Deck 18: Respiratory System

Question 1

In the upright position, ventilation of the upper parts of the lung

A) is uniform from apex to base.
B) increases from about 1 1/2 to 2 times from upper third to lower third.
C) decreases from about 1 1/2 to 2 times from upper third to lower third.
D) has a gradient from anterior to posterior.

Answer 1

increases from about 1 1/2 to 2 times from upper third to lower third.

Question 2

With respect to a supply of lymphatics, the lungs are

A) similar in supply to most areas of the body.
B) void of supply.
C) lacking in supply.
D) rich in supply.

Answer 2

rich in supply.

Question 3

Where do alveoli first appear?

A) Alveolar sacs
B) Respiratory bronchioles
C) Lobar bronchi
D) Main stem bronchi

Answer 3

Respiratory bronchioles

Question 4

The volume of air breathed out in a normal breath is called

A) total lung capacity.
B) functional residual capacity.
C) residual volume.
D) tidal volume.

Question 5

In the upright position, blood flow

A) is uniform from apex to base.
B) is 3 to 5 times higher in the base than the upper part of the lung.
C) is 3 to 5 times higher in the upper part of the lung than the base.
D) is the same as in the supine position.

Question 6

The volume of air in the lungs at the end of a normal breath is called

A) total lung capacity.
B) functional residual capacity.
C) residual volume.
D) tidal volume.

Question 7

In the upright position, the ratio between ventilation and blood flow in the lungs is

A) ventilation exceeds blood flow anterior to posterior.
B) ventilation exceeds blood flow by 2:1 to 3:1 in the upper zones.
C) ventilation exceeds blood flow by 2:1 to 3:1 in the lower zones.
D) mixed uniformly from top to bottom.

Question 8

In the supine position, ventilation of the upper parts of the lung

A) has the same distribution as in the upright position.
B) increases from about 1 1/2 to 2 times from upper third to lower third.
C) decreases from about 1 1/2 to 2 times from upper third to lower third.
D) has a gradient from anterior to posterior.

Question 9

All of the following are true regarding compliance (as the term is used with respect to the lung) EXCEPT

A) it is the change in volume for a change in pressure.
B) it is the change in volume for a change in position.
C) it is the measurement of the distensibility of the lungs.
D) it can be altered by diseases of lung parenchyma.

Question 10

Pulmonary emboli most often arise from

A) the left side of the heart.
B) the carotid arteries.
C) the deep venous system of the lower extremities.
D) the intricate venous system of the liver.

Question 11

There were 100,000 particles in an MAA dose that a technologist prepared for a normal lung scan. The scan resulted in

A) a homogeneous distribution of activity.
B) the appearance of increased intensity.
C) a blotchy appearance.
D) the appearance of decreased intensity.

Question 12

The diameter of macroaggregated albumin (MAA) particles is

A) 0.05 to 0.10 µm.
B) 0.5 to 5 µm.
C) 10 to 90 µm.
D) 1 to 2 m.

Question 13

In an adult human, what is the approximate number of capillaries to which each alveolus gives rise?

A) 7 to 10
B) 35
C) 1000
D) 250 to 300 million

Question 14

The diameter of a normal capillary is approximately

A) 0.05 to 0.1 µm.
B) 7 to 10 µm.
C) 30 to 40 µm.
D) 45 µm.

Question 15

The volume of air left in the lungs after complete exhalation is called

A) total lung capacity.
B) functional residual capacity.
C) residual volume.
D) tidal volume.

Question 16

In a dose of 1 to 4 mCi of ^99mTc-MAA, there are approximately 200,000 to 700,000 particles. This dose

A) should provide a satisfactory amount of particles for a pediatric patient.
B) should provide a satisfactory perfusion image in a normal patient.
C) should be stored for 3 hours prior to injecting a patient.
D) should not be used.

Question 17

The volume of air in the lungs when as much air has been inhaled as possible is called

A) total lung capacity.
B) functional residual capacity.
C) residual volume.
D) tidal volume.

Question 18

A patient has a nuclear medicine lung scan. Once the particles have been injected, the technologist notices activity in the brain and other organs. The technologist recognizes this as

A) a right-to-left shunt.
B) normal.
C) too many particles injected.
D) an expired kit.

Question 19

The fate of MAA particles is that they are broken up

A) by and removed by an anticoagulant.
B) and eliminated via the urinary system.
C) and removed by the liver and spleen.
D) and removed via the bowel.

Question 20

One-half dose (reduced number of particles) should be given to patients with all of the following EXCEPT

A) pulmonary hypertension.
B) right-to-left shunts.
C) a pneumonectomy.
D) bronchitis.

Question 21

All of the following are indications for lung scintigraphy, EXCEPT

A) evaluate lung transplants.
B) evaluate congenital heart or lung disease.
C) determine the likelihood for pulmonary embolism.
D) differentiate lung neoplasms.

Question 22

In an effort to prevent the release of radioactive xenon during the washout phase of a lung ventilation study, commercial ventilation units use

A) soda lime crystals.
B) calcium sulfate crystals.
C) cobalt chloride crystals.
D) activated charcoal.

Question 23

Which ventilation agent has the longest half-life?

A) (^99mTc-DTPA Aerosol)
B) (¹³³Xe)
C) (^99mTc MAA)
D) All have equal half-lives

Question 24

Having patients in the supine position when being injected with MAA is important because

A) it will make up for any variance in the number of particles.
B) there will be a larger proportion of the particles distributed toward the bases.
C) there will be a more homogenous distribution of particles.
D) there will be a larger proportion of particles distributed toward the apices.

Question 25

Because of the importance of the washout phase in a xenon ventilation study, it is technically

A) advantageous to perform the ventilation prior to the perfusion.
B) advantageous to perform the perfusion prior to the ventilation.
C) advantageous to perform the ventilation with SPECT.
D) unimportant to perform the perfusion prior to the ventilation.

Question 26

Which of the following is part of the patient preparation for lung scintigraphy?

A) Recent chest x-ray (within 24 hours)
B) Preceding meal withheld prior to contrast injection
C) NPO for a minimum of 8 hours prior to the exam
D) Pre-medications for increased uptake of radionuclide

Question 27

A technologist performs a lung scan that demonstrates a relatively normal ventilation scan and is accompanied by a perfusion scan demonstrating segmental defects. The technologist should

A) check to see if the patient received the injection while in the upright position.
B) check the particle size of the MAA.
C) recognize this as a pattern for a possible PE.
D) recognize this as a pattern for COPD.

Question 28

A common procedure for lung imaging is to perform the posterior view first and then each of the other views for the same time that it took for the posterior view. This procedure is especially helpful because

A) of shine-through from the posterior to the anterior.
B) of shine-through from the contralateral lung during lateral imaging.
C) of shine-through from the contralateral base during oblique imaging.
D) the lungs are different sizes.

Question 29

In a ventilation single-breath study, the single-breath image following a bolus of xenon gas demonstrates

A) tidal volume.
B) total lung capacity.
C) functional residual capacity.
D) residual volume.

Question 30

If the image of an aerosol ventilation study shows activity in the bronchi and the stomach, the technologist

A) checks the particle size of the aerosol to be certain it is within the limits.
B) performed the perfusion study first.
C) continues with the study because this is normal.
D) adjusts the nebulizer flow rate.