Deck 17: Fire Control Firefighter I
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Deck 17: Fire Control Firefighter I
1
Which of the following should be used to ensure that floor assemblies over basement fires are safe for personnel to work?
A) Thermal imager
B) Sounding of the floor
C) Visual inspection of floor joist
D) Temperature check of floor joists
A) Thermal imager
B) Sounding of the floor
C) Visual inspection of floor joist
D) Temperature check of floor joists
C
2
Which strategic transition may be necessary when the situation rapidly changes?
A) Indirect to direct
B) Direct to indirect
C) Offensive to defensive
D) Defensive to offensive
A) Indirect to direct
B) Direct to indirect
C) Offensive to defensive
D) Defensive to offensive
C
3
In which type of fire attack is water applied directly onto burning fuels until the fire is extinguished?
A) Gas cooling
B) Direct attack
C) Indirect attack
D) Combination attack
A) Gas cooling
B) Direct attack
C) Indirect attack
D) Combination attack
B
4
Which of the following is the primary location for shutting off power?
A) Power line
B) Transformer
C) Electric meter
D) Electrical panel
A) Power line
B) Transformer
C) Electric meter
D) Electrical panel
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5
Which of the following may provide firefighters the BEST access to a basement fire?
A) A window well
B) An above-ground window
C) An interior open stairwell
D) An interior enclosed stairwell
A) A window well
B) An above-ground window
C) An interior open stairwell
D) An interior enclosed stairwell
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6
In its pure form, natural gas is:
A) butane.
B) ethanol.
C) propane.
D) methane.
A) butane.
B) ethanol.
C) propane.
D) methane.
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7
If a fire is ventilation controlled, what will happen if a door is opened?
A) Fire will self-extinguish
B) Overhead gas layers will cool
C) Heat release rate will significantly increase
D) Added oxygen will decrease fire development
A) Fire will self-extinguish
B) Overhead gas layers will cool
C) Heat release rate will significantly increase
D) Added oxygen will decrease fire development
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8
Which of the following may be used as interior exposure protection?
A) Proper use of forced ventilation
B) Use of fire-rated walls and doors
C) Applying water spray between fire and exposure
D) Opening doors between fire area and unaffected area
A) Proper use of forced ventilation
B) Use of fire-rated walls and doors
C) Applying water spray between fire and exposure
D) Opening doors between fire area and unaffected area
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9
Which of the following slows the transfer of heat to other combustibles and reduces the chances of overhead gases igniting?
A) Gas cooling
B) Direct attack
C) Indirect attack
D) Combination attack
A) Gas cooling
B) Direct attack
C) Indirect attack
D) Combination attack
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10
Which strategy is typically selected when property is not salvageable?
A) Direct
B) Indirect
C) Offensive
D) Defensive
A) Direct
B) Indirect
C) Offensive
D) Defensive
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11
Who makes the decision to make entry?
A) Safety officer
B) Incident commander
C) First-arriving firefighter
D) Rapid intervention crew
A) Safety officer
B) Incident commander
C) First-arriving firefighter
D) Rapid intervention crew
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12
Which type of fire attack is made through a window or other opening, directing the stream toward the ceiling to cool the room?
A) Gas cooling
B) Direct attack
C) Indirect attack
D) Combination attack
A) Gas cooling
B) Direct attack
C) Indirect attack
D) Combination attack
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13
Hoseline selection should be based on which of the following factors?
A) Potential fire spread
B) Location of exposures
C) Water pressure available
D) Number of available apparatus
A) Potential fire spread
B) Location of exposures
C) Water pressure available
D) Number of available apparatus
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14
Which of the following guidelines should be used when switching strategies?
A) Turn off radios in order to maintain radio silence
B) Abandon hoselines when strategy change is made
C) Split away from team in order to cover more ground
D) Maintain situational awareness to recognize changes in fire behavior
A) Turn off radios in order to maintain radio silence
B) Abandon hoselines when strategy change is made
C) Split away from team in order to cover more ground
D) Maintain situational awareness to recognize changes in fire behavior
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15
In fires in the upper levels of structures, which of the following determines the method of fire attack?
A) Available hoselines
B) Available personnel
C) Location of the stairway
D) Location of the standpipe
A) Available hoselines
B) Available personnel
C) Location of the stairway
D) Location of the standpipe
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16
How may elevators be used at fires in upper levels of structures?
A) To transport equipment to the fire floor
B) To transport personnel to the staging area
C) To transport empty SCBA to the staging area
D) To transport firefighting tools to the fire floor
A) To transport equipment to the fire floor
B) To transport personnel to the staging area
C) To transport empty SCBA to the staging area
D) To transport firefighting tools to the fire floor
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17
Which alternative energy source will include a shutoff switch on the electric meter?
A) Solar panels
B) Hydrogen cells
C) Nuclear power rods
D) Fuel-powered generators
A) Solar panels
B) Hydrogen cells
C) Nuclear power rods
D) Fuel-powered generators
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18
Which of the following pre-entry considerations is critical to firefighter safety and effectiveness?
A) Identifying exposures
B) Ensuring adequate water flow
C) Reading fire behavior indicators
D) Evaluating available forcible entry tools
A) Identifying exposures
B) Ensuring adequate water flow
C) Reading fire behavior indicators
D) Evaluating available forcible entry tools
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19
Which of the following statements regarding commercial basements and subfloors is MOST accurate?
A) They are only comprised of steel girders
B) They are usually less robust than residential basements
C) Those made of metal floor supports have little chance of failure
D) They may have similar construction to those in residential structures
A) They are only comprised of steel girders
B) They are usually less robust than residential basements
C) Those made of metal floor supports have little chance of failure
D) They may have similar construction to those in residential structures
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20
Nozzle selection is based upon which of the following factors?
A) Size of building
B) Stream reach needed
C) Available water supply
D) Ease of hoseline deployment
A) Size of building
B) Stream reach needed
C) Available water supply
D) Ease of hoseline deployment
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21
How should a Class D fire be extinguished?
A) By dousing it with water
B) By directing hose streams onto it
C) By using dry chemical extinguishers
D) By shoveling Class D extinguishing agents onto it
A) By dousing it with water
B) By directing hose streams onto it
C) By using dry chemical extinguishers
D) By shoveling Class D extinguishing agents onto it
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22
Which of the following is used to shut down the water supply to the entire fire protection system?
A) FDC
B) Control valve
C) Sprinkler head
D) Sprinkler system
A) FDC
B) Control valve
C) Sprinkler head
D) Sprinkler system
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23
In passenger compartment fires, what nozzle pattern should be used through a broken window?
A) Narrow fog pattern
B) Medium fog pattern
C) Direct stream pattern
D) Direct straight stream pattern
A) Narrow fog pattern
B) Medium fog pattern
C) Direct stream pattern
D) Direct straight stream pattern
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24
Class D fires involve:
A) combustible metals.
B) transportation vehicles.
C) stacked and piled materials.
D) energized electrical equipment.
A) combustible metals.
B) transportation vehicles.
C) stacked and piled materials.
D) energized electrical equipment.
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25
The shutoff valves for water are located:
A) underground.
B) inside the house.
C) at the water department.
D) near the electrical meter.
A) underground.
B) inside the house.
C) at the water department.
D) near the electrical meter.
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26
If a ground cover fire starts near transmission lines:
A) extinguish the fire immediately.
B) wait for the fire to self-extinguish.
C) extinguish the fire using only Class A foam.
D) wait for the fire to burn away from the point of contact.
A) extinguish the fire immediately.
B) wait for the fire to self-extinguish.
C) extinguish the fire using only Class A foam.
D) wait for the fire to burn away from the point of contact.
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27
Which of the following is a guideline for vehicle fire attacks?
A) Rescue vehicle occupants first
B) Position hoseline behind exposures
C) Attack the fire from a 90-degree angle
D) Deploy hoseline that will provide a minimum of 95 gpm (360 L/min)
A) Rescue vehicle occupants first
B) Position hoseline behind exposures
C) Attack the fire from a 90-degree angle
D) Deploy hoseline that will provide a minimum of 95 gpm (360 L/min)
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28
The deployment of a master stream device requires a minimum of:
A) one firefighter.
B) two firefighters.
C) three firefighters.
D) four firefighters.
A) one firefighter.
B) two firefighters.
C) three firefighters.
D) four firefighters.
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29
Which of the following should be done once the fire has been controlled?
A) Remove air bags
B) Remove fuel tanks
C) Disconnect the battery
D) Disconnect automatic locks and windows
A) Remove air bags
B) Remove fuel tanks
C) Disconnect the battery
D) Disconnect automatic locks and windows
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30
At fires in electrical transformers, which type of extinguisher should be used?
A) Water
B) Class A foam
C) CO2 extinguisher
D) Dry chemical extinguisher
A) Water
B) Class A foam
C) CO2 extinguisher
D) Dry chemical extinguisher
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31
Liquefied petroleum gas is stored:
A) as a solid.
B) in a gaseous form.
C) in a liquid state under pressure.
D) in its purest form as butane gas.
A) as a solid.
B) in a gaseous form.
C) in a liquid state under pressure.
D) in its purest form as butane gas.
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32
If a firefighter is inside the gradient field of a grounded power line or feels a tingling in the legs, they should away from the area.
A) run
B) hop
C) walk
D) crawl
A) run
B) hop
C) walk
D) crawl
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33
Which type of control valve extends horizontally through the wall with a target and valve operating nut on the outside of building?
A) Post indicator valve
B) Outside stem and yoke
C) Wall post indicator valve
D) Post indicator valve assembly
A) Post indicator valve
B) Outside stem and yoke
C) Wall post indicator valve
D) Post indicator valve assembly
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34
Which of the following is one of the FIRST priorities at a fire in a protected structure?
A) Shutting a control valve
B) Deploying a master stream
C) Stopping the flow from a sprinkler
D) Connecting to a fire department connection (FDC)
A) Shutting a control valve
B) Deploying a master stream
C) Stopping the flow from a sprinkler
D) Connecting to a fire department connection (FDC)
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35
At fires at commercial high-voltage installations, the entry team must wear:
A) full PPE, including SCBA.
B) vapor protective clothing.
C) wildland firefighting clothing.
D) chemical protective clothing.
A) full PPE, including SCBA.
B) vapor protective clothing.
C) wildland firefighting clothing.
D) chemical protective clothing.
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36
Which of the following should be determined during vehicle incident size-up?
A) Type of fuel
B) If engine is still running
C) Vehicle make and model
D) Number of victims and their ages
A) Type of fuel
B) If engine is still running
C) Vehicle make and model
D) Number of victims and their ages
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37
Which of the following is a guideline for electrical emergencies?
A) Cut power lines upon arrival
B) Move any vehicles that are in contact with electrical wires
C) Stay at least 20 feet (6 m) from power lines when raising ladders
D) Use lockout/tagout devices when working on electrical equipment
A) Cut power lines upon arrival
B) Move any vehicles that are in contact with electrical wires
C) Stay at least 20 feet (6 m) from power lines when raising ladders
D) Use lockout/tagout devices when working on electrical equipment
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38
Class C fires are those involving:
A) combustible metals.
B) transportation vehicles.
C) stacked and piled materials.
D) energized electrical equipment.
A) combustible metals.
B) transportation vehicles.
C) stacked and piled materials.
D) energized electrical equipment.
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39
A master stream device should enter a structure:
A) in a straight line.
B) at an upward angle.
C) in a circular pattern.
D) at a downward angle.
A) in a straight line.
B) at an upward angle.
C) in a circular pattern.
D) at a downward angle.
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40
Firefighters and the public should stay at least from underground transmission lines during a fire.
A) 100 feet (30 m)
B) 200 feet (60 m)
C) 300 feet (91 m)
D) 400 feet (120 m)
A) 100 feet (30 m)
B) 200 feet (60 m)
C) 300 feet (91 m)
D) 400 feet (120 m)
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41
Which topography features may alter air flow and cause turbulence?
A) Aspect
B) Chutes
C) Drainages
D) Local terrain
A) Aspect
B) Chutes
C) Drainages
D) Local terrain
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42
Which of the following is an influence on ground cover fires?
A) Weather
B) Size of fire
C) Cause of fire
D) Ignition sources
A) Weather
B) Size of fire
C) Cause of fire
D) Ignition sources
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43
What fire streams are most effective at fires involving small unattached structures?
A) Fog streams
B) Master streams
C) Narrow streams
D) Straight streams
A) Fog streams
B) Master streams
C) Narrow streams
D) Straight streams
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44
Which of the following is required for firefighters participating in ground cover fire fighting?
A) Web belt
B) Bunker gear
C) Nomex hood
D) Protective footwear
A) Web belt
B) Bunker gear
C) Nomex hood
D) Protective footwear
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45
What should be done if smoke is visible at an electrical vehicle incident?
A) Chock wheels
B) Secure vehicle
C) Turn off ignition
D) Wear full PPE and SCBA
A) Chock wheels
B) Secure vehicle
C) Turn off ignition
D) Wear full PPE and SCBA
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46
Which of the following is the area of unburned fuel next to the involved area?
A) Spot
B) Green
C) Finger
D) Perimeter
A) Spot
B) Green
C) Finger
D) Perimeter
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47
Protective clothing used for ground cover fires should meet the requirements for NFPA:
A) 1001.
B) 1205.
C) 1799.
D) 1977.
A) 1001.
B) 1205.
C) 1799.
D) 1977.
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48
At fires involving stacked and piled materials, fire streams should be directed at the:
A) middle of the fire.
B) extreme edge of the fire.
C) exposures surrounding the fire.
D) ground, deflecting up onto the fire.
A) middle of the fire.
B) extreme edge of the fire.
C) exposures surrounding the fire.
D) ground, deflecting up onto the fire.
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49
Which kind of ground cover fire burns on the soil surface, consuming low-lying grass, shrubs, and other vegetation?
A) Crown fire
B) Ladder fire
C) Ground fire
D) Surface fire
A) Crown fire
B) Ladder fire
C) Ground fire
D) Surface fire
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50
Which of the following is a visual indicator of an alternative fuel vehicle?
A) Vehicle size
B) Vehicle year
C) Vehicle color
D) Vehicle profile
A) Vehicle size
B) Vehicle year
C) Vehicle color
D) Vehicle profile
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51
Which of the following statements regarding ground cover fires is MOST accurate?
A) They are very slow moving.
B) They are usually very small in size.
C) They are always caused by natural events.
D) Their characteristics are very different from fires in burning buildings.
A) They are very slow moving.
B) They are usually very small in size.
C) They are always caused by natural events.
D) Their characteristics are very different from fires in burning buildings.
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52
Which kind of ground cover fire is slow moving and smoldering?
A) Crown fire
B) Ladder fire
C) Ground fire
D) Surface fire
A) Crown fire
B) Ladder fire
C) Ground fire
D) Surface fire
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53
Which of the following is a long narrow strip of fire extending from the main fire?
A) Head
B) Flank
C) Island
D) Finger
A) Head
B) Flank
C) Island
D) Finger
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54
If a vehicle using ethanol or methanol is on fire, use only to extinguish.
A) water
B) Class D fire extinguishers
C) aqueous film forming foam
D) Alcohol Resistant Class B foam
A) water
B) Class D fire extinguishers
C) aqueous film forming foam
D) Alcohol Resistant Class B foam
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55
What tactics should be used at incidents involving liquefied petroleum gas vehicles?
A) Extinguish fire immediately
B) Approach from a 90-degree angle
C) Use gas detectors to determine leaks
D) Direct fire streams at bottom of LPG tank
A) Extinguish fire immediately
B) Approach from a 90-degree angle
C) Use gas detectors to determine leaks
D) Direct fire streams at bottom of LPG tank
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56
Fuel tanks on a natural gas vehicle are often located:
A) under the hood.
B) in the trunk area.
C) under the vehicle.
D) behind the rear tires.
A) under the hood.
B) in the trunk area.
C) under the vehicle.
D) behind the rear tires.
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57
Which of the following statements regarding burning characteristics of ground cover fires is MOST accurate?
A) Heavy fuels burn faster than lighter fuels.
B) Fires spread faster when fuels are close together.
C) Fuels that contain more moisture burn with greater intensity
D) Loosely piled fuels burn slower than those that are tightly compacted.
A) Heavy fuels burn faster than lighter fuels.
B) Fires spread faster when fuels are close together.
C) Fuels that contain more moisture burn with greater intensity
D) Loosely piled fuels burn slower than those that are tightly compacted.
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58
Which kind of fuels include grass, field crops, and downed limbs?
A) Aerial fuels
B) Ladder fuels
C) Surface fuels
D) Subsurface fuels
A) Aerial fuels
B) Ladder fuels
C) Surface fuels
D) Subsurface fuels
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59
What should be done for a fire involving a hydrogen-fueled vehicle?
A) Extinguish the fire immediately
B) Request hazardous materials team
C) Cut A, B, and C posts for easiest extrication
D) Protect exposures and allow fuel to burn off
A) Extinguish the fire immediately
B) Request hazardous materials team
C) Cut A, B, and C posts for easiest extrication
D) Protect exposures and allow fuel to burn off
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60
Which of the following is the side of the fire opposite the head?
A) Heel
B) Black
C) Origin
D) Green
A) Heel
B) Black
C) Origin
D) Green
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61
Which of the following BEST describes emergency incident priorities?
A) Extinguishment, overhaul, ventilation
B) Property conservation, salvage, life safety
C) Life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation
D) Incident stabilization, environmental conservation, confinement
A) Extinguishment, overhaul, ventilation
B) Property conservation, salvage, life safety
C) Life safety, incident stabilization, property conservation
D) Incident stabilization, environmental conservation, confinement
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62
What rule can be amended if a life safety hazard to a victim that can be saved without undue risk to firefighters is present on scene?
A) SAR rule
B) SCBA rule
C) Two-in, two-out rule
D) Situational awareness rule
A) SAR rule
B) SCBA rule
C) Two-in, two-out rule
D) Situational awareness rule
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63
What fireground role is defined as the one that works to locate and assist firefighters trapped during operations?
A) Incident Commander
B) Second-arriving company
C) Rapid intervention crew/team
D) Fireground support company
A) Incident Commander
B) Second-arriving company
C) Rapid intervention crew/team
D) Fireground support company
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64
Which method for attacking ground cover fires is action taken against flames at its edge or closely parallel to it?
A) Direct attack
B) Indirect attack
C) Offensive attack
D) Defensive attack
A) Direct attack
B) Indirect attack
C) Offensive attack
D) Defensive attack
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65
What fireground role should be two or more members wearing complete PPE and respiratory protection, with the purpose of locating firefighters incapacitated during operations?
A) Incident Commander
B) Second-arriving company
C) Rapid intervention crew/team
D) Fireground support company
A) Incident Commander
B) Second-arriving company
C) Rapid intervention crew/team
D) Fireground support company
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66
Which of the following BEST describes safety considerations during a blitz attack?
A) Steam can assist in suppression efforts.
B) Specialized rescue tools can injure teams.
C) Poorly directed streams can force teams to retreat.
D) This type of attack is only coordinated with the Incident Commander.
A) Steam can assist in suppression efforts.
B) Specialized rescue tools can injure teams.
C) Poorly directed streams can force teams to retreat.
D) This type of attack is only coordinated with the Incident Commander.
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67
Which of the following defines the actions taken by the first-arriving engine company?
A) Chief officer
B) Department SOPs
C) Incident Commander
D) Preincident surveys
A) Chief officer
B) Department SOPs
C) Incident Commander
D) Preincident surveys
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68
Which of the following BEST describes when a chief officer may assume a role other than Incident Commander (IC) on-scene?
A) When a fast-attack suppression operation is needed.
B) When the incident organization needs to be improved.
C) Never, the original IC should always stay in control of operations.
D) When the original IC has made reasonable progress toward stabilization.
A) When a fast-attack suppression operation is needed.
B) When the incident organization needs to be improved.
C) Never, the original IC should always stay in control of operations.
D) When the original IC has made reasonable progress toward stabilization.
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69
Which nonfire hazard may be found around military training areas?
A) Explosives
B) Animal traps
C) Unstable trees
D) Rolling or falling debris
A) Explosives
B) Animal traps
C) Unstable trees
D) Rolling or falling debris
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70
When is simultaneous entry performed by a fireground support company?
A) When the first-arriving company has too many personnel on-scene.
B) When search and rescue operations must be done at the same time as fire attack.
C) When the area closest to the fire poses a severe risk to firefighters.
D) When the average water pressure in the distribution system is low.
A) When the first-arriving company has too many personnel on-scene.
B) When search and rescue operations must be done at the same time as fire attack.
C) When the area closest to the fire poses a severe risk to firefighters.
D) When the average water pressure in the distribution system is low.
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71
Which of the following BEST describes when to withdraw when using the fast-attack command approach?
A) When formal command ends.
B) When combat command is required.
C) When the incident is finalized and the Incident Command Post is no longer needed.
D) When the incident is not stabilized, but the establishment of an ICP outside of the hazardous area is required.
A) When formal command ends.
B) When combat command is required.
C) When the incident is finalized and the Incident Command Post is no longer needed.
D) When the incident is not stabilized, but the establishment of an ICP outside of the hazardous area is required.
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72
Which of the following techniques are the MOST essential part of any ground cover operation?
A) Lookouts
B) Safety zones
C) Escape routes
D) Communications
A) Lookouts
B) Safety zones
C) Escape routes
D) Communications
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73
What fireground role is MOST likely to finish hose lays begun by the first-arriving company?
A) Incident Commander
B) Rapid intervention crew/team
C) Fireground support company
D) Second-arriving engine company
A) Incident Commander
B) Rapid intervention crew/team
C) Fireground support company
D) Second-arriving engine company
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74
Which of the following is one of the ten standard fire fighting orders?
A) Post lookouts when there is possible danger
B) Treat all incidents like a hazardous materials incident
C) Wear standard firefighting structure gear at all incidents
D) Fight fire passively, providing for exposure protection first
A) Post lookouts when there is possible danger
B) Treat all incidents like a hazardous materials incident
C) Wear standard firefighting structure gear at all incidents
D) Fight fire passively, providing for exposure protection first
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75
Which of the following BEST describes open communication?
A) It is a step taken to prepare for a blitz attack.
B) It is not meant as an opportunity for a debate or vote.
C) It allows firefighters to influence the selection of attack tactics.
D) It is a way to communicate the situation to other responding units.
A) It is a step taken to prepare for a blitz attack.
B) It is not meant as an opportunity for a debate or vote.
C) It allows firefighters to influence the selection of attack tactics.
D) It is a way to communicate the situation to other responding units.
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76
Which of the following BEST describes what the size and quantity of hoselines can impact on-scene?
A) The need for other resources.
B) The location of apparatus on-scene.
C) The use of the two-in, two-out rule.
D) The need to pump hoselines from a hydrant.
A) The need for other resources.
B) The location of apparatus on-scene.
C) The use of the two-in, two-out rule.
D) The need to pump hoselines from a hydrant.
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77
A Firefighter II should use additional training to:
A) predict victim responses to on-scene hazards.
B) open a debate on the best attack strategy to use.
C) gather votes from others on-scene to select attack strategies.
D) recognize and predict the effects of changes on surroundings.
A) predict victim responses to on-scene hazards.
B) open a debate on the best attack strategy to use.
C) gather votes from others on-scene to select attack strategies.
D) recognize and predict the effects of changes on surroundings.
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78
Which of the following BEST describes where search patterns are started?
A) In areas where other exposures are at risk.
B) Where specialized equipment can be used easily.
C) Where the fewest number of victims are located.
D) In the area closest to the fire if it will not put firefighters at risk of severe injury.
A) In areas where other exposures are at risk.
B) Where specialized equipment can be used easily.
C) Where the fewest number of victims are located.
D) In the area closest to the fire if it will not put firefighters at risk of severe injury.
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79
Which method for attacking ground cover fires is used at varying distances from the advancing fire?
A) Direct attack
B) Indirect attack
C) Offensive attack
D) Defensive attack
A) Direct attack
B) Indirect attack
C) Offensive attack
D) Defensive attack
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80
What Command approach is used when the problem is not obvious to the first-arriving unit?
A) Formal
B) Combat
C) Fast-attack
D) Nothing showing
A) Formal
B) Combat
C) Fast-attack
D) Nothing showing
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