Deck 14: Cellular Reproduction

Question 1

The separation of the entire cell and its cytoplasm into two daughter cells is known as _______.

A)meiosis
B)cytokinesis
C)chromokinesis
D)chromatosis
E)mitosis

Answer 1

B

Question 2

The period in the cell cycle between the end of cell division and the beginning of DNA synthesis is called the _____ phase.

A)G₁
B)S
C)G₂
D)M
E)G₀

Answer 2

A

Question 3

What property below do stem cells possess that is NOT found in most other cells?

A)They exhibit synchronous cell division.
B)They do not replicate their DNA before cell division.
C)The two daughter cells have different properties or fates.
D)They exhibit symmetric cell division.
E)They secrete lipids and glycolipids.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

The separation of duplicated chromosomes into two daughter nuclei is known as ________.

A)meiosis
B)cytokinesis
C)chromokinesis
D)chromatosis
E)mitosis

Question 5

What is the average length of M phase in mammalian cells?

A)about 1 hour
B)about 10 minutes
C)about 10 hours
D)4 hours and 35 minutes
E)about a day

Question 6

Which cells typically have very short cell cycles on the order of less than 30 minutes?

A)cells in a cleaving frog embryo
B)cells in mammalian liver tissue
C)mammalian muscle cells
D)both cells in a cleaving frog embryo and mammalian muscle cells
E)nerve cells

Question 7

The stages through which a cell passes from one cell division to the next constitute the _________.

A)cell cycle
B)life cycle
C)biocycle
D)energy cycle
E)regeneration cycle

Question 8

The total length of the cell cycle of cells in a cell culture is 24 hours. M phase is found to be 1 hour, S phase is found to be 9 hours and G₂ is found to be 4.5 hours. How long is G₁?

A)24 hours
B)9.5 hours
C)9 hours
D)1 hour
E)4.5 hours

Question 9

What stimulus can induce liver cells to proliferate?

A)interaction with an appropriate antigen
B)interaction with an appropriate antibody
C)surgical removal of part of the liver
D)a buildup of bile in the liver
E)glycogen buildup in the liver

Question 10

When do most of the preparations for mitosis occur, including such activities as DNA replication?

A)cytokinesis
B)M phase
C)interphase
D)telophase
E)enterophase

Question 11

DNA replication and the production of additional histones occur during what part of the cell cycle?

A)G₁
B)S
C)G₂
D)M
E)G₀

Question 12

Based on cell activities readily visible in the light microscope, there are two major cell cycle phases, ________ and __________.

A)M phase, cytokinesis
B)interphase, cytokinesis
C)M phase, C phase
D)M phase, interphase
E)C phase, interphase

Question 13

What must happen in order for a cell to move from G₀ to G₁ phase?

A)It must divide.
B)It must generate an external signal.
C)It must receive a growth-promoting signal.
D)It must divide and receive a growth-promoting signal.
E)It must grow extremely large.

Question 14

What disease can be defined as resulting from a breakdown in a cell's ability to regulate its own division?

A)multiple sclerosis
B)cancer
C)emphysema
D)diabetes
E)heart disease

Question 15

Cells that have stopped dividing and are arrested in a stage preceding replication of cytoplasmic contents and organelles are said to be in ______ state.

A)G₁ phase
B)S phase
C)G₂ phase
D)M phase
E)G₀ phase

Question 16

What types of non-stem cells also engage in asymmetric or unequal divisions?

A)formation of oocytes and polar bodies
B)formation of spermatogonia
C)division of red blood cells
D)division of B cells
E)division of liver cells

Question 17

What is the average length of interphase in mammalian cells?

A)It is exactly 10 hours in all cells.
B)It is 12 hours long.
C)There is not a good average since it depends on the cell type and conditions.
D)It may last up to a day.
E)On average, it lasts about 3 hours.

Question 18

Which cells typically have cell cycles lasting several months?

A)cells in a cleaving frog embryo
B)cells in mammalian liver tissue
C)mammalian embryo cells
D)both cells in a cleaving frog embryo and mammalian embryo cells
E)nerve cells

Question 19

What evidence suggests that a cell spends the majority of its time in interphase?

A)Interphase is more useful.
B)Only a small percentage of cells in a tissue or cell culture are seen to be in mitosis at any given time.
C)A large percentage of cells in a tissue or cell culture are seen to be in mitosis at any given time.
D)A moderate percentage of cells in a tissue or cell culture are seen to be in mitosis at any given time.
E)Mitosis is too intricate a process to last very long.

Question 20

Which of the cells below normally possess a relatively high level of mitotic activity?

A)stem cells of various adult tissues
B)hematopoietic stem cells that give rise to red and white blood cells
C)stem cells at the base of numerous epithelia that line the body cavities
D)the relatively unspecialized cells found near the tips of plant roots and stems
E)all of these are correct

Question 21

You are carrying out experiments in cell fusion by fusing together cells at different stages of the cell cycle. You then observe the behavior of each nucleus residing in the combined cytoplasm of the two cells. Which of the following responses would occur if you fused an S-phase cell to a cell in the M phase?

A)The nucleus from the M phase cell would start to replicate its DNA.
B)The S-phase nucleus would undergo premature chromosomal condensation to form a set of elongated compacted chromosomes.
C)The M phase nucleus would be affected in such a way that its compacted chromosomes decondense.
D)The chromatin in the S-phase nuclei would be compacted, but pulverized chromosomal fragments would form.
E)The S-phase nucleus would undergo premature chromosomal condensation; the compacted chromosomes would be visibly doubled.

Question 22

How would you describe the orientation of the two centrioles of the centrosome relative to each other?

A)oriented at right angles
B)oriented linearly
C)oriented in a stacked manner
D)reversed
E)converse

Question 23

Movement past the transition point near the end of G₂ that moves cells on to mitosis requires cdc2 activation by _______.

A)Na⁺ ions
B)mitotic cyclins
C)ATP
D)Na⁺-K⁺ ATPase
E)mitotic chromatin

Question 24

The start of centrosome duplication begins at the ______ transition time.

A)M-G₁
B)G₁-S
C)S-G₂
D)G₂-M
E)G₁-M

Question 25

You are carrying out experiments in cell fusion by fusing together cells at different stages of the cell cycle. You then observe the behavior of each nucleus residing in the combined cytoplasm of the two cells. Which of the following responses would occur if you fused a G₂ cell to a cell in the M phase?

A)The nucleus from the G₂ cell would start to replicate its DNA.
B)The G₂ nucleus would undergo premature chromosomal condensation to form a set of elongated, single compacted chromosomes.
C)The M phase nucleus would be affected in such a way that its compacted chromosomes decondense.
D)The G₂ nucleus would undergo premature chromosomal condensation, but the compacted chromosomes would be visibly doubled.

Question 26

What molecule is responsible for holding sister chromatids together through G₂ and into mitosis?

A)compressin
B)cohesin
C)condensin
D)connexin
E)contractin

Question 27

As animal cells enter mitosis, their microtubules disassemble and then reassemble forming the mitotic spindle with a focus at the ________, a special microtubule-organizing structure.

A)kinetosome
B)centrosome
C)kinetochore
D)centromere
E)chromosome

Question 28

What triggers the entry of a yeast cell into mitosis?

A)the addition of inhibitory phosphate groups to Cyclin-Cdk by the Cdc25 phosphatase
B)the removal of inhibitory phosphate groups from Cyclin-Cdk by the Cdc25 phosphatase
C)the addition of inhibitory phosphate groups to Cyclin-Cdk by the Wee1 kinase
D)the removal of inhibitory phosphate groups from Cyclin-Cdk by the Wee1 kinase
E)the removal of phosphate groups from the Wee1 kinase

Question 29

At the outer surface of the centromere of each chromatid is a proteinaceous, buttonlike structure called the __________.

A)primary constriction
B)residence
C)kinetochore
D)proteasome
E)kinetosome

Question 30

What triggers the start of centrosome duplication?

A)phosphorylation of a centrosomal protein by ATPase
B)phosphorylation of a centrosomal protein by Cdk2
C)dephosphorylation of a centrosomal protein by Cdk2
D)dephosphorylation of a centrosomal protein by ATPase
E)phosphorylation of a centrosomal protein focal adhesion kinase

Question 31

What happens if condensin protein is removed from frog egg extract used to treat chromosomes in vitro?

A)Compaction of the chromosomes continues as normal.
B)Compaction of the chromosomes occurs more quickly than normal.
C)Compaction of the chromosomes is prevented.
D)The DNA expands further and fills the entire cell.
E)Compaction of the chromosomes occurs but occurs more slowly.

Question 32

What appears to be responsible for the tighter cohesin-mediated adhesion between chromosomes seen at centromeres rather than along the chromosome arms?

A)elevated phosphorylation
B)a kinase found at the centromere that phosphorylates cohesin
C)a phosphatase found at the centromere that removes phosphate groups from cohesin
D)a phosphatase found in the chromosome arms that removes phosphate groups from cohesin
E)a phosphatase found in the chromosome arms that adds phosphate groups to cohesin

Question 33

What activates condensin at the onset of mitosis?

A)Na⁺ ions
B)phosphorylation of several of its subunits by the Cdk-cyclin that drives cells from G₂ into mitosis
C)phosphorylation of several of its subunits by the Cdk-cyclin that drives cells from G₁ into mitosis
D)phosphorylation of several of its subunits by the Cdk-cyclin that drives cells from G₁ into S phase
E)dephosphorylation of several of its subunits by the Cdk-cyclin that drives cells from G₂ into mitosis

Question 34

What protein is required to drive the mammalian cell through all cell cycle stages?

A)Cdk2
B)Cdk1
C)Wee1 kinase
D)Cdk4
E)cyklin D1

Question 35

What multiprotein complex has recently been shown to play a significant role in chromosome compaction?

A)compressin
B)condensin
C)elastin
D)loopin
E)mitosin

Question 36

The process of centriole replication begins in the cytoplasm with the appearance of a small ________.

A)pericentriole
B)procentriole
C)precentriole
D)procentrosome
E)pericentrosome

Question 37

The first transition point in yeast cells that commits the cells to entering S phase occurs just before the end of ___ and is called _______.

A)G₂, START
B)G₁, MPF
C)G₂, MPF
D)G₁, BEGIN
E)G₁, START

Question 38

The regulatory subunit of maturation-promoting factor ________.

A)transfers a phosphate group to certain serine and threonine residues of specific protein substrates
B)is called cyclin because its concentration rises and falls predictably as the cell cycle progresses
C)converts ATP to ADP
D)converts ADP to ATP
E)transfers a phosphate group to certain tyrosine residues of specific protein substrates

Question 39

Checkpoints in the cell cycle _______________.

A)recognize DNA damage
B)detect cellular abnormalities
C)can "halt" progression through the cell cycle if abnormalities in replication are detected
D)may allow cells to become senescent
E)all are correct choices

Question 40

When is a kinetochore assembled on the centromere?

A)prophase
B)anaphase
C)telophase
D)metaphase
E)interphase

Question 41

What initiates the disassembly of the three major components of the nuclear envelope?

A)phosphorylation of key substrates by mitotic kinases, particularly cyclin B-Cdk1
B)dephosphorylation of key substrates by mitotic phosphatases, particularly cyclin B-Cdk1
C)a cascade begun by ATP synthase
D)phosphorylation of key substrates by mitotic phosphatases, particularly cyclin B-Cdk
E)methylation of key substrates by mitotic kinases, particularly cyclin B-Cdk1

Question 42

What are the three major components of the nuclear envelope?

A)nuclear pores, nuclear lamina, nuclear membrane aggregates
B)RER, nuclear lamina, Na+-K+ pump
C)nuclear pore complexes, nuclear lamina, nuclear membranes
D)mitotic kinases, nuclear lamina, nuclear pore complexes
E)phospholipids, nuclear pore complexes, nucleoplasm

Question 43

The nuclear pore complexes are disassembled _________.

A)as the interactions between nucleoporin complexes are disrupted and the proteins dissociate into the surrounding medium
B)by depolymerization of the lamin filaments
C)as their integrity is disrupted mechanically as holes are torn in the complexes by cytoplasmic dyneins associated with the outer nuclear membrane
D)by cytoplasmic dyneins
E)by cytoplasmic microtubules and microfilamnets

Question 44

Even before cytokinesis has been completed, the two centrioles of a daughter cell disengage, an event that is triggered by the enzyme _________, which becomes activated late in mitosis.

A)invertase
B)centriolase
C)separase
D)disengagase
E)activase

Question 45

Which stage of mitosis starts as sister chromatids split apart and begin to move toward opposite poles?

A)prophase
B)metaphase
C)prometaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase

Question 46

The nuclear lamina is disassembled _________.

A)as the interactions between nucleoporin complexes are disrupted and the proteins dissociate into the surrounding medium
B)by depolymerization of the lamin filaments
C)as its integrity is disrupted mechanically as holes are torn in the complexes by cytoplasmic dyneins associated with the outer nuclear membrane
D)by cytoplasmic dyneins
E)by cytoplasmic microtubules and microfilaments

Question 47

Which organelles become fragmented during mitosis in mammalian cells?

A)mitochondria
B)Golgi complex
C)ER
D)peroxisomes
E)chloroplasts

Question 48

What is the event that begins prometaphase?

A)the complete compaction of the chromosomes
B)the disappearance of the nucleolus
C)the dissolution of the nuclear envelope
D)the reappearance of the nucleolus
E)the connection of chromosomes to spindle fibers

Question 49

What drives the separation of centrosomes?

A)motor proteins associated with microfilaments
B)motor proteins associated with adjacent microtubules
C)contraction of individual microfilaments
D)sliding of adjacent microfilaments over one another
E)contraction of adjacent microtubules

Question 50

What permits the interaction between the cytoplasmically-formed mitotic spindle and the chromosomes to occur?

A)nuclear envelope breakdown
B)nucleosome breakdown
C)nucleolus breakdown
D)chromatin dissolution
E)chromosome condensation

Question 51

Which of the following is involved with the machinery that links kinetochores to dynamic microtubules?

A)motor proteins
B)a protein complex called Ndc80
C)the KMN network
D)curling microtubule protofilaments
E)all of these are correct

Question 52

What molecular motor uses microtubules to disassemble the nuclear membrane?

A)myosin
B)kinesin
C)dynein
D)calpain
E)calmodulin

Question 53

The integrity of the nuclear membrane is disrupted _________.

A)as the interactions between nucleoporin complexes are disrupted and the proteins dissociate into the surrounding medium
B)by depolymerization of the lamin filaments
C)as its integrity is disrupted mechanically as holes are torn into it by cytoplasmic dyneins associated with the outer nuclear membrane
D)by cytoplasmic kinesins
E)by cytoplasmic microtubules and microfilaments

Question 54

How does securin get its name?

A)Securin secures chromosomes to the cell membrane.
B)Securin secures the attachment between sister chromatids.
C)Securin determines which substances can enter the nucleus and which cannot.
D)Securin secures the binding of the kinetochore to the chromosome.
E)Securin attaches kinetochores to the spindle.

Question 55

Microtubules are nucleated in the vicinity of the centrosomes if cells possess centrosomes. Where do they nucleate in cells lacking centrosomes?

A)in the vicinity of the nucleolus
B)in the vicinity of the mitochondria
C)in the vicinity of the chromosomes
D)in the vicinity of the cell membrane
E)in the vicinity of the lysosomes

Question 56

What is an alternative to the classical view of the fate of the membranous portion of the nuclear envelope?

A)fragmentation into a population of small vesicles that disperse throughout the mitotic cell
B)absorption of the membranes of the nuclear envelope into the membranes of the Golgi complex
C)absorption of the membranes of the nuclear envelope into the membranes of the peroxisomes
D)absorption of the membranes of the nuclear envelope into the membranes of the ER
E)absorption of the membranes of the nuclear envelope into the membranes of the nucleoplasm

Question 57

The sunburst arrangement of microtubules that forms around each centrosome during early prophase is called ________.

A)a sunflower
B)an arnost
C)an aster
D)an astral fiber
E)a barrel

Question 58

The current view of the fate of the ER during mitosis is that ________.

A)the ER network becomes membrane sheets which are divided between the daughter cells
B)the ER is broken into its component macromolecules during mitosis, and it is built up from scratch after mitosis
C)the ER is broken up into small vesicles that reassemble later
D)the ER becomes part of the Golgi complex during mitosis
E)the ER joins with mitochondria at the beginning of mitosis

Question 59

What controls the progression of a cell from G₂ to M?

A)mitotic cyclin B-Cdk1
B)synthetic Cdk
C)the spindle
D)chromosome compaction
E)mitotic cyclin A- Cpk

Question 60

Which of the following multiprotein complexes acts primarily during interphase to ubiquitinate proteins and target them for destruction by a proteasome?

A)SCF
B)APC
C)anaphase promoting complex
D)both SCF and APC
E)proteasomal activating complex

Question 61

What occurs during pairing of chromosomes in prophase of meiosis I that increases genetic variability?

A)further condensation of chromosomes
B)genetic recombination between homologous chromosomes
C)lots of mutations
D)chromosomes lose lots of fragments
E)gene duplication

Question 62

What is the name given to the site at which a dividing plant cell will build its cell division plane?

A)Pre-mitosis band
B)prophase band
C)preprophase band
D)telophase band

Question 63

The flux of which ion appears to play a role in triggering Piezo1-mediated cell division in stretched epithelial cell layers?

A)potassium
B)sodium
C)magnesium
D)calcium

Question 64

The mechanosensitive ion channel which drives cell division in epithelial cell layers is:

A)a trimer of Piezo1 subunits forming a channel with a central pore and two long curved arms
B)a dimer of Piezo1 subunits forming a channel with a central pore and two long curved arms
C)a trimer of Piezo1 subunits forming a channel with a central pore and three long curved arms
D)a trimer of Piezo2 subunits forming a channel with a central pore and two long curved arms
E)a dimer of Piezo2 subunits forming a channel with a central pore and three long curved arms

Question 65

On occasion, the two kinetochores of sister chromatids will become attached to microtubules from the same spindle pole; this condition is referred to as ________.

A)osteosarcoma
B)systolic attachment
C)syntelic attachment
D)opposite chromatid attachment
E)synthetisism

Question 66

At what stage of meiosis are vertebrate eggs usually fertilized?

A)prophase II
B)metaphase I
C)interkinesis
D)metaphase II
E)anaphase I

Question 67

By which process are gametes produced from a gametophyte?

A)meiosis
B)cytokinesis
C)mitosis
D)fission
E)replication

Question 68

What usually happens to vertebrate eggs immediately after they have been fertilized?

A)Cytokinesis begins.
B)They start to grow.
C)Mitosis begins.
D)Meiosis is completed.
E)The egg sheds lots of cytoplasm.

Question 69

What is the first step in genetic recombination?

A)lengthening of the chromosomes
B)the introduction of single-stranded breaks in aligned DNA molecules
C)the introduction of double-stranded breaks in aligned DNA molecules
D)the accurate alignment of DNA molecules
E)the exchange of pieces of DNA between homologous chromosomes

Question 70

___________ in males and _______ in females undergo mitosis giving rise to the cells that will carry out meiosis and eventually produce mature gametes.

A)Oogonia, spermatogonia
B)Spermatogonia, oocytes
C)Spermatogonia, oogonia
D)Oogonia, spermatocytes
E)Spermatocytes, oocytes

Question 71

What is the name of the enzyme that responds to the lack of bipolar tension when both chromatids are attached to microtubules from the same spindle pole, and helps to correct the abnormality?

A)streptokinase
B)Aurora B kinase
C)Cdc kinase
D)protein kinase
E)tubulin kinase

Question 72

In the human female, after their long arrest, when do oocytes resume meiosis?

A)just prior to ovulation
B)prior to birth
C)between the ages of 4 and 6
D)at the end of each menstrual cycle
E)just after birth

Question 73

Cells that have a single set of chromosomes are said to have a _______ number of chromosomes; cells that contain two full sets of chromosomes are said to have a ______ number of chromosomes.

A)diploid, haploid
B)haploid, diploid
C)diploid, diploid
D)haploid, haploid
E)monoploid, polyploid

Question 74

Organisms in which meiotic divisions are closely linked to gamete formation, as in the case where meiosis occurs just prior to the differentiation of the spermatozoa, exhibit ___________.

A)initial meiosis
B)terminal meiosis
C)zygotic meiosis
D)sporic meiosis
E)intermediate meiosis

Question 75

In the human female, when is prophase I of meiosis initiated?

A)at puberty
B)prior to birth
C)between the ages of 4 and 6
D)at the beginning of each menstrual cycle
E)at the end of each menstrual cycle

Question 76

Which word below characterizes the adult generation that is produced after zygotic meiosis?

A)diploid
B)haploid
C)polyploid
D)aneuploid

Question 77

When do homologous regions of DNA in homologous chromosomes first associate?

A)leptotene
B)zygotene
C)pachytene
D)diplotene
E)diakinesis

Question 78

Regarding the formation of the cell wall partition between two newly created daughter plant cells, which statement is INCORRECT?

A)cell wall formation begins in the center of the cell and moves laterally
B)a simpler precursor known as the cell disc is formed first
C)Golgi-derived vesicles play a role in forming the new cell wall
D)the assembly of proteins required during the cell wall partition formation is known as the phragmoplast

Question 79

Epithelial cell division and turnover is thought to be regulated through the activity of:

A)voltage-gated channels
B)ligand-gated channels
C)mechano-gated channels
D)all are correct choices

Question 80

What is the name of the process during which chromosome number is reduced so that each cell produced has a haploid number of chromosomes?

A)mitosis
B)meiosis
C)cytokinesis
D)sexual differentiation
E)meitosis