Deck 20: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System and Eyes

Question 1

Which of the following is a frequent cause of meningitis in newborns?

A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) Streptococcus agalactiae
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
E) Listeria monocytogenes

Answer 1

C

Question 2

All of the following are true statements concerning leprosy EXCEPT:

A) Long- term antimicrobial treatment is usually necessary.
B) Humans are the only natural hosts.
C) It develops in the cooler regions of the body.
D) It is difficult to transmit.
E) Diagnosis rests on signs and symptoms, accompanied by microscopic evaluation of specimens.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

The optic nerves are an example of which of the following?

A) spinal nerves
B) motor nerves
C) sensory nerves
D) synaptic nerves
E) mixed nerves

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Nervous system control of voluntary muscles, perception, and thought is localized in the

A) meninges.
B) spinal cord.
C) cerebrum.
D) brain stem.
E) cerebellum.

Question 5

Which of the following produces the most deadly bacterial toxins known?

A) Mycobacterium leprae
B) Clostridium tetani
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
E) Clostridium botulinum

Question 6

All of the following are functions of the meninges EXCEPT:

A) barriers to the spread of infections.
B) protection from external shock.
C) support for the brain and spinal cord.
D) Both B and C are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.

Question 7

All of the following are ways in which pathogens can gain access to the central nervous system EXCEPT:

A) dendritic transport.
B) breaks in the meninges.
C) via spinal taps.
D) distortion of the blood- brain barrier.
E) axonal transport.

Question 8

Tetanus vaccine contains

A) fragments of C. tetani cell walls.
B) antibodies against C. tetani endospores.
C) inactivated tetanospasmin.
D) antibodies against C. tetani.
E) inactivated C. tetani endospores.

Question 9

All of the following are true statements concerning botulism EXCEPT:

A) It is not usually a true infection.
B) Antimicrobial drugs are used in the treatment of all forms of botulism.
C) Death occurs from paralysis of the diaphragm.
D) Transmission can be prevented by destruction of Clostridium endospores.
E) Botulism toxin is the deadliest toxin known.

Question 10

Hansen's disease is caused by

A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) Mycobacterium leprae.
C) Streptococcus agalactiae.
D) prions.
E) coxsackie A virus.

Question 11

Which of the following causative agents of meningitis requires heme and NAD+ for its growth?

A) Neisseria meningitidis
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Haemophilus influenzae
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 12

Which of the following are considered normal microbiota of the central nervous system?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Streptococcus agalactiae
E) None of the above

Question 13

All of the following are true statements concerning tetanus EXCEPT:

A) It is transmitted via endospores.
B) It is synonymous with lockjaw.
C) Death can result from respiratory failure.
D) Diagnosis depends on isolation of the pathogen from specimens.
E) The pathogen stays localized at the site of infection.

Question 14

Which of the following causative agents of bacterial meningitis is transmitted by contaminated food?

A) Streptococcus agalactiae
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Listeria monocytogenes
E) Neisseria meningitidis

Question 15

The only type of bacterial meningitis that becomes epidemic is caused by

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B) Haemophilus influenzae.
C) Neisseria meningitidis.
D) Streptococcus agalactiae.
E) Listeria monocytogenes.

Question 16

How does tetanospasmin act?

A) It induces nervous system proteins to fold into abnormal shapes.
B) It is a pyrogenic toxin.
C) It blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS.
D) It triggers the endocytosis of skeletal muscle cells.
E) It blocks the secretion of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.

Question 17

Which of the following is the least common cause of bacterial meningitis?

A) Streptococcus agalactiae
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Neisseria meningitidis
D) Listeria monocytogenes
E) Haemophilus influenzae

Question 18

Which of the following would be found in a synaptic cleft?

A) neurotransmitters
B) cell bodies
C) axons
D) neurons
E) ganglia

Question 19

All of the following are associated with Neisseria meningitidis EXCEPT:

A) no vaccines are available yet.
B) transmission by inhalation of respiratory droplets.
C) a polysaccharide capsule and fimbriae are important virulence factors.
D) close to 100% mortality in untreated patients.
E) the organism typically appears as a diplococcus.

Question 20

Which of the following stimulates the endocytosis of Streptococcus pneumoniae by body cells?

A) pneumolysin
B) phosphorylcholine
C) fimbriae
D) secretory IgA protease
E) a polysaccharide capsule

Question 21

The least common type of polio is

A) nonparalytic polio.
B) asymptomatic infections.
C) paralytic polio.
D) minor polio.
E) postpolio syndrome.

Question 22

Listeria monocytogenes virulence is directly related to its ability to

A) resist most antimicrobial agents.
B) live and reproduce inside its host's cells.
C) produce a powerful toxin.
D) produce a polysaccharide capsule.
E) form endospores.

Question 23

Human diploid cell vaccine is used to prevent polio.

Question 24

Fungi rarely infect the CNS.

Question 25

In trachoma, which of the following becomes scarred and filled with blood vessels, resulting in blindness?

A) the cornea
B) the retina
C) the fibrous tunic
D) the sclera
E) the conjunctiva

Question 26

All of the following would be effective ways to prevent arboviral encephalitis EXCEPT:

A) limiting contact with infected birds.
B) use of mosquito netting.
C) use of insecticides.
D) elimination of stagnant water.
E) use of insect repellent containing DEET.

Question 27

All of the following are true statements concerning cryptococcal meningitis EXCEPT:

A) The causative agent produces a capsule that is antiphagocytic.
B) People who work around areas where birds roost are at an increased risk for infection.
C) There are two variant forms of the causative agent.
D) The early signs and symptoms of the disease are similar to those of bacterial meningitis.
E) Antimicrobial therapy usually eliminates the pathogen from the body.

Question 28

Poliovirus is most often transmitted via

A) mosquitoes.
B) household pets.
C) endospores.
D) droplets.
E) contaminated water.

Question 29

Cryptococcal meningitis can affect both healthy and immunocompromised individuals.

Question 30

Which of the following causes of meningitis is NOT an enterovirus?

A) echovirus
B) coxsackie A virus
C) coxsackie B virus
D) West Nile virus
E) All of these are enteroviruses.

Question 31

Which of the following is classified as a spongiform encephalopathy?

A) new variant Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease
B) Hansen's disease
C) African sleeping sickness
D) botulism
E) arboviral encephalitis

Question 32

All of the following diseases can be fatal if untreated EXCEPT:

A) trachoma.
B) tetanus.
C) primary amebic meningoencephalopathy.
D) rabies.
E) leprosy.

Question 33

Birds are the natural hosts associated with all of the following diseases EXCEPT:

A) West Nile encephalitis.
B) Eastern equine encephalitis.
C) Western equine encephalitis.
D) St. Louis encephalitis.
E) Venezuelan equine encephalitis.

Question 34

All of the following are true statements concerning viral meningitis EXCEPT:

A) Incidence of the disease tends to be seasonal.
B) Treatment involves administration of antiviral drugs.
C) Viremia is an important aspect of pathogenesis.
D) Ninety percent of cases are caused by one group of viruses.
E) It can be transmitted via respiratory droplets and feces.

Question 35

An example of a spongiform encephalopathy is mad cow disease.

Question 36

All of the following are characteristics of the oral polio vaccine EXCEPT:

A) It is easy to administer.
B) It cannot cause polio.
C) It produces lifelong immunity.
D) It results in contact immunity.
E) It is more expensive than the inactivated polio vaccine.

Question 37

Trypanosoma brucei infections are characterized by cyclic waves of parasitemia that occur roughly every 7 to10 days.

Question 38

Tsetse flies transmit

A) new variant Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease.
B) St. Louis encephalitis.
C) Venezuelan equine encephalitis.
D) trachoma.
E) African sleeping sickness.

Question 39

New variant Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease can be prevented by avoiding

A) contact with bird droppings.
B) contact with mosquitoes.
C) contaminated waterways.
D) consumption of undercooked meat.
E) consumption of contaminated meat.

Question 40

All of the following are true statements concerning rabies EXCEPT:

A) It is caused by an ssRNA virus.
B) Bats are the source of most cases of rabies in humans.
C) All mammals can serve as a reservoir for the disease.
D) The infection can be treated with active immunization.
E) Transmission is usually via a bite from a rabid animal.

Question 41

Tetanospasmin is released from C. tetani cells as long as they are alive.

Question 42

The neurotoxins of Clostridium botulinum produce paralysis by preventing muscle contractions.

Question 43

Contact lens solution, swimming pools, and dialysis units can be a source of a fatal nervous system disease called .

Question 44

Wild- type poliomyelitis has occurred as recently as 2001 in the Americas.

Question 45

The binding of the neurotransmitter to its receptors on muscle cells causes a muscle to contract.

Question 46

Infection of the brain, called , is a consequence of some cases of bacterial meningitis.

Question 47

C. botulinum can grow in the intestinal tracts of both infants and adults.

Question 48

Negri bodies are a characteristic microscopic finding in the diagnosis of .

Question 49

The , a membrane lining areas of the eye such as the back side of the eyelids, is often infected by
Haemophilus influenzae.

Question 50

The oral polio vaccine (OPV) was developed by _ .

Question 51

Cryptococcus inhibits phagocytic killing mechanisms by the production of .

Question 52

Infectious proteins called cause diseases such as scrapie and mad cow disease.

Question 53

syndrome occurs in 80% of polio patients 30 to 40 years after their original bout of poliomyelitis.

Question 54

Horses and humans are considered "dead- end" hosts for arboviruses.

Question 55

Meningitis caused by N. meningitidis often produces small subcutaneous hemorrhages called .

Question 56

Armadillos and humans are the only hosts for infection with the microbe .

Question 57

is an enzyme that allows Listeria monocytogenes to grow inside cells.

Question 58

Removal of CSF as a means of diagnosing bacterial meningitis is a procedure known as a(n) .

Question 59

Viral meningitis is usually more serious than bacterial meningitis.

Question 60

The presence of parasites in the blood, called _, is a defining feature of African sleeping sickness.

Question 61

Discuss the two types of poliovirus vaccines available, including the advantages and disadvantages of each.

Question 62

How does infection with Clostridium tetani produce the characteristic muscle contractions of tetanus?

Question 63

Compare and contrast the three types of botulism.

Question 64

Describe the pathogenesis associated with Trypanosoma brucei that makes it impossible for infected individuals to ever become immune to the pathogen.

Question 65

Describe how Chlamydia trachomatis causes blindness.