Deck 18: Nutrition Intervention

Question 1

In what section of an ADIME chart note would the dietitian record his or her plans for treating the patient's nutrition problems?

A)A
B)D
C)I
D)ME

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Providing referrals to local agencies and arranging transfer of nutrition care to another location are examples of

A)nutrition counseling.
B)coordination of nutrition care.
C)nutrition education.
D)all of the above

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following is not included in a patient's medical chart?

A)Patient's health history
B)Personal opinions regarding the patient's attitude
C)Assessments, diagnoses, and prognoses
D)Results of tests and treatments

Answer 3

B

Question 4

When a regular diet fails to meet the nutrient needs of a client, a _____ is used.

A)standard diet
B)nutrition care plan
C)modified diet
D)nursing diagnosis

Question 5

When long-term dietary changes are necessary, a nutrition care plan must take into account the patient's:

A)current food habits.
B)lifestyle.
C)degree of motivation.
D)all of the above

Question 6

A _____ diet is changed to meet the nutritional and medical needs of a client.

A)modified
B)standard
C)progressive
D)liquid

Question 7

Which of the following is true regarding the ADIME format for documenting nutrition care?

A)Closely reflects the nutrition care process
B)Oldest charting method for nutrition care used
C)The "D" stands for "diet prescription"
D)All of the above

Question 8

Is it important to monitor the progress of clients on a nutrition care plan on a regular basis?

A)Yes, because the plan may need to be changed or revised.
B)Yes, because the client may need a review of the nutrition education.
C)No, because responses to nutrition care plans are basically the same.
D)No, because the desired response will develop eventually.

Question 9

What does the "S" stand for in the SOAP note charting format?

A)Symptom
B)Standard
C)Subjective
D)Selective

Question 10

Electronic data systems used to house medical records are characterized by

A)a lack of popularity among health care facilities.
B)reliance on hand-written chart notes.
C)flexibility in language used.
D)standardized templates.

Question 11

Which of the following must be considered when tailoring nutrition education to an individual's needs?

A)Age
B)Level of literacy
C)Cultural background
D)All of the above
E)a and c

Question 12

Miss.Keppler has lost her dentures during transfer.Which diet would be the best choice to help her meet her nutritional needs?

A)Tube feeding
B)Clear liquids
C)Mechanically altered diet
D)High-calorie, high-protein diet

Question 13

When planning nutrition education for a low-lactose diet, most likely a long-term dietary intervention, which of the following should be considered first?

A)The patient's physical activity patterns
B)The patient's understanding of the education
C)Whether milk is a common food in the patient's culture
D)All of the above

Question 14

Which of the following fulfills the purpose of following up on a nutrition care plan?

A)Comparing outcome measures to initial values
B)Reinforcing the importance of continuing to follow the plan despite changes in the patient's situation
C)Explaining that the plan should be continued to prevent disease progression even if the patient finds it unsatisfactory
D)None of the above

Question 15

You met with Susan Gray eight weeks ago to plan a weight-loss plan.At that time, Susan was 5'4" and weighed 185 lbs.She was instructed to eat a 1000-kcalorie diet.Today, Susan weighs 180 lbs.At this phase in the nutrition care process you would

A)assess her nutrition status.
B)redefine the nutrition-related problem.
C)evaluate the nutrition plan previously developed.
D)refer Susan to a weight-loss clinic.

Question 16

A document or electronic file used to record a client's history, assessment, treatment, and results of therapy is a(n)

A)medical record.
B)informal record.
C)diagnosis.
D)nutrition care plan.

Question 17

Which of the following is characteristic of a standard diet?

A)Results in reduced intake of fat and saturated fat
B)Includes all foods
C)Meets the nutrient needs of a normal, healthy individual
D)a and b
E)b and c

Question 18

Which section of the ADIME format would contain PES statements?

A)A
B)D
C)I
D)ME

Question 19

Which part of the SOAP note would include recommendations?

A)S
B)O
C)A
D)P

Question 20

To meet the specific needs of a client, a modified diet can be adjusted by

A)excluding certain foods.
B)changing the nutrient content.
C)altering food consistency.
D)all of the above

Question 21

Mrs.Greenbaum is suffering from kidney disease and experiencing edema.Which modified diet would be appropriate for her based on this information?

A)Fat-controlled diet
B)Sodium-controlled diet
C)High-kcalorie, high-protein diet
D)All of the above

Question 22

In most cases, on a sodium-controlled diet, the sodium level is restricted to _____ per day.

A)250-500 mg
B)500-1000 mg
C)2000-3000 mg
D)4000-5000 mg

Question 23

Kaitlyn is a nurse on the surgical unit.She monitors the number of patients on _____ daily because long-term use of either can cause malnutrition.

A)NPO and full liquid diets
B)NPO and clear liquid diets
C)tube feedings and parenteral nutrition
D)NPO and tube feedings

Question 24

In regards to a clear-liquid diet, which of the following statements is false?

A)The liquids require minimal digestion.
B)The liquids provide maximal stimulation to the GI tract.
C)The foods and clear fluids are liquid at room temperature.
D)This is often the first diet served after acute gastrointestinal illness.

Question 25

Most foods included in a fat-controlled diet have less than _____ of fat per serving.

A)10 grams
B)5 grams
C)1 gram
D)0 grams

Question 26

After surgery, the physician ordered Tina to be put on a clear liquid diet.The first food Tina would receive would be

A)bread.
B)eggs.
C)gelatin.
D)milk.

Question 27

A patient on a sodium-controlled diet has been observed ordering Chinese take-out only a few hours after his nutrition consult.The patient reports that a "little salt won't hurt me." The dietitian:

A)decides that the patient needs a stricter sodium-controlled diet.
B)concludes that providing a list of high sodium foods will help him.
C)suggests that he also add an exercise plan and more fiber to his current diet.
D)concludes that the patient is not ready to learn and implement the diet changes.

Question 28

Which of the following foods could be included in a blenderized liquid diet?

A)Apricots
B)Swiss cheese
C)Yogurt
D)Corn

Question 29

Which of the following foods should not be included in a fiber-restricted diet?

A)Applesauce
B)Watermelon
C)Raisins
D)White bread

Question 30

Burt has been placed on a fiber-restricted diet.Which food is included in his diet?

A)Poultry
B)Enriched rice
C)Bananas
D)All of the above
E)None of the above

Question 31

Which of the following foods should not be included in a mechanically-altered, ground or minced diet?

A)Cooked cream of wheat
B)Apricot nectar
C)Pretzels
D)Mashed potatoes

Question 32

Which food is excluded from a clear-liquid diet?

A)Bouillon
B)Fruit ice
C)Pudding
D)Sugar

Question 33

The process of changing the client's diet as his/her tolerance to food permits is called

A)NPO.
B)diet progression.
C)nutrition education.
D)a manual diet.

Question 34

Which of the following foods should not be included in a clear liquid diet?

A)Popsicles
B)Low-fat milk
C)Gelatin
D)Apple juice

Question 35

Fiber-restricted diets restrict all of the following except

A)whole-wheat bread.
B)chunky peanut butter.
C)buttermilk.
D)winter squash.

Question 36

Why are diets for dysphagia highly individualized?

A)Facility standards
B)Swallowing difficulties can vary greatly
C)Swallowing ability remains stable over time
D)b and c

Question 37

A sodium-controlled diet is often used to prevent fluid retention and may be recommended for the treatment of:

A)hyperglycemia.
B)congestive heart failure.
C)kidney disease.
D)a and b
E)b and c

Question 38

Which of the following might be restricted on a modified diet for a patient with symptoms of malabsorption?

A)Fat
B)Lactose
C)Dietary fiber
D)All of the above

Question 39

Liquid diets are often prescribed

A)following oral or facial surgeries.
B)for individuals with edema.
C)based on personal preference.
D)to assist with weight loss.

Question 40

For which of the following clients would diet progression be appropriate?

A)Betty, who just had gallbladder surgery and is being discharged on a standard diet
B)Jim, who has been on a clear liquid diet and now is ready to start eating solid foods again
C)Susan, who has been diagnosed with celiac disease and must exclude gluten from her diet
D)All of the above

Question 41

Your client is on a 1200-kcalorie, 2 grams sodium diet.You find each diet in the diet manual but not the combined diet.Where could you best find information regarding this diet?

A)The National Formulary
B)The client's physician
C)The client's dietitian
D)No resources; improvise

Question 42

A food poisoning outbreak is categorized by _____ or more cases of a similar illness, resulting from the ingestion of a common food.

A)2
B)3
C)5
D)10

Question 43

Mr.Whitaker is 5'8", weighs 145 lbs., and has been diagnosed with esophageal cancer.His hematocrit is 28 and his albumin level is 3.1 g/dL.Which of the following diets would assist in improving his nutrition status?

A)Mechanical soft diet
B)Fat-controlled diet
C)High-kcalorie, high-protein diet
D)Lactose-free diet

Question 44

Which of the following is not a benefit of using a selective menu?

A)It ensures that patients will receive the foods they prefer.
B)Patients become more familiar with the foods included in modified diets.
C)It's a cost savings to the foodservice department because fewer foods are served.
D)Choices a, b, and c are all benefits of using selective menus.

Question 45

Why are high-kcalorie, high-protein diets prescribed?

A)To reverse or prevent weight loss or muscle wasting
B)To promote heart health
C)To prevent chronic medical conditions
D)All of the above

Question 46

Common symptoms of foodborne illness caused by the Salmonella organism include all of the following except

A)diarrhea.
B)vomiting.
C)abdominal cramps.
D)low body temperature.

Question 47

Carrie Beal returns to her hospital room at 11 in the morning after an absence of two hours for multiple tests.She sees her breakfast tray.She is very hungry.What should her nurse do?

A)Take her tray away and order an early lunch tray
B)Let the patient eat the food from the tray
C)Heat up her tray in the microwave and then serve it
D)Get the patient some saltines

Question 48

A nurse was receiving new orders written in the patient chart.The order read, "NPO," which means

A)the patient will receive only beverages and medications.
B)the patient will receive only medications.
C)the patient will receive nothing by mouth.
D)the patient will receive anything orally.

Question 49

The objective of diet manuals is to

A)provide a description of foods allowed and restricted on a diet.
B)provide the rationale for modified diets.
C)provide a physician's statement of what diet a client should receive for the medical record.
D)a and b
E)b and c

Question 50

A patient with a high temperature complains of headache, stomach ache, fever, and vomiting.Upon questioning, he admits to eating several raw eggs the day before.The most likely organism causing these symptoms is

A)E.coli.
B)Salmonella.
C)Perfringens.
D)Campylobacter jejuni.

Question 51

A client has just been admitted to your unit at 11:30 PM on Saturday.He states he is hungry and wants something to eat.You note he is on a fat-controlled diet, but have questions regarding what is allowed.Your best resource at this time of night is the

A)diet manual.
B)client's physician.
C)client's dietitian.
D)nursing supervisor.

Question 52

Why are nonselective menus gaining popularity in hospital foodservice?

A)Greater educational value for patients on modified diets
B)Patient preference
C)May help cut costs
D)Require less training for foodservice employees

Question 53

Delivery of nutrient solutions directly into the vein is called

A)enteral nutrition.
B)modified nutrition.
C)parenteral nutrition.
D)tube feeding.

Question 54

Which of the following is not a reason why people in the hospital often lose their appetite?

A)As a result of their medical treatment or condition
B)Emotional distress
C)Arrival of meal trays at times when they are not hungry
D)Discomfort during HACCP procedures

Question 55

An institutional foodservice department is not generally responsible for

A)planning, producing, and delivering large numbers of nutritious meals.
B)compiling a resource to specify foods allowed or restricted in modified diets.
C)following the instructions in the diet manual when preparing meals for patients on modified diets.
D)serving the food items chosen on each patient's selective menu so that they receive the foods they prefer.

Question 56

Which of the following might be a potential problem if selective menus are used?

A)Patients may have difficulty seeing, reading, or understanding the menu.
B)Patients may be too ill or too disinterested to make menu selections.
C)Patients may not understand that their food selections will be for the next day.
D)All of the above

Question 57

The nurse is preparing one of her patients for lunchtime.She opens the tray and sees the patient's pureed food.The nurse:

A)tells the patient, "I hope you know what this is...it all looks like mush to me."
B)asks visitors to leave as they are distracting the patient.
C)asks the patient if he needs help with his meal.
D)turns off the lights and turns on the television.

Question 58

Mr.Brayden informs his nurse that he is very unhappy with the hospital food.He states that he never gets a menu and is sent food he does not like.The nurse tells him that the hospital follows a _____ and that she will have a representative from the foodservice department come to see him.

A)selective menu system
B)nonselective menu system
C)semi-selective menu system
D)NPO-selective menu system

Question 59

The industrial application of heat to inactivate most, but not all, bacteria in a food is commonly known as

A)sanitization.
B)sterilization.
C)pasteurization.
D)depathogenation.

Question 60

Which of the following foods are most associated with illness from Salmonella?

A)Raw fruits and vegetables
B)Pickled vegetables
C)Home-canned vegetables
D)Milk, poultry, and eggs

Question 61

You work part-time at a local diner and have noticed that there are a few questionable practices going on behind closed doors.An older employee tells you that the worst of these oversights is the workers' disregard for the "danger" zone.Which of the following applies to this employee's warning?

A)Keeping the freezer at 35° F
B)Serving raw seafood without proper cooking techniques
C)Keeping beef patties on a warm grill (125° F) for up to 3 hours
D)Not disposing of egg shells immediately after use and allowing them to sit on countertops

Question 62

A child is brought into the emergency room with breathing difficulties.He also has difficulty swallowing and speaking.The mother mentions that he ate some home-canned beans yesterday.You suspect microbiological food poisoning.The most likely toxin is

A)botulinum toxin.
B)giardiasis toxin.
C)Salmonella toxin.
D)campylobacteria toxin.

Question 63

Why is ground meat more susceptible to microbial contamination than non-ground meat?

A)It has more surface area
B)It is usually undercooked
C)It has a higher fat content
D)It is not inspected as often

Question 64

All of the following are characteristics of raw oyster consumption except

A)hot sauces can kill the viruses found in them.
B)some hot sauces can kill the bacteria found in them.
C)some people who drink alcohol are protected from oyster-borne illness.
D)people with weakened immune systems are especially vulnerable to oyster-borne illness.

Question 65

Clostridium botulinum poisoning is a hazard associated with

A)nitrosamines.
B)rotting vegetables.
C)undercooked poultry.
D)improperly canned vegetables.

Question 66

Which of the following produces the most common food toxin?

A)Salmonella
B)Escherichia coli
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Clostridium perfringens

Question 67

Which of the following is a characteristic of botulism illness?

A)It is rarely fatal and victims usually recover completely
B)It is caused by a toxic compound rather than by invasion of pathogenic bacteria
C)It is caused by ingestion of food contaminated with a combination of aflatoxin and mold
D)It most often occurs from eating foods that were stored under anaerobic conditions of high pH

Question 68

Which of the following is a characteristic of meat contamination?

A)A USDA seal of inspection insures the absence of most harmful bacteria
B)Consumers are not able to detect the presence of harmful bacteria by odor or taste
C)The presence of naturally occurring antibodies in meats slows the growth of harmful organisms
D)Ground meat is very resistant to contamination because of the high heat released by the grinding machines

Question 69

What system was developed by government regulatory agencies and the food industry to help identify and/or control food contamination and foodborne disease?

A)The Two-Forty-One-Forty rule
B)Safe Handling Certification Program
C)Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points
D)North American Residue Monitoring Program

Question 70

Which of the following is a characteristic of botulism?

A)A chief symptom is diarrhea
B)A full recovery may take years
C)It is caused by the organism Staphylococcus aureus
D)It is a toxicant produced in foods stored under aerobic conditions

Question 71

All of the following are rules to help prevent foodborne illness except

A)use your hands to mix foods.
B)thaw meats in the refrigerator.
C)use a meat thermometer to avoid undercooking.
D)use hot, soapy water to wash hands, utensils, and countertops.

Question 72

In cows infected with mad cow disease, which of the following tissues is generally free of the infectious agents?

A)Brain
B)Muscle
C)Intestines
D)Central nervous system

Question 73

To minimize the possibility of foodborne illness, hamburger should be cooked to an internal temperature (°F) of at least

A)125.
B)140.
C)160.
D)195.

Question 74

Which of the following practices is safest for minimizing microbial contamination of prepared foods?

A)Store food in a controlled atmosphere of chlorine bleach vapors
B)Restrict the food's exposure at room temperature to a maximum of 4-6 hours
C)Restrict the food's exposure at between 40° F and 140° F to a maximum of 2 hours
D)Store food under air-tight conditions at a temperature of 32° F for a maximum of 1 month

Question 75

Which of the following is an example of food intoxication?

A)Addition of alkaline and acidic agents to foods
B)Illness produced by acute overconsumption of high-fat foods
C)Addition of alcohol-containing beverages in the cooking of foods
D)Illness produced from ingestion of food contaminated with natural toxins

Question 76

Consumption of raw oysters is known to cause hepatitis type

A)A.
B)B.
C)C.
D)D.

Question 77

What is the minimum recommended safe temperature (°F) to heat leftovers?

A)140
B)152
C)165
D)180

Question 78

What unintended benefit is derived from the freezing of fish by the food industry?

A)The fish becomes tenderized
B)Mature parasitic worms are killed
C)Botulinum toxin becomes inactivated
D)The toxins from hepatitis A and B are destroyed

Question 79

What fraction of reported foodborne illnesses can be attributed to the food industry?

A)1/10
B)1/3
C)1/2
D)4/5

Question 80

All of the following are characteristics of oysters in the diet except

A)they are the primary factor in traveler's diarrhea.
B)eating them raw is a risk factor for some bacterial infections.
C)some oyster-borne microbes are destroyed when the consumer drinks alcohol.
D)many oyster-borne bacteria, but not viruses, are destroyed by some hot sauces.