Deck 16: Disorders in Immunity

Question 1

Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category(ies) _______.

A) type I only
B) type I and type IV
C) type IV only
D) type I, type II, and type III
E) type I, type II, type III, and type IV

Answer 1

type I only

Question 2

Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a/an _______ hypersensitivity.

A) T-cell-mediated
B) antibody-mediated
C) immune complex-mediated
D) immediate
E) Both T-cell-mediated and antibody-mediated are correct.

Answer 2

immediate

Question 3

A systemic, sometimes fatal, reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is _______.

A) delayed
B) T-cell-mediated
C) antibody-mediated
D) systemic anaphylaxis
E) atopic

Answer 3

systemic anaphylaxis

Question 4

A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the ______ dose.

A) sensitizing
B) provocative
C) allergic
D) hypersensitivity
E) desensitizing

Question 5

Allergies run in families because _______.

A) immunoglobulins pass through breast milk
B) the variable region of antibodies is genetically determined
C) immunoglobulins pass from mother to fetus
D) the relative production of IgE is inherited

Question 6

Which type/s of hypersensitivities is IgG is involved with?

A) Anaphylaxis
B) Antibody-mediated
C) Immune complex-mediated
D) Both anaphylaxis and antibody-mediated
E) Both antibody-mediated and immune complex-mediated

Question 7

Any heightened immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an _______.

A) hypersensitivity
B) immunode?ciency
C) desensitization
D) transfusion reaction
E) autoimmune disease

Question 8

The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is ______.

A) prostaglandin
B) serotonin
C) leukotriene
D) platelet-activating factor
E) histamine

Question 9

The major category(ies) of hypersensitivity(ies) that typically involve(s) a B-cell immunoglobulin response include(s) _______.

A) type I only
B) type I and type IV
C) type IV only
D) type I, type II, and type III
E) type I, type II, type III, and type IV

Question 10

Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen?

A) Contactant
B) Inhalant
C) Injectant
D) Ingestant

Question 11

A chronic, local allergy such as hay fever is considered ______.

A) systemic anaphylactic
B) antibody-mediated
C) atopic
D) T-cell-mediated
E) delayed

Question 12

What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters the body for a second time?

A) Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
B) Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
C) Histamine acts on smooth muscle
D) Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
E) Degranulation

Question 13

Which event represents the process of releasing chemical mediators?

A) Prostaglandins causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
B) Degranulation
C) Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D) Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
E) Histamine acting on smooth muscle

Question 14

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) Transfusion reaction - type II hypersensitivity
B) Serum sickness - type III hypersensitivity
C) Hay fever - type IV hypersensitivity
D) Poison ivy dermatitis - type IV hypersensitivity
E) Food allergy - type I hypersensitivity

Question 15

Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen?

A) Degranulation
B) Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C) Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D) Histamine acting on smooth muscle
E) Prostaglandins causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

Question 16

The initial encounter with an allergen is called the _______ dose.

A) sensitizing
B) provocative
C) allergic
D) hypersensitivity
E) desensitizing

Question 17

Histamine causes all of the following except _______.

A) pruritis and headache
B) wheal and ?are reaction in skin
C) constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine
D) increased sensitivity to pain
E) relaxation of vascular smooth muscle

Question 18

The study of diseases associated with excesses and de?ciencies of the immune system is _______.

A) epidemiology
B) histopathology
C) hemopathology
D) humoralpathology
E) immunopathology

Question 19

Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen?

A) Inhalant
B) Injectant
C) Contactant
D) Ingestant

Question 20

Which of the following is not a possible outcome of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Sneezing
B) Rhinitis
C) Rashes
D) Contact dermatitis
E) Diarrhea

Question 21

Which of the following is not a target for immune complex deposition?

A) Joints
B) Blood vessels and skin
C) Heart and lungs
D) Kidneys
E) Brain

Question 22

A female who is Rh- _______.

A) is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn
B) can never have an Rh+ baby
C) is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status
D) inherited two dominant genes

Question 23

Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity?

A) It involves an immune complex reaction.
B) It involves production of IgE antibodies.
C) The Arthus reaction is a local response.
D) Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues.
E) Serum sickness is a systemic response.

Question 24

A seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens is ______.

A) asthma
B) anaphylaxis
C) atopic dermatitis
D) eczema
E) allergic rhinitis

Question 25

Contact dermatitis involves _______.

A) a sensitizing and provocative dose
B) an allergen entering the skin
C) T lymphocytes secreting in?ammatory cytokines
D) the production of itchy papules and blisters
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 26

Human blood types involve all of the following except _______.

A) MHC genes
B) genetically determined glycoprotein markers
C) genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors
D) ABO antigen markers
E) inheritance of two of three possible alleles

Question 27

Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes occurs in _______.

A) delayed hypersensitivity
B) anaphylaxis
C) hemolytic disease of the newborn
D) serum sickness

Question 28

All of the following are associated with IgE and mast-cell-mediated allergy except ______.

A) drug allergies
B) eczema
C) anaphylaxis
D) allergic asthma
E) systemic lupus erythematosus

Question 29

Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor, _______.

A) all other Rh+ fetuses are at risk
B) she can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn
C) she can never again have a low risk pregnancy
D) only future Rh- fetuses are at risk
E) None of the choices are correct.

Question 30

The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when _______.

A) fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ mother
B) fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother
C) maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus
D) fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother
E) maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus

Question 31

The serum of a person with blood type A and Rh- will have the ability to make which of the following antibodies?

A) Anti-B and anti-Rh
B) Anti-A and anti-Rh
C) Anti-B
D) Anti-A
E) Anti-A, anti-B, and anti-Rh

Question 32

What may result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes?

A) Host rejection of graft
B) Hypogammaglobulinemia
C) Graft versus host disease
D) Formation of autoantibodies

Question 33

Corticosteroids will _______.

A) inhibit the activity of lymphocytes
B) bind to histamine receptors on target organs
C) block synthesis of leukotrienes
D) reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles

Question 34

All of the following are involved in type II hypersensitivity except ______.

A) IgE
B) IgM
C) complement
D) foreign cells
E) IgG

Question 35

A person with O type blood _______.

A) lacks all of the alleles for ABO blood type
B) could not have the Rh factor
C) lacks A and B antigens
D) is called a universal recipient

Question 36

An antihistamine will _______.

A) reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles
B) block synthesis of leukotrienes
C) inhibit the activity of lymphocytes
D) bind to histamine receptors on target organs

Question 37

Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause _______.

A) recipient antibody activation of the complement cascade to attack the RBCs
B) fever and anemia
C) systemic shock and kidney failure
D) massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 38

Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of speci?c allergens are undergoing ______.

A) desensitization
B) tissue matching
C) degranulation
D) sensitization

Question 39

Epinephrine _______.

A) inhibits the activity of lymphocytes
B) causes desensitization
C) is an antihistamine
D) reverses constriction of airways

Question 40

A person who produces anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies will have blood type _______.

A) A
B) O
C) Rh
D) B
E) AB

Question 41

Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock, and death.

Question 42

Severe combined immunode?ciencies (SCIDs) are due to _______.

A) autoantibodies
B) delayed hypersensitivity
C) congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland
D) a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells
E) failure of B-cell development and maturity

Question 43

The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with prior sensitization due to tuberculosis infection.

Question 44

In the theory for allergic desensitization, which immunoglobulin blocks the allergen from binding with IgE?

A) IgD
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM

Question 45

All of the following are autoimmune diseases except _______.

A) rheumatoid arthritis
B) systemic lupus erythematosus
C) type I diabetes
D) Graves' disease
E) metastatic cancer

Question 46

Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a/an ______.

A) isograft
B) allograft
C) autograft
D) hypograft
E) xenograft

Question 47

During graft rejection, cytotoxic T cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign class I MHC receptors on the grafted cells.

Question 48

Degranulation of mast cells leads to _______.

A) decreased mucus production
B) lymph node swelling
C) constricted bronchioles
D) constriction of blood vessels

Question 49

Allergic rhinitis is also known as asthma.

Question 50

Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against _______.

A) sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane
B) cells in thyroid follicles
C) acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle
D) acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle
E) myelin sheath cells of the nervous system

Question 51

All of the following can result in acquired immune de?ciency except ______.

A) stress
B) radiation treatment
C) enzyme de?ciency
D) bacterial infection
E) malnutrition

Question 52

DiGeorge syndrome is the result of _______.

A) delayed hypersensitivity
B) congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland
C) failure of B-cell development and maturity
D) autoantibodies
E) a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells

Question 53

A person who is Rh- will have anti-Rh antibodies in his/her serum from early infancy.

Question 54

Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all of the following diseases except _______.

A) tuberculin reaction
B) myasthenia gravis
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) Graves' disease
E) multiple sclerosis

Question 55

An example of a secondary acquired immunode?ciency is _______.

A) AIDS
B) adenosine deaminase (ADA) de?ciency
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) agammaglobulinemia
E) SCID

Question 56

Autoimmunity is typically due to _______.

A) autoantibodies and T cells
B) a de?ciency in T-cell development
C) a transfusion reaction
D) IgE and mast cells
E) graft rejection

Question 57

Which of the following is not a possible explanation for the origin of autoimmune diseases?

A) Sequestered antigens
B) Forbidden clones
C) Molecular mimicry
D) The gut microbiome
E) All the choices are currently being investigated as possible explanations.

Question 58

In multiple sclerosis, autoantibodies attack _______.

A) acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle
B) myelin sheath cells of the nervous system
C) sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane
D) acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle
E) cells in thyroid follicles

Question 59

What can be a consequence of a genetic de?ciency in B-cell survival and maturity?

A) Formation of autoantibodies
B) Host rejection of graft
C) Graft versus host disease
D) Hypogammaglobulinemia

Question 60

Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives.

Question 61

Many men make antibodies to sperm, resulting in destruction of sperm to the point of sterility. What would be the likely origin of this autoimmune disease?

A) Since sperm are not made until after puberty, the immune system cannot scan the antigens on the sperm for immune tolerance. After sperm are made and the immune system sees them, they are recognized as foreign.
B) T helper cells erroneously identify sperm cells as foreign invaders, triggering the T cytotoxic cells to start killing sperm.
C) These antibodies are produced as a result of mutations in T lymphocytes, causing them to make large amounts of antibody.
D) Antigens on sperm cells are similar to antigens on a variety of bacteria like Streptococcus. After a strep throat caused by Streptococcus, the immune system produces antibodies to

Question 62

Infection with enteroviruses, such as rotavirus and cytomegalovirus, has been implicated in the onset of type I diabetes. This area of research involves the study of ______.

A) forbidden clones
B) the gut microbiome
C) sequestered antigens
D) molecular mimicry

Question 63

The allergen in poison ivy plants is an oil called urushiol.

Question 64

Eczema is an autoimmune disorder.

Question 65

You were out in the garage going through boxes when you were bitten by an a spider. You tell the doctor that the spider was tiny and black, causing the doctor to think perhaps that it was a black widow spider. The doctor gives you an injection of antibody to the spider venom to give you immediate protection. The antibody is produced in horses by injecting them with small doses of the spider venom, causing the horse's immune system to make large amounts of speci?c antibody to the antigen. The horse serum is then puri?ed before being given to humans.
A week later, you notice a red rash spreading away from the injection spot, where the doctor gave you the anti-venom shot. A few days later, the rash has spread and swelling in also present. You have joint pain as well as sore muscles all over your body. The lymph nodes in the armpit are
Swollen and painful. Going back to the doctor, he diagnoses you with _______.

A) a delayed type hypersensitivity mediated by cytotoxic T cells along with helper T cells
B) serum sickness
C) Arthus reaction
D) anaphylactic shock
E) a Staphylococcus infection related to the spider bite

Question 66

An effective test to determine whether an individual is allergic to a speci?c substance is to _______.

A) test for levels of IgE speci?c for the allergen
B) inject high levels of the allergen so see if the patient goes into anaphylactic shock
C) test for high levels of IgG in the serum
D) test for the allergen in the blood

Question 67

High levels of tryptase in the blood is indicative of _______.

A) a viral and/or fungal infection
B) high levels of degranulating mast cells suggesting an allergic reaction
C) overuse of dietary supplements
D) a bacterial infection

Question 68

Before a type II hypersensitivity can proceed, three immune components must be in place: complement, IgG, and IgM.

Question 69

A xenograft is graft tissue from a donor of one species transplanted to a recipient of another species.

Question 70

SCID is de?ned by a lack of functional B and T cells which eliminates protection by humoral and cell-mediated immunity. Which of the following is true?

A) A genetic defect disrupts the development of the lymphocytic cell lines.
B) A genetic mutation renders the individual incapable of removing a toxic DNA metabolite from lymphocytes, which ultimately destroys them.
C) Genes coding for B and T cell receptors are mutated so the cells are incapable of binding antigens.
D) Genes that code for interleukin receptors are mutated so the individual's B and T cells do not receive the activation signals, rendering them useless.
E) All of the choices describe cases of SCID.

Question 71

John, a Peace Corps worker in the country of Mali in Africa, was in a car accident while traveling through a rural area. He was treated at a tiny rural hospital, and due to his loss of blood, he required
A transfusion. John has B- blood type and has never received a transfusion before. Which statement
Is correct regarding this scenario?

A) He can be given types O or B, no matter whether Rh- or Rh+. At this point in time, he does not have anti-Rh antibody. O has no antigens on the blood cells, so he is also safe to
Receive that type in addition to his own B type.
B) He can be given A+ blood type in addition to B+. Rh- means that he makes no antibody to Rh.
C) The preferred blood type to give John, in addition to his own B type blood, would be AB. Both types of blood have the B antigen on the cells, so they would correspond to his own
Antigens. As for Rh, he can receive only Rh- blood since he would have a reaction against
Rh+)
D) He can safely receive O- blood even though he makes anti-A antibodies.

Question 72

Immunopathology is de?ned as _______.

A) the study of AIDS
B) the study of immunode?ciencies
C) the study of autoimmune diseases
D) the study of immune imbalance, whether hyper- or hypoactivity

Question 73

Autoimmune diseases and immunodeficiencies are studied and treated by immunopathologists.

Question 74

Predict why insect stings and medication injections more often provoke anaphylactic shock, as compared to other allergens found in food or in air.

A) Chemicals from insects cause a combination of antibody types to be produced, resulting in much larger amounts of total antibody.
B) The allergens go directly into the blood in large amounts, compared to allergens entering the digestive tract or respiratory tract.
C) Histamine is overproduced as a result of injected chemicals.
D) Chemicals injected as medications cause problems in immune response, resulting in a reduced immune coverage.

Question 75

AIDS is a secondary immunodeficiency disease that affects several types of immune cells.

Question 76

You have dermatitis triggered by a particular material in your socks. Your feet are covered with a really itchy rash, which has developed blisters over the last day or so. You had ?rst worn them two to three days ago, and you did not launder them after buying them at the store. Finding some antihistamine medication in your bathroom cabinet, you decide to take it to relieve the itching rash. Which statement is true?

A) The antihistamine will make the rash worse because it reacts with chemicals release by the lymphocytes in your skin, exacerbating the situation.
B) The rash will go away because the antihistamine neutralizes the histamine chemicals coming from mast cells in your skin.
C) The anti-histamine will have no effect on the rash because histamine is not the chemical mediator in this hypersensitivity.
D) The anti-histamine will have no effect because once a type I hypersensitivity kicks in, it will last for a few days.

Question 77

In systemic lupus erythematosis (called lupus), complexes of antibody and antigen form, and these immune complexes insert themselves into small blood vessels, joints, heart, and kidney, causing damage to the organ tissue. The course of the disease is unpredictable, with periods of illness alternating with remissions. How is lupus, a type III autoimmune disease, similar to the tuberculin reaction, a type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

A) Both lupus and the tuberculin reaction are immediate hypersensitivities, occurring within a few hours.
B) Both lupus and the tuberculin reaction involve large amounts of antibody production.
C) The mechanism of both lupus and the tuberculin reaction involve large amounts of in?ammatory chemicals released into tissue.
D) Both lupus and the tuberculin reaction utilize IgE in their mechanisms.

Question 78

A viral infection can lead to the development of type I diabetes.

Question 79

The leukocyte histamine-release test (LHRT) measures the amount of histamine released from the patient's mast cells and eosinophils when exposed to a speci?c allergen.

Question 80

The most common immunoglobulin deficiency is an IgG deficiency.