Deck 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System

Question 1

Which of the following statements regarding leptospirosis in incorrect?

A) It is most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs.
B) The causative organism infects the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes.
C) The causative organism is a spirochete.
D) It can be transmitted by animal bites.
E) Humans acquire it by contact with abraided skin or mucous membranes.

Answer 1

It can be transmitted by animal bites.

Question 2

Trichomonas vaginalis _______.

A) does not produce cysts
B) infection is generally asymptomatic in males
C) causes vaginitis in females
D) has four ?agella and an undulating membrane
E) All of the choices are correct.

Answer 2

All of the choices are correct.

Question 3

All of the following are signs and symptoms of urinary tract infection except ______.

A) diarrhea
B) painful urination
C) white blood cells in urine
D) nausea
E) red blood cells in urine

Answer 3

diarrhea

Question 4

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal biota of the female reproductive tract during childbearing years?

A) Candida albicans is present in small amounts.
B) Vaginal pH is neutral.
C) Lactobacilli convert sugars to acid.
D) Secretory IgA provides protection.
E) Estrogen causes glycogen release.

Question 5

The most common causative agent of urinary tract infections is ______.

A) Pseudomonas aeurginosa
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Escherichia coli
D) Staphylococcus aureus

Question 6

Restriction factors in the reproductive tract _______.

A) adjust the pH of the mucosa and are modi?ed during sexual maturation
B) appear to derive from unculturable microbes in the normal microbiota
C) provide an innate protective effect against viral infection
D) are enzymes that hydrolyze the phosphodiester bond in DNA

Question 7

Why does the microbiota of the reproductive tract change as the female ages from childhood to adulthood to old age?

A) Her estrogen and progesterone levels change over time.
B) The pH of the vagina changes over time.
C) The microbes in the vagina change the environment, which affects the populations of microbes living there.
D) Post-menopausal women have a stable microbiota.
E) All of these statements are true.

Question 8

Schistosoma haematobium infection _______.

A) begins with larval entry through abraded skin
B) has no effective treatment at this time
C) predisposes victims to bladder cancer
D) is transmitted via the fecal-oral route
E) predisposes victims to liver cancer

Question 9

Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract?

A) Flushing action of urine
B) Lysozyme
C) IgG
D) Mucus secretions
E) IgA

Question 10

Which of the following organisms causes urinary tract infections?

A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Schistosoma haematobium
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Group B Streptococcus
E) Proteus mirabilis

Question 11

Lactobacillus in the female reproductive tract _______.

A) is protective
B) is the causative agent in common yeast infections
C) can lead to pelvic in?ammatory disease
D) is indicative of underlying infection
E) can contribute to STIs

Question 12

Normal biota of the urinary tract in both genders include all of the following except ______.

A) Staphylococcus
B) nonhemolytic Streptococcus
C) Corynebacterium
D) Escherichia coli
E) Lactobacillus

Question 13

The patient's symptoms are pain upon urination and blood in the urine but no bacteria are cultured from the urine. The doctor suspects schistosomiasis. What question did the doctor asked that gave her a clue about the disease?

A) Have you had a blood transfusion?
B) Have you traveled out of the U.S.?
C) Have you been eating at places that might not be hygienic?
D) Have you been having unprotected sex?

Question 14

Prostatitis and urinary tract infections (UTIs) are alike in that _______.

A) both result from the transfer of normal biota from the GI tract
B) treatment will minimize the symptoms but will never completely eliminate the disease
C) women are far more susceptible to both infections than men
D) untreated cases may complicate by infecting the kidneys

Question 15

Infection of the urinary bladder is called ______.

A) urethritis
B) PID
C) pyelonephritis
D) cystitis
E) vaginitis

Question 16

Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their ______.

A) feces
B) urine
C) saliva
D) blood

Question 17

Which of the following statements is true regarding the male urethral biota?

A) There are no resident biota in the urethra.
B) The urethral biota is the same as the anal biota.
C) The urethral biota varies with sexual activity of the male.
D) The urethral biota in the male is exactly the same biota as in the female urethra.

Question 18

The vaginal microbiome changes as a female matures because _______.

A) most sexually mature women use douching as a means to eliminate the vaginal microbiome
B) episodic treatments with antibiotics for UTIs and antifungals for vaginitis eliminate many of the normal microbiota
C) hormonal changes and sexual activity alter the environment of the vagina
D) estrogen has an antibiotic effect on the vaginal microbiome

Question 19

Which of the following is not a part of the male genital (reproductive) system?

A) Vas deferens
B) Epididymis
C) Prostate
D) Ureter

Question 20

A woman is much more likely than a man to contract a UTI. Which of the following practices would best reduce her chances of getting a UTI?

A) Daily antibiotic dose
B) Using birth control pills
C) Not wearing tight-?tting clothes
D) Wiping with toilet paper in a front-to-back direction

Question 21

Which of the following is a causative agent of a discharge disease?

A) Herpes simplex virus 2
B) Leptospira interrogans
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Escherichia coli
E) Schistosoma haematobium

Question 22

The latency period of syphilis is ______.

A) 3 to 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 10 years
D) 20 years or longer

Question 23

Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis?

A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Latent

Question 24

Treponema pallidum _______.

A) has humans as the sole reservoir
B) can cross the placenta
C) has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium
D) is transmitted by direct sexual contact
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 25

Janey has been taking antibiotics for 10 days to counter a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. Her UTI is eliminated, but two weeks later she has a vaginal itch. What is the likely cause?

A) Candida albicans
B) Lactobacillus acidophilus
C) Clostridium di?cile
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Escherichia coli

Question 26

The rash of secondary syphilis _______.

A) only lasts a few days
B) does not impair function
C) can last for months
D) is intensely painful
E) causes severe itching

Question 27

During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur?

A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Latent

Question 28

The most common mode of disease transmission in UTIs is ______.

A) endogenous transfer
B) opportunism
C) fomites
D) indirect contact
E) aerosol

Question 29

Which of the following has not been an effective treatment for syphilis?

A) Penicillin G
B) Mercury
C) Vancomycin
D) Arsenic

Question 30

Leptospirosis _______.

A) is communicable
B) is contracted by the fecal-oral route
C) can be contracted from the environment
D) is strictly transmitted by sexual contact
E) has only humans as a reservoir

Question 31

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is _______.

A) the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum
B) the cause of gonorrhea
C) called the gonococcus
D) virulent due to ?mbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 32

The chancre of syphilis _______.

A) is very painful
B) develops into a lesion with ?rm margins and an ulcerated central crater
C) occurs during the tertiary stage
D) occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries

Question 33

Herpes simplex-1 _______.

A) is exclusive to oral mucosa
B) is exclusive to genitourinary tract
C) confers immunity to herpes simplex 2
D) is cleared by praziquantel
E) None of the choices are correct.

Question 34

Chlamydia trachomatis causes _______.

A) nongonococcal urethritis in males
B) cervicitis in females
C) congenital conjunctivitis
D) pelvic in?ammatory disease in females
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 35

During the tertiary stage of syphilis, tumors called _______ develop in the liver, skin, bone, and cartilage.

A) gummas
B) chancres
C) nodules
D) ulcers

Question 36

The Tuskegee Study gathered information on ______.

A) chlamydia
B) gonorrhea
C) HIV
D) syphilis
E) genital herpes

Question 37

Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes?

A) All cells have a cell wall.
B) All are pathogenic.
C) The cells stain gram-negative.
D) The cells are always motile.
E) The cells exhibit a helical shape.

Question 38

The most common mode for the transmission of Schistosoma haematobium is ______.

A) contaminated meat
B) fomites
C) contaminated water
D) opportunism
E) fecal-oral route

Question 39

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is incorrect?

A) Females can have asymptomatic infections.
B) Pelvic in?ammatory disease (PID), epididymitis, and infertility are complications.
C) A chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry.
D) Symptoms include painful urination and discharge.
E) It is a sexually transmitted infection.

Question 40

The secondary stage of syphilis _______.

A) is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood
B) is when gummas develop in tissues
C) occurs within 10 days of the primary stage
D) has no symptoms
E) is when the patient is no longer infectious to others

Question 41

Candida albicans is a ______.

A) helminth
B) bacterium
C) fungus
D) protozoan

Question 42

The most common cause of vaginitis is ______.

A) Candida albicans
B) Escherichia coli
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Staphlococcus aureus

Question 43

Which of the following statements regarding genital warts is incorrect?

A) They are not common in the United States.
B) They are sexually transmitted.
C) They often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix.
D) They form large cauli?ower-like masses called condyloma acuminata.
E) Certain strains predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis.

Question 44

You, a 29-year-old sexually active male, have discovered some small vesicles on the penis. They are ?uid-?lled, red, and very painful. This is the second time that you have seen this. The ?rst time around, about 2 months ago, you saw them but managed to ignore them. The lesions went away-- no doctor, no treatment. But here they are again. You think that perhaps you picked up
This infection six months ago, the last time that you had sex. Identify the likely infection.

A) HSV-2 infection
B) Chlamydia
C) HSV-1 infection
D) Syphilis
E) Candidiasis

Question 45

Which of the following statements about Chlamydia is incorrect?

A) Elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for making ATP.
B) Reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies.
C) It is gram-negative.
D) Elementary bodies are the infectious form.
E) It is an obligate parasite that needs host cells for growth.

Question 46

The antivirals used for herpes simplex infections have the ability to completely destroy the virus and permanently cure the latent infection.

Question 47

The primary virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is ______.

A) an endotoxin
B) a protease
C) a hemolysin
D) ?mbriae
E) an exotoxin

Question 48

The most commonly reported STI in the United States is ______.

A) genital herpes
B) HIV infection
C) Chlamydia infection
D) gonorrhea
E) syphilis

Question 49

Chancroid _______.

A) is caused by a spirochete
B) is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi
C) is very painful in both sexes
D) presents with a hard chancre

Question 50

As a couple, you have been trying to get pregnant for a few years, but there appears to be a medical cause for the infertility. After a full checkup, your doctor tells you that there is scar tissue in the uterine tubes. What disease is the most likely cause of this problem?

A) Gonorrhea
B) Leptospirosis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Syphilis

Question 51

The key characteristic of the herpes family of viruses is _______.

A) their ability to transform normal cells into cancer cells
B) their ability to cause organ death
C) their ability to stay in host cells without causing symptoms
D) their propensity to destroy bone marrow

Question 52

Which of the following statements regarding HSV-2 (genital herpes) is incorrect?

A) It can also infect oral mucosa.
B) It can become latent in the sacral ganglion.
C) Virus is shed from active lesions only.
D) It can be reactivated by bacterial infections.

Question 53

Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted by sexual activity.

Question 54

Lymphogranuloma venereum is a complication of ______.

A) syphilis
B) genital herpes
C) HIV infection
D) gonorrhea
E) Chlamydia infection

Question 55

Warts are caused by ______.

A) nonenveloped DNA viruses
B) enveloped RNA viruses
C) enveloped DNA viruses
D) bacteria
E) nonenveloped RNA viruses

Question 56

An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 infection is ______.

A) kidney failure
B) shingles
C) infertility
D) encephalitis
E) paralysis

Question 57

Chlamydia infection can lead to cervicitis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease.

Question 58

Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes _______.

A) genital lesions
B) intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals
C) symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching
D) infection in neonates that contact lesions in the birth canal
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 59

Trichomonas vaginalis is a ______.

A) bacterium
B) protozoan
C) helminth
D) fungus

Question 60

The best way to directly observe Treponema pallidum is through ______ microscopy.

A) ?uorescent
B) phase contrast
C) scanning electron
D) bright-?eld
E) dark-?eld

Question 61

Which population is at greatest risk for group B Streptococcus infection?

A) AIDS patients
B) Neonates
C) College age women
D) Post-menopausal women
E) Pregnant women

Question 62

The best method for culturing Chlamydia is _______.

A) a minimal, de?ned selective medium
B) to incubate the medium at slighty lower than body temperature
C) enrichment through several rounds of blood culture
D) eukaryotic cell culture

Question 63

Common spermicidal preparations have a toxic effect on Lactobacillus species and are associated with increased risk of urinary tract infection. Which of the following statements best explains this observation?

A) Use of spermicide must be carefully monitored so that it doesn't inadvertently enter the urinary tract.
B) Lactobacillus can cause urinary tract infections when transferred from the reproductive system to the urinary system.
C) Without the protective coating of Lactobacillus, organisms like E. coli can attach to bladder epithelial cells.
D) Production of spermicidal chemicals must be rigorously controlled to avoid contamination with organisms like E. coli.

Question 64

Which of the following statements regarding prostatitis is incorrect?

A) It is caused by GI tract biota.
B) It is accompanied by pain and frequent, di?cult urination.
C) The speci?c causative agent is readily cultured and identi?ed.
D) It can be chronic or acute.

Question 65

Gardasil prevents infection by group B Streptococcus types 6, 11, 16, and 18.

Question 66

Which of the following characteristics can distinguish vaginitis and vaginosis?

A) Causative agent
B) Presence of vaginal in?ammation
C) Presence of discharge
D) All of the choices are correct.

Question 67

The pathogenesis of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is dependent upon phase variation. Which of the following statements concerning phase variation is incorrect?

A) Phase variation allows Neisseria cells to escape immune detection.
B) Phase variations results from genetic rearrangements in the Neisseria chromosome.
C) Phase variation involves alterations to the structure of the ?mbriae.
D) Phase variation results in Neisseria cells adopting a pleomorphic morphology.

Question 68

Which of the following statements regarding vaginosis and vaginitis is correct?

A) Vaginitis may be caused by fungi or protozoans, whereas vaginosis is invariably a viral infection.
B) Vaginitis can complicate to pelvic in?ammatory disease (PID), but vaginosis cannot.
C) Both conditions can be prevented with vaccinations.
D) Both conditions result in a vaginal discharge with itching.

Question 69

Even after a positive test for a microbial cause, chronic prostatitis is unresponsive to antibiotic therapy. Why might this be the case?

A) The infection is sporadic.
B) It is a viral infection.
C) Mixed species bio?lms are hard to eliminate with antibiotics.
D) The side effects of the drug are too great.

Question 70

Research published in January 2017 presented an estimate of the prevalence of HPV infection in American males at 45%. Adult males are an unvaccinated population. What are the consequences
of HPV infection in males?

A) Males with HPV have a signi?cantly higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer.
B) Males can develop genitourinary tract cancer from HPV infection.
C) There are no long-term consequences; a course of antiviral medication will clear up the infection.
D) HPV-infected males should also be screened for gonorrhea, as the two often co-infect.

Question 71

The leading cause of pelvic in?ammatory disease is ______.

A) HIV infection
B) syphilis
C) Chlamydia infection
D) gonorrhea
E) genital herpes

Question 72

A healthcare provider who suspects that a woman may have vaginitis caused by Candida infection can con?rm that by _______.

A) identifying the characteristic protozoans in a smear examined using a ?uorescence microscope
B) identifying pseudohyphae in a Gram-stained smear examined using a light microscope
C) submitting a sample of the discharge for metagenomic sequencing
D) plating a sample of the discharge on a medium containing salt as a selective agent
E) submitting a sample of the discharge for PCR ampli?cation

Question 73

In the ?nal trimester of pregnancy, your test results came back positive for an infection that would likely be damaging for the newborn, so your doctor wants to prescribe an antibiotic. What organism is the likely culprit here?

A) Group B Streptococcus
B) Leptospira
C) Trichomonas
D) Herpes simplex 2

Question 74

You have been a carrier of HSV-2 for many years, with sporadic outbreaks perhaps once a year. You are pregnant and about to deliver your baby. What does your doctor suggest, now that you currently have an outbreak of herpes lesions?

A) Have an abortion
B) Put the baby on a high dose of antivirals
C) Delivery by cesarean section
D) Give you a high dose of antibiotics

Question 75

Pelvic in?ammatory disease often leads to ______.

A) HIV infection
B) multiple births
C) low birthweight babies
D) cervical cancer
E) infertility

Question 76

Which of the following statements regarding the Chlamydia life cycle is incorrect?

A) Elementary bodies are released from the host cell to continue the infectious cycle.
B) The elementary body is the infectious stage of Chlamydia.
C) Elementary bodies differentiate into reticulate bodies in the cell nucleus.
D) Reticulate bodies multiple by binary ?ssion.

Question 77

Group B Streptococcus infections can cause serious infections in infants through vertical transmission.

Question 78

In which of the following ways are Chlamydia and viruses the same?

A) Both are best treated with antiviral chemotherapy.
B) Both are able to reproduce only within a eukaryotic cell.
C) Both can remain dormant in the cell nucleus for long periods of time.
D) Both have surface proteins that cannot be recognized by the immune system.

Question 79

There is a controversy over pre-teen girls receiving the HPV vaccine. Many parents think that giving this vaccine condones sexual activity at a young age. On the other hand, there are parents who do not want their kids to pick up STIs. Why is the vaccine recommended for 11-12 year old girls? Why not give the vaccine to young adult women who are just becoming sexually active?

A) Once the young woman becomes infected with HPV, the virus gets into cells. It is then too late to vaccinate.
B) The immune system is strongest in pre-teen girls, so it is best to give the vaccine very early in life.
C) The vaccine is cheaper for young girls since the dosage of virus in the vaccine is far less than that given for older women.
D) Very young women tend to get cancer from HPV, whereas women who are older get warts from HPV.

Question 80

The population most likely to be affected by catheter-associated urinary tract infections is _______.

A) elderly women in a nursing home
B) urban sex workers
C) women who have recently delivered a baby by caesarean section
D) women who abuse intravenous drugs