Deck 6: Group Tests and Controversies in Ability Testing

Question 1

The Multidimensional Aptitude Battery is designed to be a paper-and-pencil equivalent of the

A) SB:FE
B) WAIS-R
C) K-ABC
D) Differential Aptitude Test

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which of the following is a feature that generally distinguishes a group test from an individual test of intelligence?

A) multiple choice format
B) used for screening
C) huge standardization samples
D) all of the above

Answer 2

D

Question 3

The internal consistency reliability of Multidimensional Aptitude Battery IQs is generally in the_______ .

A) .60s
B) .70s
C) .80s
D) .90s

Answer 3

.90s

Question 4

The test which now has a 9-item version of the standard 60-item test which is both psychometrically sound and correlated with the original test's full scale score in the .90- .98 range is the:

A) Scholastic Aptitude test
B) Multidimensional Aptitude Battery II
C) Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery
D) Raven's Progressive Matrices

Question 5

The Cognitive Abilities Test was standardized concurrently with

A) the Iowa Tests of Basic Skills
B) the Tests of Achievement and Proficiency
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b

Question 6

In recent factor analyses, what subtest was found not to load specifically on the Verbal Intelligence factor?

A) Similarities
B) Information
C) Comprehension
D) Arithmetic

Question 7

The Cognitive Abilities Test CogAT) is an) _______battery aimed to address a wide range of intellectual abilities in school children.

A) integrated
B) four-tiered
C) multilevel
D) none of the above

Question 8

Factor analyses of the Multidimensional Aptitude Battery reveal factors identifiable as________ .

A) 2, verbal and performance
B) 2, verbal and motor speed
C) 3, verbal, performance, and attention
D) 3, verbal, motor speed, and attention

Question 9

Which of the following is a subtest from the Multidimensional Aptitude Battery?

A) Absurdities
B) Spatial
C) Geometric Design
D) Digit Span

Question 10

The format for the Multidimensional Aptitude Battery is

A) multiple choice
B) true-False
C) short-answer objective items
D) none of the above

Question 11

Including instructions, the Multidimensional Aptitude Battery takes about______ minutes to administer.

A) 25
B) 50
C) 75
D) 100

Question 12

Which of the following is not considered a type of group test?

A) ability
B) projective
C) achievement
D) aptitude

Question 13

The subtests from the Multidimensional Aptitude Battery incorporate

A) power
B) speed
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b

Question 14

On the Cognitive Abilities Test, correlations among the verbal, quantitative, and nonverbal batteries are in the

A) .30s
B) .50s
C) .70s
D) .90s

Question 15

The subtests of the Cognitive Abilities Test are grouped into_____ batteries consisting of_______ tests.

A) 2, verbal and quantitative
B) 2, verbal and nonverbal
C) 3, verbal, quantitative, and nonverbal
D) 3, verbal, perceptual, and nonverbal

Question 16

What relationship did a study Stone, 1994) find between CogAT scores and teacher ratings with predicting future student achievement?

A) teachers were more accurate
B) CogAT scores were more accurate
C) teacher and CogAT scores were equally accurate
D) both measures were poor predictors

Question 17

The risk in group testing is that some examinees will

A) score far below their true ability
B) find the test to be too difficult
C) object to being tested in the presence of other examinees
D) none of the above

Question 18

The Multidimensional Aptitude Battery does not have a _______subtest.

A) Similarities
B) Object Assembly
C) Digit Symbol
D) Block Design

Question 19

Which standardization strategy did the developers of the Multidimensional Aptitude Battery employ?

A) they used large, representative, stratified samples
B) they calibrated test scores to the WAIS-R as an anchor test
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b

Question 20

The correlation coefficients between Multidimensional Aptitude Battery and WAIS-R IQs were found to be about_______ ,_____ , and ______, for Verbal, Performance, and Full Scale IQ, respectively.

A) .7, .8, .9
B) .7, .9, .8
C) .8, .9, .7
D) .9, .8, .9

Question 21

Raven's Progressive Matrices was originally designed as a measure of

A) culture-free intelligence
B) Spearman's g factor
C) crystallized intelligence
D) none of the above

Question 22

Correlations between the Culture Fair Intelligence Test and other mainstream instruments such as the Wechsler Scales or the Stanford-Binet are generally in the_________________ .

A) .30s and .40s
B) .50s and .60s
C) .70s and .80s
D) .90s

Question 23

The split-half reliability of the Differential Aptitude Test is generally in the

A) .60s
B) .70s
C) .80s
D) .90s

Question 24

The norms for the Differential Aptitude Test DAT) are based upon_______ individuals.

A) 70-100
B) 700-1000
C) 7,000-10,000
D) 70,000-100,000

Question 25

The optional trial section of the Medical College Admission Test MCAT) is:

A) assesses psychological, social, and biological foundations of behavior
B) consists of a combination of 50 true-False and 5 essay questions
C) scored along with the required sections when taken
D) used as a criterion predictor for the required sections

Question 26

The_______ is probably the most widely used paper-and-pencil test in existence.

A) General Aptitude Test Battery
B) Differential Aptitude Test
C) Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery
D) Primary Mental Abilities Test

Question 27

The nine factor scores on the General Aptitude Test Battery are expressed as standard scores with a mean of_______ and an SD of ________.

A) 50, 10
B) 50, 20
C) 100, 10
D) 100, 20

Question 28

On the General Aptitude Test Battery, the nine specific factor scores combine nicely into three general factors:

A) Cognitive, Perceptual, and Psychomotor
B) Cognitive, Numerical, and Psychomotor
C) Cognitive, Perceptual, and Spatial
D) Cognitive, Numerical, and Spatial

Question 29

What is one of the major criticisms of the DAT?

A) poor reliability
B) lack of discriminant validity between subtests
C) difficult to administer
D) none of the above

Question 30

For the Standard Progressive Matrices, a typical split-half reliability is about

A) .55
B) .65
C) .75
D) .85

Question 31

The Differential Aptitude Test consists of ______independent tests.

A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8

Question 32

What were the findings of comparing the computerized version of the General Aptitude Test Battery to the paper and pencil version?

A) subtest scores were more inaccurate on the computerized version
B) subtest scores were more inaccurate on the paper and pencil version
C) both versions were equivalent
D) none of the above

Question 33

What were the findings of comparing the computerized version of the DAT to the paper and pencil version?

A) scores were slightly higher on the computerized version
B) scores were slightly lower on the computerized version
C) scores were equivalent
D) scores were unrelated

Question 34

The scholastic aptitude index on the Differential Aptitude Test consists of

A) abstract reasoning and language usage
B) verbal reasoning and abstract reasoning
C) verbal reasoning and numerical aptitude
D) language usage and numerical aptitude

Question 35

Regarding the correlation between Raven's Progressive Matrices and other measures

A) the correlations are higher for verbal tests
B) the correlations are higher for performance tests
C) there is little difference in the correlations with verbal and performance tests
D) in general, the average correlation hovers near zero for both verbal and performance tests

Question 36

Reliability for Raven's Progressive Matrices is

A) better for adults than children
B) better for children than adults
C) very strong across age groups
D) very poor across age groups

Question 37

The following is NOT true regarding the Law School Admission Test LSAT):

A) the test is 60 years old
B) it is regarded as a valid predictor of grades in law school
C) it primarily consists of essay style questions
D) it is given approximately 150,000 times per year

Question 38

For adults with superior intelligence, the preferred test is

A) Coloured Progressive Matrices
B) Standard Progressive Matrices
C) Advanced Progressive Matrices
D) Phase III Progressive Matrices

Question 39

Which test is particularly valuable for the supplemental testing of children and adults with hearing, language, or physical disabilities?

A) Multidimensional Aptitude Battery
B) Shipley Institute of Living Scale
C) Cognitive Abilities Test
D) Raven's Progressive Matrices

Question 40

The General Aptitude Test Battery is composed of

A) eight paper-and-pencil tests and four apparatus measures
B) eight paper-and-pencil tests and two apparatus measures
C) eight paper-and-pencil tests
D) six paper-and-pencil tests

Question 41

In 2002, an Analytical Writing subtest was added to this prominent group test.

A) GRE
B) ASVAB
C) GATB
D) DAT

Question 42

The oldest of the college admission tests is the

A) Scholastic Assessment Test
B) American College Testing Program
C) Graduate Record Examination
D) Law School Admission Test

Question 43

The efforts to computerize this test will likely change the face of aptitude testing.

A) GATB
B) DAT
C) LSAT
D) ASVAB

Question 44

A particular weakness of the ASVAB is that

A) standardization data are inadequate
B) the reliability of the subtests is marginal
C) a subtest may occur in more than one composite
D) the validity of the test is unproven

Question 45

Graduate Record Exam scores correlate with grades in graduate school on the order of

A) .2 to .3
B) .4 to .5
C) .6 to .7
D) .8 to .9

Question 46

Critics of the ACT program have pointed to the heavy emphasis upon

A) mathematics
B) factual knowledge
C) test wiseness
D) reading comprehension

Question 47

The first two parts of the GRE verbal and quantitative) each has an approximate mean of _______and a standard deviation of _______.

A) 21, 5
B) 100, 15
C) 500, 10
D) 1000, 300

Question 48

What are the three major sections of the Scholastic Assessment reasoning) Test?

A) math, verbal, spatial
B) math, history, reading
C) math, science, writing
D) math, reading, writing

Question 49

On average, combined SAT scores correlate______ with college freshman GPA.

A) .2
B) .4
C) .6
D) .8

Question 50

English Usage, Mathematics Usage, Social Studies Reading, and Natural Sciences Reading are the four subtests of the __________.

A) SAT
B) GRE
C) ACT
D) none of the above

Question 51

Combining high school grade point average and SAT provides ______correlation with college freshman grades.

A) .2
B) .4
C) .6
D) .8

Question 52

What are the advantages of giving military applicants the ASVAB in a Computer Adaptive Testing format?

A) shortened testing time
B) increased precision at upper and lower extremes
C) more flexible start times
D) all the above

Question 53

The AFQT Armed Forces Qualifying Test) is part of the

A) GATB
B) DAT
C) LSAT
D) ASVAB

Question 54

Tests used to predict future performance are known as______ tests.

A) aptitude
B) achievement
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b

Question 55

The ASVAB manual reports a median validity coefficient of_______ with measures of training performance.

A) .20
B) .40
C) .60
D) .80

Question 56

On the ACT, the predictive validity coefficients are

A) virtually identical for advantaged and disadvantaged students
B) better for white students than for African-American students
C) better for students of high social class than low social class
D) better for bright students than less bright students

Question 57

The average intercorrelation among the composite scores of the ASVAB is about

A) .30
B) .50
C) .70
D) .90

Question 58

The standard error of measurement of SAT subtests is

A) 35
B) 70
C) 100
D) none of the above

Question 59

The standard deviation of SAT subtest scores is

A) 10
B) 15
C) 50
D) 100

Question 60

In general, scores on an SAT subtest can range from

A) 0 to 100
B) 0 to 1000
C) 50 to 150
D) 200 to 800

Question 61

Typically, the correlation between scores on the Iowa Tests of Basic Skills and high school grades is about

A) .2
B) .4
C) .6
D) .8

Question 62

The book Harry Potter and the Goblet of Fire has a Lexile rating of about

A) 100
B) 200
C) 900
D) 1700

Question 63

When corrected for restriction of range, the predictive validity of an MCAT score for licensing exam scores was_______ .

A) .3
B) .5
C) .7
D) .9

Question 64

In the equation Y = bX + a, the slope of the regression line is

A) Y
B) a
C) X
D) b

Question 65

According to McGurk's analysis, items nominated by experts as "most cultural" are _______for blacks compared to whites.

A) relatively less difficult
B) relatively more difficult
C) about equal in difficulty
D) none of the above

Question 66

Which of the below is a relatively recent approach to achievement testing?

A) Iowa Tests of Basic Skills
B) Metropolitation Achievement Test
C) Lexile Measure
D) Iowa Tests of Educational Development

Question 67

Which of the following is NOT a section on the Medical College Admission Test MCAT)?

A) Mathematics
B) Verbal Reasoning
C) Physical Sciences
D) Biological Sciences

Question 68

Which of the following is a sufficient basis for indicating test bias?

A) large differences in scores between defined subpopulations
B) the appearance of preference for one group in item content
C) absence of a defined subpopulation in the standardization
D) none of the above

Question 69

The purpose of the Iowa Tests of Basic Skills is to

A) detect weaknesses in school system curricula
B) screen elementary school children for potential learning disabilities
C) identify children who are underachieving
D) provide information which can be used to improve instruction

Question 70

A test is considered to have bias in_________ when the inference drawn from the test score is not made with the smallest feasible random error or if there is constant error in an inference or prediction as a function of membership in a particular group.

A) content validity
B) criterion-related validity
C) construct validity
D) face validity

Question 71

The Metropolitan Achievement Test is designed for ______.

A) preschool students
B) grades K-12
C) college students
D) law students

Question 72

Achievement tests can be used to

A) appraise the success of educational programs by measuring the subsequent skill attainment of students
B) group students according to similar skill level in specific academic domains
C) identify the level of instruction that is appropriate for individual students
D) all of the above

Question 73

Which concept incorporates and reflects social values?

A) test bias
B) test fairness
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b

Question 74

According to the criterion of homogeneous regression, a test is unbiased if

A) the results for all relevant subpopulations cluster equally well around a single regression line
B) each subpopulation produces a regression line with similar slope
C) there is no single regression line that works equally well for relevant subpopulations
D) none of the above

Question 75

The textbook takes the general position that test bias is synonymous with

A) test fairness
B) unintended outcomes of test usage
C) differences between defined subpopulations
D) differential validity

Question 76

In the Lexile approach, typical scores can range from

A) 200 to 800
B) 40 to 160
C) 2 to 36
D) 200 to 1700

Question 77

An item or subscale of a test is considered to have bias in ___________when it is demonstrated to be relatively more difficult for members of one group than another when the general ability level of the groups being compared is held constant and no reasonable theoretical rationale exists to explain group differences on the item or subscale) in question.

A) content validity
B) criterion-related validity
C) construct validity
D) face validity

Question 78

In general, the GED Tests of General Educational Development) is considered________ a regular high school diploma.

A) much easier than
B) slightly easier than
C) more difficult than
D) about on a par with

Question 79

When socioeconomic disparities are taken into account, the average African- American White IQ difference is on the order of_______ points.

A) 0 to 3
B) 7 to 12
C) 15 to 18
D) 21 to 24

Question 80

In the Lexile approach, reading demand of the text is based on

A) readers' reported difficulty
B) vocabulary only
C) sentence length only
D) vocabulary and sentence length