Deck 22: Medical Genetics and Cancer

Question 1

Prions can contain either DNA or RNA as their genetic material.

Answer 1

False

Question 2

In a disease that has a single gene, the concordance among monozygotic twins should be .

A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

Answer 2

E

Question 3

You are analyzing a human pedigree for a new disease and discover that the disease occurs with the same frequency in both sexes and that 25% of the children from two unaffected heterozygous parents have the disease. This disease is displaying inheritance.

A) Autosomal recessive
B) Autosomal dominant
C) Sex-linked recessive
D) Sex-linked dominant

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which of the following is not associated with an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?

A) An affected offspring has one or more affected parents
B) An affected individual with one affected parent will have 50% of its offspring affected
C) Two affected heterozygous individuals will have 25% of their offspring unaffected
D) An affected offspring has two unaffected parents

Question 5

In a disease that is associated with a single recessive allele, the concordance among dizygotic twins should be .

A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

Question 6

Which of the following would indicate that a disease has a genetic, rather than environmental, cause?

A) The disease has a specific age of onset
B) A high level of concordance among monozygotic twins
C) The disease does not occur in individuals that are exposed to a similar environment
D) The disease is similar to a known genetic disease in an animal such as a mouse
E) All of the answers are correct

Question 7

The term that indicates that cancer has begun to migrate to other parts of the body is .

A) Malignant
B) Benign
C) Metastatic
D) Invasive
E) Clonal

Question 8

Which of the following prior conformations may result in a prion-related infection?

A) PrPSc
B) PrPC
C) Both can cause disease

Question 9

When GTP is bound to Ras, it is in the form.

A) Active
B) Inactivea

Question 10

Which of the following can convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene?

A) Viral integration near the proto-oncogene
B) Missense mutations
C) Translocations
D) Gene amplification
E) All of the answers are correct

Question 11

The majority of human cancers are caused by .

A) Viral infections
B) Inherited mutations
C) Spontaneous mutations
D) Carcinogens

Question 12

Burkitt's lymphoma is an example of a proto-oncogene activation by .

A) Action of a virus
B) Missense mutation
C) A translocation
D) Gene amplification
E) None of the answers are correct

Question 13

An oncogene form of Ras would have which of the following characteristics?

A) Decreased GTPase activity
B) An increased number of copies in the cell
C) Increased susceptibility to growth factors
D) None of the answers are correct

Question 14

The first acutely transforming virus to be isolated was .

A) RSV in chickens
B) Hepatitis B SV40 in humans
C) SSV in monkeys
D) ALV in mice

Question 15

Which of the following provides the earliest indication of genetic problems in a fetus?

A) Amionocentesis
B) Chorionic villus sampling
C) Both provide reliable indications at the same stage of development

Question 16

In the analysis of a family, you notice that males are more likely to contract a certain disease and the daughters of affected males produce 50% of their sons affected with the disease. This disease is displaying which of the following patterns of inheritance?

A) X-linked recessive
B) Autosomal recessive
C) Autosomal dominant
D) None of the answers are correct

Question 17

A gene that promotes the development of cancer is called an .

A) Clone
B) ACV
C) Mutagen
D) Carcinogen
E) Oncogene

Question 18

In a cell culture you notice that a group of cells have begun to form a focus on a culture dish. These cells are most likely .

A) Malignant
B) Normal

Question 19

A disease that is lethal in the homozygous condition is most likely which of the following?

A) Autosomal recessive
B) Autosomal dominant
C) X-linked
D) None of the answers are correct

Question 20

Which of the following is not a prion related disease?

A) Phenylketonuria
B) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
C) Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease
D) Familial fatal insomnia
E) All of the answers are prior related

Question 21

An infectious agent that is comprised entirely of proteins is called a prion.

Question 22

A genetic counselor would use genetic screening to check an entire population for a genetic
abnormality that is associated with a disease.

Question 23

Which of the following is a way that a tumor-suppressor gene can lose its function?

A) Gene mutation
B) Aberrant DNA methylation
C) Aneuploidy leading to loss of the tumor-suppressor gene
D) All of the above

Question 24

A disease that can be caused by mutations in different genes is said to have homogeneity.

Question 25

genes prevent the oncogenes from forming cancer.

A) carcinogen
B) proto-oncogene
C) tumor-suppressor genes
D) caspase gene

Question 26

A pedigree analysis is the study of family trees to establish patterns of inheritance.

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT an event that must occur for inherited retinoblastoma to develop?

A) An individual must have two mutated copies of the Rb gene.
B) The p53 gene must be mutated.
C) The inactive Rb gene can no longer regulate the transcription factor E2F
D) The cell proceeds uncontrolled throughout cell division.

Question 28

Checkpoint proteins act as which of the following?

A) Oncogenes
B) Transcription factors
C) Proto-oncogenes
D) Tumor-suppressing genes

Question 29

What is p53?

A) A caspase
B) A proto-oncogene
C) A transcription factor
D) A tumor suppressing gene

Question 30

An environmental agent that causes cancer is called a .

A) carcinogen
B) malignant agent
C) invasive agent
D) metastatic agent

Question 31

Dizygotic twins share of their genetic information.

A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%

Question 32

Programmed cell death is called genome maintenance.

Question 33

Caspases are active during which of the following?

A) The normal cell cycle
B) Apotosis
C) Viral integration
D) DNA replication

Question 34

A mutation in which of the following genes would enhance the chances of cancer?

A) p53
B) ras
C) myc
D) Rb
E) All of the answers are correct

Question 35

Which of the following is NOT a role of growth factors in the cell cycle?

A) They act as repair proteins which fix DNA damage in the cell.
B) Growth factors bind to a receptor and initiate a signal cascade within a cell.
C) Their binding changes gene transcription.
D) They allow the cell to progress through the cell cycle.

Question 36

The age at which a disease appears in an organism is called the .

A) null age
B) critical age
C) age of incubation
D) age of onset

Question 37

The process of removes amniotic fluid from a pregnant mother to examine fetal cells for genetic problems.

A) aminocentesis
B) chorionic villus sampling
C) preimplantation genetic diagnosis
D) in vitro fertilization

Question 38

A oncogene may promote cancer by keeping the cell growth pathway in the off position.

Question 39

After genetic testing, a person is identified with an inherited mutation associated with a specific class of cancer. Which of the following is incorrect?

A) The person will definitely develop the cancer in their lifetimes
B) The person is predisposed to the development of the cancer
C) The mutation is probably in a tumor-suppressing gene
D) The person may pass the trait on to their offspring

Question 40

A is a cellular gene that has the potential to become an oncogene.

A) carcinogen
B) proto-oncogene
C) tumor-suppressor genes
D) caspase gene

Question 41

Molecular profiling gives the unique gene expression profile of a cancer, allowing cancers to be
distinguished from each other down to the single gene level.

Question 42

Cancer is considered clonal because daughter cells from a cancer cell have the same genetic makeup
as the parent cell.

Question 43

DNA damage is sensed by E2F at the G1 and G2 checkpoints.