke control equipment must be fully automated to prevent manual shutdown.
B) The firefighters' smoke control station must be accessible by all building occupants at all times.
C) Each piece of smoke control equipment should be controlled individually, rather then by zones.
D) The firefighters' smoke control station should contain a building diagram indicating the location of smoke control equipment.

Question 72

Which of the following statements BEST describes a manual wet standpipe system?

A) The system has a permanently attached water supply.
B) The water supply is capable of meeting demand automatically.
C) The system is maintained full of water, but has no water supply.
D) The water supply enters the system when the dry-pipe valve is activated at the hose station.

Question 73

Which of the following statements about standpipe and hose systems is MOST accurate?

A) Standpipe and hose systems can take the place of sprinkler systems, or lessen the need for sprinklers.
B) Standpipe systems give no advantage in one-story structures, and are rarely installed in these structures.
C) In many high-rise buildings, a standpipe is the primary means for manual extinguishment and overhaul of a fire.
D) Standpipe systems are designed only for use by building occupants, they do not serve the needs of firefighters.

Question 74

Which of the following statements about residential sprinkler systems is MOST accurate?

A) Residential sprinkler systems are generally more costly than commercial systems.
B) Residential sprinkler systems operate more slowly and at higher temperatures than do commercial systems.
C) Residential sprinkler systems are expected to prevent flashover, and improve the chance for occupants to escape.
D) Residential sprinkler systems must be connected to a water source separate from the domestic water service.