Deck 18: Aids and Other Immune Disorders
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Deck 18: Aids and Other Immune Disorders
1
Which of the following combinations would cause a transfusion reaction?
A) a person with type AB blood receiving type A blood
B) a person with type A blood receiving type O blood
C) a person with type A blood donating to a person with type AB blood
D) a person with type O blood receiving type A blood
E) a person with type B blood donating to a person with type AB blood
A) a person with type AB blood receiving type A blood
B) a person with type A blood receiving type O blood
C) a person with type A blood donating to a person with type AB blood
D) a person with type O blood receiving type A blood
E) a person with type B blood donating to a person with type AB blood
D
2
Which of the following causes graft- versus- host disease?
A) kidney transplant
B) bone marrow transplant
C) an Rh- positive fetus in the uterus of an Rh- positive mother
D) skin transplant from one location in the body to another, or from one identical twin to another
E) cornea transplant
A) kidney transplant
B) bone marrow transplant
C) an Rh- positive fetus in the uterus of an Rh- positive mother
D) skin transplant from one location in the body to another, or from one identical twin to another
E) cornea transplant
B
3
Which antibody can cross the placenta and cause hemolytic disease of the newborn?
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) IgA
E) IgD
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) IgA
E) IgD
B
4
If a recipient has preexisting antibodies to foreign blood group antigens that are donated, which of the following would NOT happen?
A) The antibodies would agglutinate the donor cells.
B) Hemolysis would take place.
C) The donated cells would function normally.
D) The antibodies would bind to the donated cells and cause them to be phagocytized.
E) The cells would be destroyed immediately.
A) The antibodies would agglutinate the donor cells.
B) Hemolysis would take place.
C) The donated cells would function normally.
D) The antibodies would bind to the donated cells and cause them to be phagocytized.
E) The cells would be destroyed immediately.
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5
Which of the following bind to the constant region of IgE?
A) mast cells
B) basophils
C) eosinophils
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
A) mast cells
B) basophils
C) eosinophils
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
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6
Which of the following contains inflammatory chemicals similar to those found in mast cells?
A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) lymphocytes
D) platelets
E) basophils
A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) lymphocytes
D) platelets
E) basophils
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7
Type I hypersensitivity reactions
A) can result in anaphylactic shock.
B) are rapid.
C) are associated with autoimmune diseases.
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) Both B and C are correct.
A) can result in anaphylactic shock.
B) are rapid.
C) are associated with autoimmune diseases.
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) Both B and C are correct.
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8
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
A) is difficult to prevent.
B) involves ABO blood groups.
C) involves IgM crossing the placenta.
D) results in bilirubin deposition in the brain.
E) causes the liver to break down.
A) is difficult to prevent.
B) involves ABO blood groups.
C) involves IgM crossing the placenta.
D) results in bilirubin deposition in the brain.
E) causes the liver to break down.
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9
Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced by plasma cells in response to an allergen?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgD
D) IgE
E) IgG
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgD
D) IgE
E) IgG
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10
What are haptens?
A) They are small molecules that only become antigens when they bind to larger molecules.
B) They do not react with antibodies, but instead with T cells.
C) They are the antigenic substances involved in transplant rejection.
D) They are large protein molecules that can trigger immune responses.
E) They trigger type III hypersensitivity.
A) They are small molecules that only become antigens when they bind to larger molecules.
B) They do not react with antibodies, but instead with T cells.
C) They are the antigenic substances involved in transplant rejection.
D) They are large protein molecules that can trigger immune responses.
E) They trigger type III hypersensitivity.
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11
Which of the following is a molecule NOT involved with the entry of HIV into cells?
A) CD4
B) HAART
C) CXCR4
D) CCR5
E) DC- SIGN
A) CD4
B) HAART
C) CXCR4
D) CCR5
E) DC- SIGN
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12
Which of the following is a special case of Type IV hypersensitivity?
A) dermatitis at the site of a metal watch band
B) itchy eyes and a runny nose in a dusty environment
C) a rash caused by urushiol
D) rejection of a transplanted kidney
E) breaking into hives after eating strawberries
A) dermatitis at the site of a metal watch band
B) itchy eyes and a runny nose in a dusty environment
C) a rash caused by urushiol
D) rejection of a transplanted kidney
E) breaking into hives after eating strawberries
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13
Grafting skin from one area of the body to another area in order to cover a burn is considered a(n)
A) allograft.
B) autograft.
C) xenograft.
D) dermograft.
E) isograft.
A) allograft.
B) autograft.
C) xenograft.
D) dermograft.
E) isograft.
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14
HIV
A) contains positive single- stranded RNA.
B) infects B and T cells.
C) is a retrovirus.
D) Both A and C are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
A) contains positive single- stranded RNA.
B) infects B and T cells.
C) is a retrovirus.
D) Both A and C are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
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15
Which of the following is NOT caused by the release of histamine by degranulating mast cells?
A) eosinophilia
B) increased salivation and tear formation
C) contraction of the urinary bladder and the gastrointestinal tract
D) activation of complement
E) bronchial spasms
A) eosinophilia
B) increased salivation and tear formation
C) contraction of the urinary bladder and the gastrointestinal tract
D) activation of complement
E) bronchial spasms
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16
Which of the following is NOT true of poison ivy?
A) Eighty- five percent of the population experiences an allergic reaction.
B) The allergen is a hapten.
C) It causes allergic contact dermatitis.
D) The allergen is urushiol.
E) It is a type I hypersensitivity.
A) Eighty- five percent of the population experiences an allergic reaction.
B) The allergen is a hapten.
C) It causes allergic contact dermatitis.
D) The allergen is urushiol.
E) It is a type I hypersensitivity.
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17
Which of the following is NOT at least in part due to type III hypersensitivity?
A) systemic lupus erythematosus
B) hypersensitivity pneumonitis
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) glomerulonephritis
E) immune thrombocytopenic purpura
A) systemic lupus erythematosus
B) hypersensitivity pneumonitis
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) glomerulonephritis
E) immune thrombocytopenic purpura
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18
What is the function of the proteases released when mast cells degranulate?
A) contraction of smooth muscle in the lungs and gastrointestinal tract
B) stimulation of nerve endings, causing itching and pain
C) increased production of tears and saliva
D) increased vascular permeability
E) destruction of nearby cells and activation of the complement system
A) contraction of smooth muscle in the lungs and gastrointestinal tract
B) stimulation of nerve endings, causing itching and pain
C) increased production of tears and saliva
D) increased vascular permeability
E) destruction of nearby cells and activation of the complement system
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19
Which of the following statements concerning the Rh factor is incorrect?
A) Preexisting antibodies do not occur.
B) It is an antibody found in humans and rhesus monkeys.
C) It is present on the surface of the red blood cells of 85% of humans.
D) Eighty- five percent of the population is Rh negative.
E) Rh antibodies are less abundant than the ABO antibodies.
A) Preexisting antibodies do not occur.
B) It is an antibody found in humans and rhesus monkeys.
C) It is present on the surface of the red blood cells of 85% of humans.
D) Eighty- five percent of the population is Rh negative.
E) Rh antibodies are less abundant than the ABO antibodies.
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20
Which of the following is NOT true concerning development of an HIV vaccine or problems with one?
A) An HIV vaccine must be able to induce IgG production.
B) HIV forms, and spreads through, syncytia.
C) HIV infects many of the cells responsible for fighting infections.
D) HIV is a highly mutable virus.
E) HIV infects humans only, creating ethical and medical problems.
A) An HIV vaccine must be able to induce IgG production.
B) HIV forms, and spreads through, syncytia.
C) HIV infects many of the cells responsible for fighting infections.
D) HIV is a highly mutable virus.
E) HIV infects humans only, creating ethical and medical problems.
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21
Which of the following is NOT seen in systemic lupus erythematosus?
A) swelling and thickening of the joints
B) deposition of immune complexes in skin, especially when exposed to sunlight
C) glomerulonephritis and kidney failure
D) a butterfly- shaped rash on the face
E) development of autoantibodies to nucleic acids
A) swelling and thickening of the joints
B) deposition of immune complexes in skin, especially when exposed to sunlight
C) glomerulonephritis and kidney failure
D) a butterfly- shaped rash on the face
E) development of autoantibodies to nucleic acids
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22
The tuberculin response is an example of allergic contact dermatitis.
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23
Mast cells are specialized relatives of white blood cells.
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24
Which of the following statements concerning rheumatoid arthritis is incorrect?
A) Possession of certain MHC genes appears to promote susceptibility.
B) It may follow infection in genetically susceptible individuals.
C) The symptoms seen are due to the production of autoantibodies that attack the collagen in joints.
D) It leads to inflammation and destruction of the joints.
E) It occurs in humans and animals.
A) Possession of certain MHC genes appears to promote susceptibility.
B) It may follow infection in genetically susceptible individuals.
C) The symptoms seen are due to the production of autoantibodies that attack the collagen in joints.
D) It leads to inflammation and destruction of the joints.
E) It occurs in humans and animals.
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25
If a T cell is exposed to a hidden antigen, what kind of immune reaction will result?
A) allergic contact dermatitis
B) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
C) a cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
D) an autoimmune disease
E) an allergy
A) allergic contact dermatitis
B) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
C) a cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
D) an autoimmune disease
E) an allergy
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26
Which of the following helps convert HIV into its final, virulent form?
A) gp120
B) integrase
C) protease
D) reverse transcriptase
E) gp41
A) gp120
B) integrase
C) protease
D) reverse transcriptase
E) gp41
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27
Which of the following is NOT used to produce immunosuppression?
A) corticosteroids
B) brequinar sodium
C) cyclophosphamide
D) antihistamines
E) azathioprine
A) corticosteroids
B) brequinar sodium
C) cyclophosphamide
D) antihistamines
E) azathioprine
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28
Which of the following cells are NOT involved in an allergic reaction?
A) macrophages
B) basophils
C) B lymphocyctes
D) mast cells
E) eosinophils
A) macrophages
B) basophils
C) B lymphocyctes
D) mast cells
E) eosinophils
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29
Theories explaining the development of autoimmune diseases involve all of the following EXCEPT:
A) the exposure of hidden antigens to the immune system.
B) genetic factors.
C) the development of anaphylactic shock.
D) fetal cells that cross the placenta.
E) the influence of estrogen in stimulating cytotoxic T cells to destroy tissue.
A) the exposure of hidden antigens to the immune system.
B) genetic factors.
C) the development of anaphylactic shock.
D) fetal cells that cross the placenta.
E) the influence of estrogen in stimulating cytotoxic T cells to destroy tissue.
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30
Of the following, who would test positive for the tuberculin response?
A) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine
B) someone who has previously had tuberculosis
C) someone who has been previously injected subcutaneously with tuberculin but tested negative initially
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) Both B and C are correct.
A) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine
B) someone who has previously had tuberculosis
C) someone who has been previously injected subcutaneously with tuberculin but tested negative initially
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) Both B and C are correct.
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31
Normally, complement- activating immune complexes are eliminated from the body by phagocytosis.
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32
All of the following statements are true of cyclosporine EXCEPT:
A) It is sometimes used in combination with steroids.
B) It is produced by fungi.
C) It is active on resting and activated T cells.
D) It is less toxic than cyclophosphamide.
E) It is a type of immunophilin.
A) It is sometimes used in combination with steroids.
B) It is produced by fungi.
C) It is active on resting and activated T cells.
D) It is less toxic than cyclophosphamide.
E) It is a type of immunophilin.
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33
The tuberculin response is mediated by
A) mast cells.
B) plasma cells.
C) memory T cells.
D) B lymphocytes.
E) eosinophils.
A) mast cells.
B) plasma cells.
C) memory T cells.
D) B lymphocytes.
E) eosinophils.
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34
Which condition occurs when antibodies bind to and stimulate cells that produce thyroid- stimulating hormone in the pituitary gland?
A) Graves' disease
B) DiGeorge syndrome
C) multiple sclerosis
D) farmer's lung
E) type I diabetes
A) Graves' disease
B) DiGeorge syndrome
C) multiple sclerosis
D) farmer's lung
E) type I diabetes
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35
Multiple sclerosis is
A) a genetic birth defect of the nervous system.
B) the formation of antibodies against transplanted tissue.
C) an autoimmune disease in which autoantibodies attack the myelin sheath of neurons.
D) the development of neurological disease due to the deposition of immune complexes in nerves.
E) a type of allergy to myelin.
A) a genetic birth defect of the nervous system.
B) the formation of antibodies against transplanted tissue.
C) an autoimmune disease in which autoantibodies attack the myelin sheath of neurons.
D) the development of neurological disease due to the deposition of immune complexes in nerves.
E) a type of allergy to myelin.
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36
In most cases, production of antibodies against foreign ABO antigens is stimulated by exposure to foreign blood cells.
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37
Acquired immunodeficiency diseases are
A) possibly caused by malnutrition.
B) often associated with genetic defects.
C) developed later in life.
D) Both A and C are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
A) possibly caused by malnutrition.
B) often associated with genetic defects.
C) developed later in life.
D) Both A and C are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.
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38
All of the following involve type III hypersensitivity EXCEPT:
A) the tuberculin test.
B) systemic lupus erythematosus.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) glomerulonephritis.
E) farmer's lung.
A) the tuberculin test.
B) systemic lupus erythematosus.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) glomerulonephritis.
E) farmer's lung.
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39
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura is
A) a drug- induced cytotoxic reaction.
B) a cell- mediated immune reaction.
C) a type of immunodeficiency.
D) an autoimmune disease.
E) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction.
A) a drug- induced cytotoxic reaction.
B) a cell- mediated immune reaction.
C) a type of immunodeficiency.
D) an autoimmune disease.
E) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction.
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40
The uterus is a privileged site that prevents allograft rejection.
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41
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a disease resulting from loss of control of cell- mediated and humoral immunity.
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42
All body secretions of AIDS patients contain HIV, but not all of these secretions are infectious.
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43
AIDS is actually a group of signs, symptoms, and diseases associated with a common pathology, otherwise known as a(n) .
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44
When bone marrow is transplanted, the donated bone marrow cells regard the patient's cells as foreign, a condition referred to as disease.
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45
Binding of IgE to the surface of sensitized cells leads to of the cell, releasing many inflammatory chemicals.
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46
When the donor's blood group antigens stimulate the production of antibodies in the recipient, reactions occur.
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47
Graves' disease is an autoimmune disease that affects the .
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48
Type I hypersensitivity reactions are also commonly known as .
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49
Early embryos express MHC class I and II molecules on the placental layer in contact with the mother's tissue.
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50
One feature of hemolytic disease of the newborn is excessive , which leads to jaundice in the newborn.
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51
As a result of the release of histamine into nearby tissues, an individual suffers large raised red areas called
.
.
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52
Drug "cocktails" used to treat AIDS are commonly known by the acronym .
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53
The released in an immediate hypersensitivity reaction lead to the destruction of nearby cells and the activation of the complement system.
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54
Before preventive measures were discovered, hemolytic disease of the newborn occurred in about 1 of every 300 births.
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55
HIV- 1 and HIV- 2 are equally distributed all over the world.
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56
Although autoantibodies to nucleic acids are characteristic of _, many other autoantibodies are produced.
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57
In cases of anaphylactic shock, should be administered.
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58
is a type III hypersensitivity reaction that results when B cells in the joints produce autoantibodies against collagen.
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59
When the release of chemicals in an allergic reaction exceeds the body's ability to adjust, a life- threatening condition called may occur.
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60
Immunological attack on the islets of Langerhans resulting in the inability to produce insulin leads to
.
.
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61
Describe the pathogenesis of AIDS.
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62
Compare and contrast type I hypersensitivity with type IV hypersensitivity with respect to reaction time, mediators, and cells involved.
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63
Because the antigens of a fetus differ from those of its mother, why does rejection of the fetus not take place?
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64
What is an autoimmune disease? How might it arise?
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65
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is the tuberculin response?
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