Deck 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses

Question 1

Keratin is an important aspect of nonspeci?c defense because it ______.

A) destroys pathogens
B) physically restricts pathogens to a speci?c region
C) is toxic to pathogens
D) creates a physical barrier against pathogens

Answer 1

creates a physical barrier against pathogens

Question 2

The most numerous WBCs that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are ______.

A) lymphocytes
B) basophils
C) eosinophils
D) monocytes
E) neutrophils

Answer 2

neutrophils

Question 3

Which body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal biota?

A) Urinary tract
B) Eyes
C) Digestive tract
D) Skin
E) Respiratory tract

Answer 3

Skin

Question 4

Which white blood cells comprise 3-7% of circulating WBCs, are phagocytic, and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages?

A) Basophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Neutrophils
D) Monocytes
E) Lymphocytes

Question 5

A properly functioning immune system is responsible for ______.

A) surveillance of the body
B) recognition of foreign material
C) destruction of foreign material
D) All of the choices are correct.

Question 6

Lysozyme is found in ______.

A) tears
B) salivary secretions
C) sweat from sweat glands
D) All of the choices are correct.

Question 7

Components of the ?rst line of defense include all of the following, except _______.

A) the ?ushing action of urine
B) phagocytic white blood cells
C) the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin
D) the ?ushing action of tears and blinking
E) nasal hairs

Question 8

The main function of the mononuclear phagocyte system is to provide ______.

A) a connection between tissues and organs
B) surveillance cells
C) ?ltration of extracellular ?uid
D) ?ltration of blood

Question 9

The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and in?ammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are ______.

A) eosinophils
B) basophils
C) neutrophils
D) lymphocytes
E) monocytes

Question 10

Plasma ______.

A) is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended
B) is mostly water
C) contains albumin and globulins
D) contains ?brinogen
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 11

All of the following are physical barriers to pathogens, except ______.

A) mucous
B) unbroken skin
C) tears
D) hairs
E) T cells

Question 12

The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the ______.

A) respiratory tract
B) urinary tract
C) skin
D) eyes
E) digestive tract

Question 13

Nonspeci?c chemical defenses include _______.

A) lysozyme
B) lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat
C) the skin's acidic pH and fatty acids
D) stomach hydrochloric acid
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 14

Which of the following is incorrect about blood cells?

A) They include erythrocytes that, when mature, lose their nuclei.
B) After birth, they are produced in red bone marrow sites.
C) They develop from undifferentiated stem cells.
D) They include glial cells.
E) They include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranulocytes.

Question 15

The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during in?ammation and allergic reactions are ______.

A) neutrophils
B) monocytes
C) eosinophils
D) basophils
E) lymphocytes

Question 16

The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is ______.

A) hydrochloric acid
B) histamine
C) bile
D) lactic acid
E) lysozyme

Question 17

Which of the following ?uid compartments is not a partner in immune function?

A) Intracellular ?uid
B) Blood stream
C) Extracellular ?uid
D) Lymphatic system

Question 18

Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their ______.

A) cell walls
B) shapes
C) markers
D) sizes
E) cell processes

Question 19

The term _____ is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a speci?c immune system response.

A) allergen
B) antigen
C) foreign body
D) antibody

Question 20

Which white blood cells comprise 20% to 30% of the circulating WBCs and are the cells that function in the body's speci?c immune system?

A) Monocytes
B) Neutrophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Basophils

Question 21

The four classic signs and symptoms of in?ammation include all of the following except ______.

A) swelling
B) warmth
C) pain
D) redness
E) chills

Question 22

Hematopoiesis is the ______.

A) migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues
B) loss of blood due to hemorrhaging
C) plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding
D) production of only red blood cells
E) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets

Question 23

Diapedesis is the _______.

A) loss of blood due to hemorrhaging
B) production of only red blood cells
C) plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding
D) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
E) migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues

Question 24

The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as ______.

A) the thymus
B) tonsils
C) lymph nodes
D) GALT
E) the spleen

Question 25

A type of monocyte that has long, thin processes to trap pathogens is a/an ______.

A) platelet
B) dendritic cell
C) mast cell
D) eosinophil
E) macrophage

Question 26

Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood and has hormones that function in maturation of T lymphocytes?

A) Lymph nodes
B) GALT
C) Thymus
D) Tonsils
E) Spleen

Question 27

Which type of white blood cell is particularly attracted to sites of parasitic worm infections?

A) Eosinophils
B) Basophils
C) Lymphocytes
D) Neutrophils
E) Monocytes

Question 28

All of the following pertain to platelets, except ______.

A) they are not whole cells but are pieces of cells
B) they originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes
C) they function in blood clotting and in?ammation
D) they contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
E) they function primarily in hemostasis

Question 29

Which of the following lymphoid organs or tissues has the immunological function of ?ltering pathogens from the blood?

A) Thymus
B) Spleen
C) GALT
D) Lymph nodes
E) Tonsils

Question 30

What structures are found along lymphatic vessels and are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck?

A) Tonsils
B) Thymus
C) Spleen
D) Lymph nodes
E) GALT

Question 31

When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues, they are transformed by in?ammatory mediators to develop into ______.

A) primary phagocytes
B) killer T cells
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) neutrophils
E) macrophages

Question 32

Humoral immunity involves ______, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity.

A) B cells; T cells
B) B cells; neutrophils
C) basophils; T cells
D) T cells; B cells
E) monocytes; basophils

Question 33

All of the following are events of early in?ammation except ______.

A) macrophages appear ?rst and begin phagocytosis
B) chemical mediators and cytokines are released
C) brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation
D) exudate and pus can accumulate
E) capillaries become more permeable, resulting in edema

Question 34

Plasma cells ______.

A) function in cell-mediated immunity
B) produce and secrete antibodies
C) are derived from T lymphocytes
D) function in blood clotting

Question 35

All of the following are granulocytes except _____.

A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) lymphocytes
D) basophils
E) All of the choices are granulocytes.

Question 36

The granules of neutrophils contain ______.

A) antigens
B) peroxidase
C) antibodies
D) histamine
E) digestive enzymes

Question 37

Place the following cells in order from greatest to least phagocytic activity: neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages.

A) Eosinophils, macrophages, neutrophils
B) Neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages
C) Neutrophils, macrophages, eosinophils
D) Macrophages, eosinophils, neutrophils
E) Macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils

Question 38

The granules of basophils contain ______.

A) histamine
B) antigens
C) digestive enzymes
D) lysozyme
E) antibodies

Question 39

The granules of eosinophils contain ______.

A) antibodies
B) peroxidase
C) histamine
D) antigens
E) serotonin

Question 40

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called ______ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that appear with identifying, characteristic colors in a stained blood smear.

A) granulocytes
B) monocytes
C) leukocytes
D) agranulocytes

Question 41

Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other cells that need to produce antiviral proteins?

A) Interferon
B) Lysozyme
C) Histamine
D) Albumin
E) Complement

Question 42

Which of the following is mismatched in relation to in?ammation?

A) Tumor - cancer
B) Calor - warmth
C) Rubor - redness
D) Dolor - pain

Question 43

Which of the following is a chemical used by phagocytes to destroy ingested foreign substances?

A) Hydrogen peroxide
B) Nitric oxide
C) Lactic acid
D) Superoxide anion
E) All of these choices are used.

Question 44

Each of the following are bene?ts of fever except ______.

A) it stimulates hematopoiesis
B) it increases the availability of iron
C) it increases metabolism
D) it reduces the ability of temperature-sensitive organisms to multiply
E) it increases phagocytosis

Question 45

During what process are hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced in order to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication?

A) Lysozyme production
B) Complement production
C) Interferon production
D) In?ammation
E) Phagocytosis

Question 46

The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are ______.

A) complement
B) lysozymes
C) interferons
D) pyrogens
E) leukotrines

Question 47

Which of the following is incorrect about in?ammation?

A) Fever could be bene?cial to inhibiting the pathogen.
B) In?ammation can last hours to years.
C) Basophils and mast cells release histamine.
D) Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability.
E) Serotonin causes smooth muscle contraction.

Question 48

Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all ______.

A) mediators of T-cell activity
B) fever inducers
C) vasoactive mediators
D) mediators that increase chemotaxis
E) mediators of B-cell activity

Question 49

The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells and viruses.

A) cell-mediated
B) humoral immunity
C) complement
D) lymphoid

Question 50

The leakage of vascular ?uid into tissues is called ______.

A) edema
B) diapedesis
C) pus
D) chemotaxis
E) vasoactivity

Question 51

What type of molecules act to draw phagocytes to foreign substances?

A) RES
B) PAMPs
C) MALTs
D) IFNs
E) BALTs

Question 52

Which of the following is incorrect about complement?

A) It is composed of at least 20 blood proteins.
B) It involves a classical pathway.
C) It acts in a cascade reaction.
D) It involves an alternate pathway.
E) It only appears in the blood during a response to a pathogen.

Question 53

Which of the following is not a type of phagocyte?

A) Lymphocyte
B) Macrophage
C) Neutrophil
D) Monocyte
E) Kupffer cell

Question 54

A person will typically experience the sensation of _____ when fever is starting to occur in the body.

A) chills
B) heat
C) pain
D) sweating

Question 55

The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves ______.

A) the cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b
B) initiation of the cascade
C) a ring-shaped protein digesting holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes
D) C1q binding to surface receptors on a membrane
E) the production of in?ammatory cytokines

Question 56

What is the ?rst step in the major events of the in?ammatory process?

A) Vascular reactions
B) Formation of pus and edema
C) Activation of complement
D) Scar formation and/or resolution
E) Injury and mast cells releasing chemical mediators

Question 57

Which of the following is not an event of phagocytosis?

A) Chemotaxis
B) Phagolysosome formation
C) Ingestion
D) Diapedesis
E) Destruction

Question 58

All of the following pertain to interferon except ______.

A) it includes alpha, beta, and gamma types
B) it is produced by certain white blood cells and tissue cells
C) it is a protein
D) it increases capillary permeability and vasodilation
E) it inhibits viruses, tumors, and cancer gene expression

Question 59

Each of the following is a term re?ecting a process involved in the migration of white blood cells except ______.

A) diapedesis
B) vasodilation
C) phagocytosis
D) motility
E) chemotaxis

Question 60

Which of the following is not a chief function of in?ammation?

A) Cause a fever
B) Destroy microbes
C) Start tissue repair
D) Mobilize and attract immune components to injury site
E) Block further invasion

Question 61

You have severe itching problems when bitten by an insect. Your friend gives you an ointment to spread on your skin around the bite so that the redness and itching do not bother you. The likely mechanism of this medication would be ______.

A) the inhibition of lysozyme
B) the inactivation of neutrophils
C) the destruction of phagocytic cells
D) to act as an antagonist of histamine

Question 62

During phagocytosis, intracellular digestion begins as soon as the phagosome is formed.

Question 63

Mycobacterium tuberculosis has chemicals in its cell wall that inhibit the fusion of phagocytic vacuoles with lysosomes. Which statement is true?

A) Complement proteins will take over to destroy the bacteria.
B) The bacterium can survive and replicate inside of the phagocytic cell.
C) Antibodies produced by the cells can more effectively kill the bacteria.
D) The bacterium can produce chemicals which can destroy the macrophage housing the bacterium.

Question 64

Monocytes and lymphocytes are agranular leukocytes.

Question 65

Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and phagocytosis.

Question 66

The normal human microbiota is considered part of the ?rst line of defense because ______.

A) resident bacterial cells stimulate phagocytosis of pathogens
B) microbiota cause an in?ammatory response, eliminating pathogens
C) pathogens and normal biota cannot exist in the same location
D) microbial antagonism keeps potential pathogens in check

Question 67

Endotoxin is an exogenous pyrogen.

Question 68

A low to moderate fever in an otherwise healthy person should be treated immediately with antipyretic drugs.

Question 69

During inflammation, a high neutrophil count is a common sign of bacterial infection.

Question 70

The production of interferon will protect the host cell from a viral infection.

Question 71

Microbial antagonism is the ______.

A) suppression of the complement cascade by microbes
B) prevention of immune responses by the resident microbiota
C) inhibition of T cell binding to microbes
D) competition for nutrients, oxygen, and space between the resident microbiota and potential pathogens

Question 72

Your 81-year-old grandfather has been diagnosed with cancer of the thymus. The doctor is urging surgical removal of the cancer, but you and the family are worried about the consequences of removing an entire organ such as the thymus. Which statement is correct?

A) Your grandfather would not be able to produce complement proteins necessary for pathogen control and in?ammation.
B) Your grandfather will have a loss of T lymphocytes and will have an immune de?ciency.
C) Your grandfather would not have su?cient phagocytic cells and would not be able to contain bacterial infections.
D) There is nothing to worry about; thymus removal will not affect your grandfather's immune status at his age.

Question 73

Genetic differences among species and within a species can convey genetic immunity to certain diseases.

Question 74

Plasma is also called lymph.

Question 75

A patient visits your clinic often with recurrent respiratory infections. Based upon their medical history, it appears they have been an active smoker for over 40 years. Select the statement that most accurately re?ects how this information may reveal why the patient is highly susceptible to respiratory pathogens.

A) Smoking decreases the activity of neutrophils.
B) Smoking directly inhibits B- and T-cell action.
C) Smoking decreases the formation and effectiveness of complement proteins.
D) Smoking can paralyze the ciliary escalator.

Question 76

B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland.

Question 77

Despite not being a physical barrier, the resident microbiota are considered part of the ?rst line of defense since they stimulate in?ammation and fever, enhancing pathogen removal.

Question 78

Complement proteins are produced by the spleen.

Question 79

After loading wood into a ?replace, you realize you have gotten a splinter in your ?nger. Within a short period of time, your ?nger is painful, red, and swollen, and is warm to the touch. This is an example of ______.

A) nonspeci?c resistance
B) speci?c resistance
C) acquired immunity
D) adaptive immunity

Question 80

In?ammatory responses are orchestrated by the immune system and are part of the body's third line of defense.