Deck 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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Deck 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis
1
Which of the following can neutralize dangerous free radicals within the body?
A) nucleotides from DNA
B) antioxidants from dietary fruits and vegetables
C) carbohydrates from dietary rice and pasta
D) hormones from the ovaries and testes
A) nucleotides from DNA
B) antioxidants from dietary fruits and vegetables
C) carbohydrates from dietary rice and pasta
D) hormones from the ovaries and testes
B
2
Nucleotides in opposing strands of DNA that bind to each other are called
A) semiconservative.
B) complementary.
C) conjoined.
D) sister chromatids.
A) semiconservative.
B) complementary.
C) conjoined.
D) sister chromatids.
B
3
The two halves of a duplicated chromosome are called ________ (two words).
sister chromatids
4
________ (two words)is the enzyme that assists in DNA synthesis.
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5
Which term describes a cancerous tumor?
A) benign
B) carcinogenic
C) malignant
D) oncogenic
A) benign
B) carcinogenic
C) malignant
D) oncogenic
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6
Which of the following is not a known carcinogen?
A) certain viruses
B) ultraviolet light
C) cigarette smoke
D) pet dander
A) certain viruses
B) ultraviolet light
C) cigarette smoke
D) pet dander
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7
Free radicals remove ________ from other molecules.
A) protons
B) neutrons
C) electrons
D) photons
A) protons
B) neutrons
C) electrons
D) photons
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8
The process by which cells of a malignant tumor can break away and start new cancers at distant locations is called ________.
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9
Consider a strand of DNA with the sequence GAATTCGGCA. What is the sequence of the complementary strand?
A) ACGGCTTAAG
B) AGGCCTAATG
C) CTTAAGCCGT
D) GAATTCGGCA
A) ACGGCTTAAG
B) AGGCCTAATG
C) CTTAAGCCGT
D) GAATTCGGCA
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10
Which of the following is a feature of DNA?
A) Adenine (A) forms a base pair with cytosine (C).
B) The backbone of each strand is composed of alternating sugar and phosphate groups.
C) Complementary strands are held together by ionic bonds.
D) DNA remains condensed in a short linear form both before and after cell division.
A) Adenine (A) forms a base pair with cytosine (C).
B) The backbone of each strand is composed of alternating sugar and phosphate groups.
C) Complementary strands are held together by ionic bonds.
D) DNA remains condensed in a short linear form both before and after cell division.
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11
In a certain species of animal, 33% of the bases in its DNA are A. What percent of the bases are C?
A) 8.5%
B) 17%
C) 33%
D) 34%
A) 8.5%
B) 17%
C) 33%
D) 34%
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12
What is the name of the process by which cancer cells break off of tumors and spread to other parts of the body?
A) angiogenesis
B) carcinogenesis
C) metastasis
D) mutagenesis
A) angiogenesis
B) carcinogenesis
C) metastasis
D) mutagenesis
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13
The term "semiconservative replication" refers to the fact that
A) DNA is created from only four of nine available nucleotides.
B) the DNA molecule includes a parental strand and newly created DNA strand.
C) DNA is not just one strand but two complementary strands.
D) the mode of DNA replication is only tentatively described.
A) DNA is created from only four of nine available nucleotides.
B) the DNA molecule includes a parental strand and newly created DNA strand.
C) DNA is not just one strand but two complementary strands.
D) the mode of DNA replication is only tentatively described.
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14
________ is the cause of about one-third of all cancer deaths.
A) Smoking tobacco
B) Exposure to viruses
C) Exposure to ultraviolet light
D) Exposure to high-energy radiation
A) Smoking tobacco
B) Exposure to viruses
C) Exposure to ultraviolet light
D) Exposure to high-energy radiation
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15
In a bacterial species, 20% of the bases in its DNA are C. What percent of the bases are G?
A) 80%
B) 40%
C) 20%
D) 10%
A) 80%
B) 40%
C) 20%
D) 10%
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16
What term describes a harmless, noncancerous or precancerous tumor?
A) benign
B) carcinogenic
C) malignant
D) metastatic
A) benign
B) carcinogenic
C) malignant
D) metastatic
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17
What are the two halves of a duplicated chromosome called?
A) alleles
B) centromeres
C) homologous chromosomes
D) sister chromatids
A) alleles
B) centromeres
C) homologous chromosomes
D) sister chromatids
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18
Cancer cells within which of the following biopsy samples would be the best indicator that the cancer has metastasized and is circulating through the bloodstream?
A) liver
B) lymph node
C) pancreas
D) ovary
A) liver
B) lymph node
C) pancreas
D) ovary
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19
Which of the following is a risk factor for colon cancer?
A) advanced age
B) high-fiber diet
C) asbestos inhalation
D) male gender
A) advanced age
B) high-fiber diet
C) asbestos inhalation
D) male gender
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20
What is the name for the region toward the middle of a replicated chromosome where sister chromatids are connected?
A) centriole
B) centromere
C) karyotype
D) chromatid
A) centriole
B) centromere
C) karyotype
D) chromatid
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21
During which part of mitosis does the nuclear envelope break down?
A) anaphase
B) metaphase
C) prophase
D) telophase
A) anaphase
B) metaphase
C) prophase
D) telophase
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22
Bacteria are single cells that replicate themselves by binary fission, resulting in genetically identical daughter cells. These cells undergo
A) sexual reproduction.
B) asexual reproduction.
C) fertilization.
D) condensation.
A) sexual reproduction.
B) asexual reproduction.
C) fertilization.
D) condensation.
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23
A cell plate forms during which process?
A) cytokinesis in an animal cell
B) cytokinesis in a plant cell
C) mitosis in an animal cell
D) mitosis in a plant cell
A) cytokinesis in an animal cell
B) cytokinesis in a plant cell
C) mitosis in an animal cell
D) mitosis in a plant cell
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24
Most organelles duplicate during
A) prophase of mitosis.
B) telophase of mitosis.
C) the S phase of interphase.
D) the G1 phase of interphase.
A) prophase of mitosis.
B) telophase of mitosis.
C) the S phase of interphase.
D) the G1 phase of interphase.
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25
Which carbohydrate is used to create the cell wall during cytokinesis in plant cells?
A) cellulose
B) sucrose
C) glucose
D) lactose
A) cellulose
B) sucrose
C) glucose
D) lactose
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26
If a double-stranded DNA molecule is like a twisted rope ladder with handrails and steps, what would the steps in the ladder represent?
A) phosphate groups
B) sugar (deoxyribose) molecules
C) nitrogenous bases
D) DNA polymerase
A) phosphate groups
B) sugar (deoxyribose) molecules
C) nitrogenous bases
D) DNA polymerase
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27
During which phase of mitosis does the cytoplasm divide?
A) prophase
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) telophase
A) prophase
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) telophase
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28
During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate to opposite poles of the cell?
A) prophase
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) telophase
A) prophase
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) telophase
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29

DNA polymerase moves along the length of the unwound helix, starting at the end of one strand and finishing at the end of the other strand. As shown in this figure, what is the result of this phenomenon?
A) One resulting double strand of DNA is composed of new DNA, and one is composed of parental DNA.
B) Free nucleotides are added to one strand of parental DNA but not to the other.
C) The DNA polymerase moves toward the unwound helix on one strand of DNA and away from it on the other strand.
D) DNA polymerase is destroyed as it binds nucleotides to form each daughter strand.
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30
Which of the following is the correct order of events in mitosis?
A) anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase
B) anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
C) metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase
D) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
A) anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase
B) anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
C) metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase
D) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
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31

Use the diagram to complete this sentence. Microtubules connect centrioles to ________ during mitosis.
A) the nuclear envelope
B) uncondensed DNA
C) cytoplasm
D) centromeres
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32
Which of the following is a phase that occurs during mitosis?
A) first gap phase
B) metaphase
C) second gap phase
D) S phase
A) first gap phase
B) metaphase
C) second gap phase
D) S phase
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33
Which of the following is the correct order of events in the cell cycle?
A) G?, G?, S, mitosis, cytokinesis
B) G?, S, G?, mitosis, cytokinesis
C) S, G?, G?, cytokinesis, mitosis
D) S, G?, G?, mitosis, cytokinesis
A) G?, G?, S, mitosis, cytokinesis
B) G?, S, G?, mitosis, cytokinesis
C) S, G?, G?, cytokinesis, mitosis
D) S, G?, G?, mitosis, cytokinesis
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34
Which type of cell division produces daughter cells that are identical to the original cell?
A) meiosis in animals
B) meiosis in plants
C) mitosis in animals
D) meiosis in bacteria
A) meiosis in animals
B) meiosis in plants
C) mitosis in animals
D) meiosis in bacteria
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35
Why do chromosomes resemble the letter X when viewed during metaphase?
A) Because they all appear and function as X chromosomes at that stage.
B) Because there are two sister chromatids joined at a point in the middle (the centromere).
C) Because microtubules encircle and attach pairs of chromosomes to each other at the centromere.
D) Because each X-shaped structure is actually four chromosomes joined at the centromere.
A) Because they all appear and function as X chromosomes at that stage.
B) Because there are two sister chromatids joined at a point in the middle (the centromere).
C) Because microtubules encircle and attach pairs of chromosomes to each other at the centromere.
D) Because each X-shaped structure is actually four chromosomes joined at the centromere.
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36
The scientists that first described the structure of DNA were
A) Frankford and Joules.
B) Culbertson and Gallo.
C) Watson and Crick.
D) Cook and Wiley.
A) Frankford and Joules.
B) Culbertson and Gallo.
C) Watson and Crick.
D) Cook and Wiley.
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37
Which of the following cells spends the most time in interphase?
A) skin cells on the hands
B) epithelial cells lining the intestine
C) nerve cells in the brain
D) mucous membrane cells in the mouth
A) skin cells on the hands
B) epithelial cells lining the intestine
C) nerve cells in the brain
D) mucous membrane cells in the mouth
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38
During which phase of mitosis are the replicated chromosome aligned in the middle of the cell?
A) prophase
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) telophase
A) prophase
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) telophase
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39
Consider a cell that underwent mitosis but not cytokinesis. The result would be
A) a cell with one nucleus containing twice the normal number of chromosomes.
B) a cell with two nuclei.
C) daughter cells with no nucleus.
D) daughter cells with too few chromosomes.
A) a cell with one nucleus containing twice the normal number of chromosomes.
B) a cell with two nuclei.
C) daughter cells with no nucleus.
D) daughter cells with too few chromosomes.
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40
Most cells spend most of their time in which phase?
A) interphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
A) interphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
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41
Which of the following is a protein that acts as a tumor suppressor by fixing damaged DNA in cancerous cells?
A) HER2
B) Trisomy X
C) BRCA2
D) CA125
A) HER2
B) Trisomy X
C) BRCA2
D) CA125
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42
What is the process by which a tumor attracts and redirects blood vessels to keep it supplied with O? and nutrients?
A) angiogenesis
B) carcinogenesis
C) contact inhibition
D) tumor suppression
A) angiogenesis
B) carcinogenesis
C) contact inhibition
D) tumor suppression
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43
Mutations of the gene that encodes p53 result in
A) damaged DNA proceeding through mitosis.
B) damaged DNA being repaired.
C) cells containing damaged DNA to "commit suicide."
D) a receptor protein with a different shape than usual.
A) damaged DNA proceeding through mitosis.
B) damaged DNA being repaired.
C) cells containing damaged DNA to "commit suicide."
D) a receptor protein with a different shape than usual.
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44
Different versions of the same gene are called
A) alleles.
B) diploids.
C) homologous chromosomes.
D) sister chromatids.
A) alleles.
B) diploids.
C) homologous chromosomes.
D) sister chromatids.
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45
During the metaphase checkpoint, the cell checks whether
A) it is large enough to divide.
B) its DNA has been replicated correctly.
C) its chromosomes are properly attached to microtubules.
D) there are sufficient nutrients available.
A) it is large enough to divide.
B) its DNA has been replicated correctly.
C) its chromosomes are properly attached to microtubules.
D) there are sufficient nutrients available.
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46
________ are places in the cell cycle where proteins survey the cell to make sure that conditions for a favorable cell division have been met.
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47
Which of the following is a common feature of cancer cells?
A) anchorage dependence
B) contact inhibition
C) metastasis
D) controlled division
A) anchorage dependence
B) contact inhibition
C) metastasis
D) controlled division
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48
A ________ is a surgical instrument used to perform biopsies.
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49
The surgical removal of cells, tissue, or fluid that will be analyzed to determine whether they are cancerous is called a ________.
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50
Most forms of chemotherapy target which feature of cancer cells?
A) anchorage independence
B) cell division
C) invasiveness of surrounding tissues
D) metastasis
A) anchorage independence
B) cell division
C) invasiveness of surrounding tissues
D) metastasis
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51
Normal sperm or egg cells in a human
A) are produced by mitosis.
B) have one copy of each chromosome.
C) have two copies of each chromosome.
D) are genetically identical to every other sperm or egg cell made by that person.
A) are produced by mitosis.
B) have one copy of each chromosome.
C) have two copies of each chromosome.
D) are genetically identical to every other sperm or egg cell made by that person.
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52
Elevated CA125 in a patient's blood may indicate ovarian cancer. However, routine screening of CA125 levels is not practical due to which of the following reasons?
A) CA125 levels vary among individuals.
B) CA 125 levels cannot be detected during certain portions of the menstrual cycle.
C) Only ovaries secrete CA125.
D) CA125 levels are elevated only at the beginning of cancer development and then cease abruptly.
A) CA125 levels vary among individuals.
B) CA 125 levels cannot be detected during certain portions of the menstrual cycle.
C) Only ovaries secrete CA125.
D) CA125 levels are elevated only at the beginning of cancer development and then cease abruptly.
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53
A gene that encodes a protein necessary for a cell to stop at checkpoints is an example of a(n)
A) angiogenesis inhibitor.
B) growth factor.
C) oncogene.
D) tumor-suppressor gene.
A) angiogenesis inhibitor.
B) growth factor.
C) oncogene.
D) tumor-suppressor gene.
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54
What is the difference between oncogenes and proto-oncogenes?
A) Oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under favorable conditions; proto-oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under unfavorable conditions.
B) Oncogenes encode proteins that prevent cell division under unfavorable conditions; proto-oncogenes encode proteins that allow cell division under unfavorable conditions.
C) Proto-oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under favorable conditions; oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under unfavorable conditions.
D) Proto-oncogenes encode proteins that prevent cell division under unfavorable conditions; oncogenes encode proteins that allow cell division under unfavorable conditions.
A) Oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under favorable conditions; proto-oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under unfavorable conditions.
B) Oncogenes encode proteins that prevent cell division under unfavorable conditions; proto-oncogenes encode proteins that allow cell division under unfavorable conditions.
C) Proto-oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under favorable conditions; oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under unfavorable conditions.
D) Proto-oncogenes encode proteins that prevent cell division under unfavorable conditions; oncogenes encode proteins that allow cell division under unfavorable conditions.
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55
The members of a pair of nonsex chromosomes are called
A) alleles.
B) diploids.
C) gametes.
D) homologous chromosomes.
A) alleles.
B) diploids.
C) gametes.
D) homologous chromosomes.
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56
Tetraploid organisms have four copies of each chromosome instead of the two copies that humans have. How many copies of each chromosome end up in a gamete produced by a tetraploid organism?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
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57
The most common type of cancer that people in the United States die from is
A) lung cancer.
B) breast cancer.
C) skin cancer.
D) prostate cancer.
A) lung cancer.
B) breast cancer.
C) skin cancer.
D) prostate cancer.
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58
The multiple-hit model of cancer means that
A) most cancer-causing mutations are passed on to future generations.
B) most cancers occur in many different tissues simultaneously.
C) multiple mutations are required to cause most forms of cancer.
D) a person gets cancer only if both of his or her parents had cancer.
A) most cancer-causing mutations are passed on to future generations.
B) most cancers occur in many different tissues simultaneously.
C) multiple mutations are required to cause most forms of cancer.
D) a person gets cancer only if both of his or her parents had cancer.
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59
A scientist who observes cancer cells under a microscope would likely see
A) orderly rows of cells.
B) cells that are much smaller than normal cells.
C) large growths containing fluid.
D) disorganized cells.
A) orderly rows of cells.
B) cells that are much smaller than normal cells.
C) large growths containing fluid.
D) disorganized cells.
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60
Radiation therapy works primarily by
A) causing problems with microtubule formation, preventing chromosomes from aligning properly during mitosis.
B) causing tumor cells to stick together, making them easier to remove.
C) damaging DNA in cells so that cells can no longer grow and divide.
D) making cancer cells divide so fast that they may develop extra mutations and die.
A) causing problems with microtubule formation, preventing chromosomes from aligning properly during mitosis.
B) causing tumor cells to stick together, making them easier to remove.
C) damaging DNA in cells so that cells can no longer grow and divide.
D) making cancer cells divide so fast that they may develop extra mutations and die.
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61
Sister chromatids separate during
A) meiosis I and meiosis II.
B) meiosis I and mitosis.
C) mitosis and cytokinesis.
D) meiosis II and mitosis.
A) meiosis I and meiosis II.
B) meiosis I and mitosis.
C) mitosis and cytokinesis.
D) meiosis II and mitosis.
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62
Homologous chromosomes separate during
A) meiosis I.
B) meiosis II.
C) mitosis.
D) cytokinesis.
A) meiosis I.
B) meiosis II.
C) mitosis.
D) cytokinesis.
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63
A normal human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is a(n)
A) egg cell.
B) somatic cell of a female.
C) somatic cell of a male.
D) sperm cell.
A) egg cell.
B) somatic cell of a female.
C) somatic cell of a male.
D) sperm cell.
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64
A normal human cell containing 44 autosomes and two X chromosomes is a(n)
A) egg cell.
B) somatic cell of a female.
C) somatic cell of a male.
D) sperm cell.
A) egg cell.
B) somatic cell of a female.
C) somatic cell of a male.
D) sperm cell.
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65
________ are specialized cells (egg cells and sperm cells, for example)used for sexual reproduction.
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66
How does crossing over increase genetic diversity?
A) Crossing over increases the number of distinct combinations of genes that may be present in a gamete.
B) Crossing over allows specific genes to travel together on one chromosome.
C) Crossing over increases the incidence of mutations in genes.
D) Crossing over prevents the inheritance of harmful mutations.
A) Crossing over increases the number of distinct combinations of genes that may be present in a gamete.
B) Crossing over allows specific genes to travel together on one chromosome.
C) Crossing over increases the incidence of mutations in genes.
D) Crossing over prevents the inheritance of harmful mutations.
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67
Mutations are only passed from parent to child if the mutation occurs in the gonads that will be used to produce
A) a gamete.
B) an autosomal cell.
C) a diploid cell.
D) telomerase.
A) a gamete.
B) an autosomal cell.
C) a diploid cell.
D) telomerase.
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68
Crossing over occurs during
A) anaphase I of meiosis I.
B) anaphase II of meiosis II.
C) prophase I of meiosis I.
D) prophase II of meiosis II.
A) anaphase I of meiosis I.
B) anaphase II of meiosis II.
C) prophase I of meiosis I.
D) prophase II of meiosis II.
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69
Which of these conditions is caused by nondisjunction of autosomal chromosomes?
A) XO - Turner syndrome
B) Trisomy 21 - Down syndrome
C) XXY - Kleinfelter syndrome
D) Trisomy X - Meta female
A) XO - Turner syndrome
B) Trisomy 21 - Down syndrome
C) XXY - Kleinfelter syndrome
D) Trisomy X - Meta female
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70
Genes that are located on the same chromosome are called
A) alleles.
B) diploid genes.
C) homologous genes.
D) linked genes.
A) alleles.
B) diploid genes.
C) homologous genes.
D) linked genes.
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