Deck 17: Immunization and Immune Testing

Question 1

All of the following statements are true of variolation EXCEPT:

A) It involves grinding smallpox scabs.
B) It reduced the incidence of smallpox.
C) At the time no one knew how it worked.
D) It was administered to children as early as the 12th century.
E) It was risk free.

Answer 1

E

Question 2

What makes vaccinia virus useful as a basis for a recombinant vaccine?

A) It does not contain DNA.
B) It has a large genome.
C) It is a type of poxvirus.
D) It has few antigens of its own.
E) It can be produced in bacteria.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

By the 1900s there were vaccines for all of the following EXCEPT:

A) rabies.
B) anthrax.
C) smallpox.
D) hepatitis.
E) measles.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Killed vaccines work by stimulating

A) the production of memory cells.
B) the cell- mediated immune response.
C) the action of Th1 cells.
D) a humoral immune repsonse.
E) cytotoxic T cells.

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT associated with hybridomas?

A) clones
B) continuous cell division
C) myelomas
D) monoclonal antibodies
E) anti- antibodies

Question 6

All the following statements apply to toxoids EXCEPT:

A) They stimulate antibody- mediated immune responses.
B) They are produced against the toxin of the microorganism rather than the microorganism itself.
C) They have few antigenic determinants.
D) They provide lifelong immunity.
E) They are chemically or thermally modified.

Question 7

The most common method of attenuating a microbe for use in a vaccine is

A) culturing under unusual circumstances.
B) addition of adjuvants.
C) genetic manipulation.
D) replication for many generations.
E) treatment with formaldehyde.

Question 8

OPV, the attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine, is no longer administered because

A) it can cause clinical poliomyelitis in some vaccinated individuals.
B) the site of administration remains sore for many days after administration.
C) it can cause severe anaphylaxis in some individuals.
D) it is very toxic.
E) it does not provide good immunity.

Question 9

Passive immunity is used when

A) the attenuated live vaccine is too difficult to produce.
B) protection against a recent infection or disease is needed immediately.
C) the pathogen does not produce a toxin.
D) the microorganism can be genetically manipulated.
E) a representative antigen for the microbe cannot be isolated.

Question 10

What is the most efficient and cost- effective way to control infectious diseases?

A) immune testing
B) variolation
C) active immunization by vaccination
D) passive immunization using immunoglobulins
E) autoimmunization

Question 11

Which of the following substances is NOT used as an adjuvant?

A) aluminum
B) saponin
C) formaldehyde
D) aluminum phosphate
E) mineral oil

Question 12

Contact immunity is possible with which of the following?

A) toxoid vaccines
B) modified live vaccines
C) whole agent vaccines
D) subunit vaccines
E) All of the above produce contact immunity.

Question 13

An adjuvant is a substance that

A) is a piece of a microbe that is representive of the entire microorganism.
B) increases the effective antigenicity of a pathogen.
C) delays the action of the vaccine.
D) is used to decrease the inflammatory reaction to a vaccine.
E) is used to inactivate a microbe in a vaccine.

Question 14

The discovery and use of has greatly decreased the mortality and morbidity of infectious diseases.

A) interleukins
B) interferons
C) immunoglobulins
D) chemotaxic substances
E) antitoxoids

Question 15

Which of the following types of adjuvants stimulates T cell responses?

A) saponin
B) Freund's complete adjuvant
C) mineral oil
D) Both A and B are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct.

Question 16

Which of the following vaccines is not recommended for the general population in the United States?

A) the hepatitis B vaccine
B) the polio vaccine
C) the influenza vaccine
D) the BCG vaccine
E) the pertussis vaccine

Question 17

Variolation was first used

A) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox.
B) to treat individuals exposed to hepatitis.
C) to spread smallpox throughout the Native American populations.
D) to protect individuals against the plague during the Middle Ages.
E) for research purposes in the twentieth century.

Question 18

An inactivated vaccine has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

A) it is made from pathogens that cannot replicate.
B) it is made from mutated forms of the pathogen.
C) it can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms.
D) it can be produced from antigenic fragments of a pathogen.
E) it is safer than an attenuated vaccine.

Question 19

All the following are limitations to the use of antisera EXCEPT:

A) they may be contaminated with viral antigens.
B) multiple uses could cause anaphylaxis.
C) they provide passive immunity.
D) they contain antibodies against many different antigens.
E) the antibodies to antisera are degraded rapidly in the recipient.

Question 20

Antivenin is

A) a vaccine produced against the endotoxin of a bacterium.
B) an antiserum produced from hybridomas.
C) an antigen produced from a virus.
D) an antitoxin used to treat snakebites.
E) a vaccine produced against the endotoxin of a virus.

Question 21

Which of the following tests is used to verify the presence of antibodies against the HIV virus?

A) an antibody neutralization test
B) electrophoresis only
C) the western blot test
D) the Wasserman test
E) the fluorescent antibody test

Question 22

The study and diagnosis of antigen- antibody interactions in the blood is known as

A) immunology.
B) histology.
C) hematology.
D) cytology.
E) serology.

Question 23

For some bacterial diseases, such as tetanus, it is more effective to produce an immune response against the bacterial toxin than against the bacteria.

Question 24

In precipitation tests, maximum precipitation takes place when

A) a complex solution of many antibodies is used.
B) the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions.
C) the amount of the antigen exceeds the amount of the antibody.
D) the amount of the antibody exceeds the amount of the antigen.
E) a toxin is present.

Question 25

The type of ELISA that is most commonly performed

A) is used as a second verification test for HIV.
B) involves an antigen "sandwiched" in between two antibodies.
C) detects the presence of a particular antibody.
D) relies on the presence of complement.
E) uses a fluorescent label.

Question 26

The process of reducing the virulence of a microbe is known as agglutination.

Question 27

Viral neutralization testing is based on the fact that

A) antibodies to certain microbes can be given a fluorescent label.
B) antibodies have different molecular weights.
C) antibodies can be produced against the toxin of a pathogen.
D) the gene for a pathogen's antigen can be isolated and introduced into a host cell by way of a plasmid.
E) viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect.

Question 28

The advantages of the ELISA test include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) the label used is a dye.
B) it can detect either the antibody or the antigen.
C) it can quantify the amount of antibody or antigen.
D) plates coated with antigen and gelatin can be stored for testing.
E) it is easy to perform.

Question 29

Scientists commonly use radial immunodiffusion testing to

A) diagnose infections by specific strains of viruses.
B) measure the concentration of specific antibodies in a person's serum.
C) diagnose HIV.
D) inactivate an endogenous bacterial toxin.
E) diagnose tuberculosis, because the diameter of the wheel corresponds to the severity of the infection.

Question 30

Which of the following diagnostic procedures depends on precipitation of an antigen- antibody complex?

A) blood typing
B) fluorescent antibody tests
C) viral hemagglutination inhibition tests used to diagnose viral infections
D) the Wasserman test for syphilis
E) immunoelectrophoresis

Question 31

Which of the following is NOT a component of a western blot?

A) blotting
B) electrophoresis
C) ELISA
D) colloidal gold
E) All of these are components of a western blot.

Question 32

Edward Jenner was the physician who first used cowpox to vaccinate individuals against smallpox.

Question 33

Rabies is diagnosed using

A) complement fixation.
B) immunoelectrophoresis.
C) a western blot test.
D) a viral hemagglutination test.
E) a direct fluorescent antibody test.

Question 34

A positive result for the complement fixation test would be

A) most similar to hemagglutination.
B) a visible pink or blue line on a porous strip.
C) a line of precipitation.
D) a ring of precipitation.
E) a solution that is cloudy throughout.

Question 35

The presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis can be detected in sputum by the

A) indirect fluorescent antibody test.
B) hemagglutination test.
C) direct fluorescent antibody test.
D) complement fixation test.
E) ELISA test.

Question 36

In the body, phagocytic cells cannot easily remove small immune complexes.

Question 37

How is immunoelectrophoresis better than immunodiffusion?

A) It is cheaper.
B) It does not involve precipitation.
C) It has improved resolution.
D) It is faster.
E) It does not require antiserum.

Question 38

All of the following statements are true of direct fluorescence antibody testing EXCEPT:

A) It uses a dye.
B) It is used to detect the presence of antigen.
C) The enzyme reacts with substrate to produce the fluorescence.
D) Labeled antibodies are used.
E) It is not a quantitative test.

Question 39

Titration is a serological procedure that

A) identifies the causative microbe of an infectious disease.
B) has been replaced by genetic engineering in isolating the antigen of a pathogen.
C) is used for blood grouping.
D) must be done before the western blot test to diagnose HIV.
E) determines the amount of an antibody in the blood.

Question 40

Because attenuated live vaccines contain viruses that are less virulent, many booster vaccines must be given to produce good immunity.

Question 41

involves the clumping of insoluble particles, whereas precipitation involves the aggregation of soluble molecules.

Question 42

are chemically or thermally modified toxins that are used for vaccination.

Question 43

Scientists commonly use radial immunodiffusion to measure the concentration of specific antibodies.

Question 44

For vaccines that do not provide lifelong immunity, must be given.

Question 45

One way to measure the antibody levels in the blood is by using agglutination tests.

Question 46

A type of labeled antibody test that involves the reaction of an enzyme with a substrate to produce a colored product is called a(n) .

Question 47

Complement fixation is a more sensitive test than agglutination.

Question 48

Vaccines that contain attenuated microbes are also known as _.

Question 49

Raising viruses for numerous generations can produce a(n) _ form of the virus.

Question 50

The rabies virus increases its virulence by prolonged culture in rabbit spinal cells.

Question 51

The Ouchterlony test is a type of immunodiffusion test.

Question 52

The Ouchterlony test is a(n) _ test.

Question 53

The residual virulence associated with _ _ led to discontinuing this type of polio vaccine in the United States.

Question 54

vaccines are produced with antigenic fragments of a microbe.

Question 55

The fusion of antibody- producing plasma cells with cancerous cells produces that divide continuously.

Question 56

Deliberate infection of young children with particles of ground smallpox scabs from children who had survived mild cases of smallpox was known as .

Question 57

are used to treat snakebites.

Question 58

When vaccinated individuals infect those around them, this is a phenomenon called immunity.

Question 59

Materials that are added to a vaccine to increase the effective antigenicity are known as _.

Question 60

Immunoelectrophoresis can detect only a single antigen.

Question 61

What is the complement fixation test and what can it be used for? Describe the steps involved in the test.

Question 62

What is the best serological test to confirm infection with the HIV virus? How is it performed?

Question 63

What is an antiserum? What are the limitations on its uses?

Question 64

What are the different types of vaccination materials?

Question 65

How has modern technology helped produce new types of vaccines?